00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A young mother with a history of bipolar disorder is currently nursing her...

    Incorrect

    • A young mother with a history of bipolar disorder is currently nursing her infant. She is experiencing symptoms of mania. What course of action would you recommend in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy...

    Correct

    • Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy who has developed a psychotic illness, considering its minimal impact on seizure threshold?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are requested to provide an expert psychiatric evaluation on a 38-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to provide an expert psychiatric evaluation on a 38-year-old woman who is accused of assaulting her neighbor with a kitchen knife. She has a history of uncontrolled seizures due to temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) and claims that she cannot recall the incident as she was having a seizure at the time. Her defense counsel has inquired whether she could plead 'diminished responsibility' due to her epilepsy.
      What would be your recommendation in this case?

      Your Answer: He can make a defence of diminished responsibility as he was suffering from an abnormality of mental functioning (TLE) which substantially impaired his mental ability to understand his conduct

      Correct Answer: He cannot make a defence of diminished responsibility as the charge is attempted murder

      Explanation:

      – Diminished responsibility can only be applied in murder cases in English law
      – It diminishes the defendant’s liability for their actions
      – Criteria for diminished responsibility include:
      – Abnormality of mental functioning caused by a recognised medical condition
      – Impairment of mental ability to understand the nature of their conduct, form a rational judgement, of exercise self-control
      – Advising that the defendant did not know the nature of their act refers to Not Guilty By Reason of Insanity
      – Advising that the defendant cannot follow proceedings in court refers to Fitness to Plead
      – Epilepsy has been used as a mental health defence in both Diminished Responsibility and Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity pleas in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are consulted by a fellow primary care provider who is evaluating a...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulted by a fellow primary care provider who is evaluating a young woman that you previously assessed in clinic six weeks ago for moderate panic disorder. At that time, you initiated treatment with sertraline 50 mg once daily, which has since been increased to 200 mg. However, she reports that she is still experiencing symptoms.
      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Switch from sertraline to mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Encourage ongoing treatment with sertraline at 200 mg for a further 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      All antidepressants have a delayed therapeutic effect and patients may initially experience an increase in panic symptoms. NICE advises a 12-week treatment period before considering additional medication.

      Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations

      Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.

      Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Concerning depression in individuals under the age of 18, what is the accurate...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning depression in individuals under the age of 18, what is the accurate statement?

      Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the only treatment option for deliberate self-harm in adolescents

      Correct Answer: There are concerns over the safety of SSRIs in adolescents

      Explanation:

      The use of SSRIs and tricyclics is not recommended for individuals under the age of 18 who engage in deliberate self-harm. Instead, family therapy and counseling are preferred options. The Committee on Safety of Medicines has advised against the use of citalopram, escitalopram, paroxetine, and sertraline due to an unfavorable balance of risks and benefits for treating depressive illness in this age group. While fluoxetine has shown some benefit, there are concerns about an increased risk of self-harm and suicidal thoughts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the most frequently reported symptom by caregivers in cases of Munchausen's...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently reported symptom by caregivers in cases of Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?

      Your Answer: Seizures

      Correct Answer: Apnoea

      Explanation:

      Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy, also known as fabricated or induced illness, is a rare form of child abuse where a caregiver, usually the mother, falsifies illness in a child by fabricating of producing symptoms and presenting the child for medical care while denying knowledge of the cause. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 4, with symptoms including apnoea, anorexia, feeding problems, and seizures. The disorder is now recognized as ‘Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another’ in the DSM-5, with criteria including falsification of physical of psychological signs of symptoms, presentation of the victim as ill, and evident deceptive behavior. The perpetrator, not the victim, receives this diagnosis. Presenting signs of symptoms can take the form of covert injury, fabrication of symptoms, of exaggeration of existing symptoms. Symptoms are often subjective and easy to fake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which area experiences the most significant degeneration in Wilson's disease? ...

    Correct

    • Which area experiences the most significant degeneration in Wilson's disease?

      Your Answer: The lenticular nucleus

      Explanation:

      Hepatolenticular degeneration is another name for Wilson’s disease.

