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  • Question 1 - What is the primary way in which agomelatine works? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary way in which agomelatine works?

      Your Answer: Melatonin receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine is a newly developed antidepressant that primarily targets the melatonin receptors, but its antidepressant properties stem from its ability to block serotonin receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which process breaks down dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which process breaks down dopamine?

      Your Answer: COMT and MAO-A

      Correct Answer: COMT, MAO-B and MAO-A

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which lobe of the brain is responsible for causing Gerstmann's syndrome when it...

    Correct

    • Which lobe of the brain is responsible for causing Gerstmann's syndrome when it malfunctions?

      Your Answer: Dominant parietal

      Explanation:

      Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms

      The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.

      Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.

      Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.

      In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      78.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What percentage of Caucasians have a deficiency in the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6?...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of Caucasians have a deficiency in the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6?

      Your Answer: 78%

      Correct Answer: 6%

      Explanation:

      Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are requested to assess a 40-year-old male patient who is currently admitted...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 40-year-old male patient who is currently admitted to the hospital for treatment of severe depression. The nursing staff reports that he is experiencing tachycardia, hypertension, and has a fever of 38°C. Upon examination, you observe that the patient is confused and exhibiting myoclonus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome is a serious condition that can be life-threatening and presents with a variety of symptoms affecting cognitive, autonomic, and somatic functions. It can be mistaken for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), but the presence of myoclonus can help differentiate between the two conditions. Treatment involves discontinuing medications and, in severe cases, using a serotonin antagonist. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage agitation. Akathisia is a type of movement disorder, while hyperthermia can occur in both serotonin syndrome and NMS. Encephalopathy refers to a general dysfunction of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following rating scales would be most suitable for evaluating the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following rating scales would be most suitable for evaluating the effectiveness of a new antipsychotic medication in reducing delusional beliefs among individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: PANSS- Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale

      Explanation:

      The PANSS is commonly utilized in clinical trials to assess positive and negative symptoms as well as general psychopathology (30 items in total). To measure extrapyramidal side effects, the Simpson Angus Scale, Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS), and Barnes Akathisia Scale are frequently employed. While the Clinical Global Impression (CGI) scale provides a general score of 1 to 5 for a patient’s overall presentation, it may not be as useful for evaluating a specific positive symptom of schizophrenia as the question suggests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which class of antidepressants share a molecular structure similar to carbamazepine? ...

    Correct

    • Which class of antidepressants share a molecular structure similar to carbamazepine?

      Your Answer: Tricyclics

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine mechanism of action involves decreasing the metabolism of dopamine and noradrenaline, which is similar to tricyclic antidepressants due to their comparable molecular structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypercalcemia and its Causes

      Hypercalcemia is a medical condition that can cause fatigue, confusion, and depression. It is characterized by the classic symptoms of bone pain, abdominal pain, renal stones, and psychic moans. This condition can be triggered by the use of lithium and thiazide diuretics.

      It is important to note that around 50% of serum calcium is bound to plasma proteins, particularly albumin. This means that any abnormalities in albumin levels can lead to inaccurate calcium results. To address this issue, a corrected calcium test is usually included in a patient’s blood work to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is a true statement about benzodiazepines? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer: They cross the blood brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics of Benzodiazepines

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are easily absorbed when taken orally. They have a high affinity for plasma proteins, with diazepam showing a binding rate of 95%. These drugs are primarily metabolized in the liver. Due to their lipophilic nature, they can quickly cross the blood-brain barrier and placental barrier. This property makes them effective in treating anxiety and other related disorders. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of benzodiazepines is crucial in determining their efficacy and potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What substance is classified as a butyrylcholinesterase inhibitor? ...

    Correct

    • What substance is classified as a butyrylcholinesterase inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      Semorinemab is a potential treatment for dementia that works by targeting the N-terminal region of the tau protein. By binding to tau, it aims to reduce its spread within neurons and slow down the progression of the disease.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      72.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which cognitive heuristic best explains why Drug B captured a higher market share...

    Incorrect

    • Which cognitive heuristic best explains why Drug B captured a higher market share than Drug A, despite both drugs having similar efficacy and mechanisms of action, with Drug A marketed as having a 50% failure rate and Drug B marketed as having a 50% success rate?

      Your Answer: Anchoring

      Correct Answer: Framing

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      54.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is a typical adverse effect associated with the use of carbamazepine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a typical adverse effect associated with the use of carbamazepine?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Correct Answer: Diplopia

      Explanation:

      Diplopia is a frequently occurring side-effect, while the other options are infrequent of extremely infrequent side-effects of carbamazepine.

      Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects

      Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.

      Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.

      In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about the neuropathology of Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the neuropathology of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Neurofibrillary tangles are extracellular

      Correct Answer: Tau accumulations are found in both senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      Senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles contain accumulations of hyperphosphorylated tau, while Hirano bodies are primarily composed of actin. The cytoskeleton is made up of microtubules (composed of tubulin), actin filaments, and intermediate filaments. Lewy bodies are characterized by the presence of insoluble aggregates of α-Synuclein, a protein that plays a role in regulating synaptic vesicle trafficking and neurotransmitter release.