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease: A Disorder of Copper Storage

      Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25 years, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.

      The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion. However, the majority of patients exhibit low levels of both ceruloplasmin and total serum copper.

      The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent irreversible damage to the liver and brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A young woman diagnosed with bipolar disorder and a history of severe mania...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman diagnosed with bipolar disorder and a history of severe mania has been effectively managed on lithium during her pregnancy. As she approaches her due date, she is eager to discuss the plan for her medication as she plans to breastfeed. What guidance would you offer?

      Your Answer: Continue with the lithium at the same dose but with increased frequency of monitoring levels

      Correct Answer: Switch from lithium to olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Consider prescribing olanzapine of quetiapine as prophylactic medication for women with bipolar disorder who stop taking lithium during pregnancy of plan to breastfeed, according to the Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines 13th edition. These medications can also be considered for post-partum initiation.

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - When caring for elderly individuals with a diagnosis of personality disorder, what would...

    Correct

    • When caring for elderly individuals with a diagnosis of personality disorder, what would be a valid reason for admitting them to an in-patient facility for treatment and care?

      Your Answer: To reduce risk of suicide of harm to others during crisis

      Explanation:

      Individuals with chronic and enduring mental health issues necessitate a comprehensive long-term management plan, and admission to a psychiatric in-patient unit should only occur during a crisis. For those with borderline personality disorder, it is recommended to first refer them to a crisis resolution home treatment team of other local alternatives before considering admission to an acute psychiatric in-patient unit. Admission to an acute psychiatric in-patient unit for individuals with borderline personality disorder should only be considered in cases of significant risk to oneself of others that cannot be managed by other services of when detention under the Mental Health Act is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a known factor that can cause hypospadias when taken during pregnancy?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can cause hypospadias when taken during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - How should a patient with anorexia nervosa and a BMI of 14 be...

    Incorrect

    • How should a patient with anorexia nervosa and a BMI of 14 be managed appropriately?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure, pulse and core temperature (four times daily)

      Correct Answer: Unsupervised use of toilet facilities

      Explanation:

      The MARSIPAN group has provided specific recommendations for managing the physical health issues of patients with anorexia nervosa. These recommendations vary depending on the patient’s BMI, with different management plans suggested for those with a BMI below 15 and those with a BMI below 13. For patients with a BMI below 15, the group suggests allowing unsupervised use of the toilet, but advises that fluid balance monitoring may be necessary. The other options mentioned in the question are relevant for patients with a BMI below 13. The MARSIPAN guidelines were published in October 2010 as the College Report CR162 by the Royal College of Psychiatrists and Royal College of Physicians in London.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which statement about Korsakoff's psychosis is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about Korsakoff's psychosis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: There is often a profound lack of insight

      Correct Answer: New memories are unaffected

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.

      Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In adapted ECT, what does the term 'adapted' refer to in terms of...

    Incorrect

    • In adapted ECT, what does the term 'adapted' refer to in terms of its implementation?

      Your Answer: Unilateral administration

      Correct Answer: Anaesthetic and muscle relaxant

      Explanation:

      The use of both an anaesthetic induction agent and muscle relaxant characterizes ‘Modified’ ECT, while ‘Unmodified’ ECT is no longer employed. Anticholinergics may be administered to reduce parasympathetic stimulation, and beta-blockers can be used to decrease sympathetic stimulation. EEG monitoring is a requirement when administering ECT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is classified as class B under the Misuse of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as class B under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Correct Answer: Cannabis

      Explanation:

      Class B substances are elevated to the status of Class A when they are administered through injection.

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is an alternative to clozapine that can be used in combination with...

    Incorrect

    • What is an alternative to clozapine that can be used in combination with an antipsychotic for patients with schizophrenia if clozapine is not effective?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man develops Klüver-Bucy syndrome after a head injury. Where is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man develops Klüver-Bucy syndrome after a head injury. Where is the probable site of neuropathology?

      Your Answer: Mammillary body

      Correct Answer: Amygdala

      Explanation:

      When both the amygdaloid body and inferior temporal cortex are destroyed, it can lead to a set of emotional and behavioral changes known as Klüver-Bucy syndrome. The amygdala is situated in the subcortical area of the temporal lobe. This syndrome is usually caused by surgical lesions, meningoencephalitis, of Pick’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Based on the AUCs shown below, which screening test had the highest overall...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the AUCs shown below, which screening test had the highest overall performance in differentiating between the presence of absence of bulimia?

      Test - AUC
      Test 1 - 0.42
      Test 2 - 0.95
      Test 3 - 0.82
      Test 4 - 0.11
      Test 5 - 0.67

      Your Answer: Test 4

      Correct Answer: Test 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding ROC Curves and AUC Values

      ROC (receiver operating characteristic) curves are graphs used to evaluate the effectiveness of a test in distinguishing between two groups, such as those with and without a disease. The curve plots the true positive rate against the false positive rate at different threshold settings. The goal is to find the best trade-off between sensitivity and specificity, which can be adjusted by changing the threshold. AUC (area under the curve) is a measure of the overall performance of the test, with higher values indicating better accuracy. The conventional grading of AUC values ranges from excellent to fail. ROC curves and AUC values are useful in evaluating diagnostic and screening tools, comparing different tests, and studying inter-observer variability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A new test is developed to screen for dementia in elderly patients. Trials...

    Incorrect

    • A new test is developed to screen for dementia in elderly patients. Trials have shown it has a sensitivity for detecting clinically significant dementia of 80% but a specificity of 60%. What is the likelihood ratio for a positive test result?

      Your Answer: 0.8

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      The likelihood ratio for a positive test result is 2, which means that the probability of a positive test result in a person with the condition is twice as high as the probability of a positive test result in a person without the condition.

      Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the options below is not utilized as a means of opioid...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not utilized as a means of opioid detoxification?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine

      Correct Answer: Ephedrine

      Explanation:

      Medications utilized for opioid detoxification comprise of Methadone, Buprenorphine, and Lofexidine.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The Diagnostic Project between the UK and US revealed that the increased prevalence...

    Correct

    • The Diagnostic Project between the UK and US revealed that the increased prevalence of schizophrenia in New York, as opposed to London, was due to what factor?

      Your Answer: Bias

      Explanation:

      The US-UK Diagnostic Project found that the higher rates of schizophrenia in New York were due to diagnostic bias, as US psychiatrists used broader diagnostic criteria. However, the use of standardised clinical interviews and operationalised diagnostic criteria greatly reduced the variability of both incidence and prevalence rates of schizophrenia. This was demonstrated in a study by Sartorius et al. (1986) which examined early manifestations and first-contact incidence of schizophrenia in different cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Can you explain what transference means in the context of psychotherapy? ...

    Correct

    • Can you explain what transference means in the context of psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: The thoughts and feelings of the patient towards the therapist

      Explanation:

      Transference is when a patient unconsciously assigns to their therapist feelings and attitudes that are associated with significant people from their past. These feelings can be positive, negative, of ambivalent. Projection occurs when a patient attributes their unacceptable thoughts and impulses to their therapist. Countertransference refers to the therapist’s emotions towards the patient. When a patient internalizes feelings of anger and self-harms, various processes such as denial, repression, and acting out may be involved. Although Freud initially viewed transference as a hindrance to therapy, it is now recognized that interpreting transference can aid patients in comprehending past relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A study of 30 patients with hypertension compares the effectiveness of a new...

    Incorrect

    • A study of 30 patients with hypertension compares the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication with standard treatment. 80% of the new treatment group achieved target blood pressure levels at 6 weeks, compared with only 40% of the standard treatment group. What is the number needed to treat for the new treatment?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      To calculate the Number Needed to Treat (NNT), we first need to find the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR), which is calculated by subtracting the Control Event Rate (CER) from the Experimental Event Rate (EER).

      Given that CER is 0.4 and EER is 0.8, we can calculate ARR as follows:

      ARR = CER – EER
      = 0.4 – 0.8
      = -0.4

      Since the ARR is negative, this means that the treatment actually increases the risk of the event occurring. Therefore, we cannot calculate the NNT in this case.

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the most common reason for individuals being deemed 'unfit to plead'?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common reason for individuals being deemed 'unfit to plead'?

      Your Answer: Dementia

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The Pritchard Criteria, which assess cognitive ability, are not the sole determining factor for individuals found unfit to plead. In fact, less than one third of those deemed unfit have an intellectual impairment. The majority of individuals found unfit to plead actually have schizophrenia. This information was reported in a systematic review of the constructs and their application in the Journal of Forensic Psychiatry and Psychology by T Rogers in 2008.

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the recommended duration for inpatient opioid detoxification according to the NICE...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended duration for inpatient opioid detoxification according to the NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Up to 3 months

      Correct Answer: Up to 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      In an inpatient of residential setting, the recommended duration for opioid detoxification is typically no more than 4 weeks, while in a community setting, it can last up to 12 weeks.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - How would you rephrase the question Which of the following refers to the...

    Incorrect

    • How would you rephrase the question Which of the following refers to the proportion of people scoring positive on a test that actually have the condition?

      Your Answer: Sensitivity

      Correct Answer: Positive predictive value

      Explanation:

      Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the term used to describe the study design where a margin...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the study design where a margin is set for the mean reduction of PANSS score, and if the confidence interval of the difference between the new drug and olanzapine falls within this margin, the trial is considered successful?

      Your Answer: Equivalence trial

      Explanation:

      Study Designs for New Drugs: Options and Considerations

      When launching a new drug, there are various study design options available. One common approach is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be deemed unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it does not allow for a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, statisticians must decide whether the trial aims to demonstrate superiority, equivalence, of non-inferiority to an existing treatment.

      Superiority trials may seem like the obvious choice, but they require a large sample size to show a significant benefit over an existing treatment. Equivalence trials define an equivalence margin on a specified outcome, and if the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within this margin, the drugs are assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin. These trials require smaller sample sizes, and once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, larger studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.

      It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent of even non-inferior, they may compete on price of convenience. Overall, the choice of study design depends on various factors, including ethical considerations, sample size, and the desired outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the options below is not a NICE-recommended method for preventing bipolar...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not a NICE-recommended method for preventing bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, individuals with bipolar disorder should be considered for long-term treatment with lithium, olanzapine, quetiapine, of valproate. If symptoms are not adequately controlled with one medication, augmentation with lithium, olanzapine, of valproate may be considered. If augmentation is not effective, Lamotrigine of carbamazepine may be considered as alternative options.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is a common tool used to help determine the appropriate sample size...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common tool used to help determine the appropriate sample size for qualitative research?

      Your Answer: Bracketing

      Correct Answer: Saturation

      Explanation:

      Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A client visits the center for a follow-up. She became dependent on opiate...

    Correct

    • A client visits the center for a follow-up. She became dependent on opiate drugs a few years ago after being given oxycodone for a backache that resulted from a lumbar puncture. She effectively finished a detoxification program and has been off opiate medication for 7 months now.

      At which stage of the stages of change model is she presently?

      Your Answer: Maintenance

      Explanation:

      Stages of Change Model

      Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.

      The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.

      The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What risk factor for autism spectrum disorder has consistently appeared in research studies?...

    Correct

    • What risk factor for autism spectrum disorder has consistently appeared in research studies?

      Your Answer: Advanced parental age

      Explanation:

      According to current evidence, there is no connection between autism spectrum disorder (ASD) risk and various environmental factors such as vaccination, maternal smoking, thimerosal exposure, and assisted reproductive technologies (Modabbernia, 2017).

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      10.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (2/9) 22%
Forensic Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (1/3) 33%
Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services (1/2) 50%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (1/5) 20%
Old Age Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (2/7) 29%
Psychotherapy (1/1) 100%
Passmed