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      58.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is meant by formication, an abnormal sensation experienced by some individuals? ...

    Correct

    • What is meant by formication, an abnormal sensation experienced by some individuals?

      Your Answer: Hallucinations of movements just below the skin

      Explanation:

      Formication refers to the sensation of movement under the skin, which can be associated with cocaine abuse and is commonly referred to as the cocaine bug. Autoscopic hallucinations occur when an individual perceives their own body as being projected into external space. Delirium tremens, a symptom of alcohol withdrawal, can cause visual hallucinations such as dark shadows of rats, often appearing as Lilliputian figures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further assess their condition, you inquire about their seating preference when dining out.

      Which of the following responses would best support your suspicion?

      Your Answer: In a quiet corner

      Explanation:

      Individuals with social phobia experience anxiety and apprehension regarding the possibility of receiving unfavorable attention from others, leading them to avoid eating in public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What structure's reduced asymmetry has been linked to schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structure's reduced asymmetry has been linked to schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Corpus callosum

      Correct Answer: Planum temporale

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      98.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In what circumstances are neurofibrillary tangles less commonly observed? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what circumstances are neurofibrillary tangles less commonly observed?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's

      Correct Answer: Vascular dementia

      Explanation:

      Tauopathies exhibit tangles, but vascular dementia is not classified as one.

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman with mild anxiety was prescribed an antidepressant but experienced sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with mild anxiety was prescribed an antidepressant but experienced sexual side effects. Her doctor suggested switching to a medication that is a serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). What is an example of an SNRI?

      Your Answer: Escitalopram

      Correct Answer: Milnacipran

      Explanation:

      SNRIs are a type of antidepressant medication that work by blocking the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, providing two mechanisms to help with the antidepressant effect. They are particularly effective at inhibiting the norepinephrine transporter compared to the serotonin transporter. Examples of SNRIs include Venlafaxine, Desvenlafaxine, Duloxetine, and Milnacipran. Bupropion is a different type of antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine (NDRI). Escitalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), while Mirtazapine is a noradrenergic and specific serotonin antidepressant (NaSSA). Nefazodone is a serotonin antagonist/reuptake inhibitor (SARI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What ethical framework are the professionals using? A physician in their mid-career states...

    Correct

    • What ethical framework are the professionals using? A physician in their mid-career states that they do not support legalizing euthanasia because they fear it would alter their character and desensitize their conscience. Meanwhile, another physician in their early career believes that consistently permitting patients to endure pain due to ethical of legal concerns would result in them becoming indifferent.

      Your Answer: Virtue ethics

      Explanation:

      Virtue Ethics: Judging Actions Based on Moral Character

      In virtue ethics, the evaluation of an action is not based on moral principles, intended outcomes, of societal effects. Instead, it is judged by how it shapes the moral character of the actor. This means that individuals who follow virtue ethics are concerned with how their actions will affect their own sense of morality. For example, if two students are faced with a moral dilemma, they may take different positions based on how they believe it would impact their own moral character. This approach to ethics emphasizes the importance of cultivating virtuous traits such as honesty, compassion, and courage, rather than simply following rules of achieving specific outcomes. By focusing on the development of moral character, virtue ethics encourages individuals to strive for excellence in all aspects of their lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is linked to losing weight? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is linked to losing weight?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Topiramate is a medication used for epilepsy and bipolar affective disorder. It works by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels and increasing GABA levels. Unlike most psychotropic drugs, it is associated with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which option is considered to have the lowest risk of causing damage to...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is considered to have the lowest risk of causing damage to the heart?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Lofepramine

      Explanation:

      Among the tricyclic antidepressants, Lofepramine has the lowest potential for causing cardiotoxicity.

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is not a known trigger for migraines? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a known trigger for migraines?

      Your Answer: Spicy foods

      Explanation:

      Migraine

      Migraine is a common condition that affects 5-10% of the population, with a higher prevalence in women than men (2-3:1). It typically starts in childhood of adolescence and has a strong familial association, with 2/3 of cases reporting a family history of migraine.

      The most prominent symptom of migraine is headache, which is usually unilateral but can occur on both sides. Other symptoms include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, photophobia, and intolerance of noise.

      In about 1/3 of cases, migraines are preceded by a visual aura (known as classic migraine). The most common form of visual aura is the ‘fortification spectra’ (semicircle of zigzag lights), but other disturbances such as micropsia, macropsia, zoom vision, mosaic vision, scotomas, and even hallucinations can occur.

      Basilar migraines are a subtype of migraine where headache and aura are accompanied by difficulty speaking, vertigo, ringing in ears, of other brainstem-related symptoms, but not motor weakness.

      Migraine can be triggered by various factors, including alcohol, cheese, chocolate, skipping meals, missing sleep, and oral contraceptives. Stress is also a common precipitant of migraine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is a disadvantage of closed questions? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a disadvantage of closed questions?

      Your Answer: They make it easier to control the interview

      Explanation:

      While open questions offer several benefits, they can pose challenges in terms of interview control and record-keeping.

      Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions

      When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In what situations can the AMDISEN rating scale be applied effectively? ...

    Correct

    • In what situations can the AMDISEN rating scale be applied effectively?

      Your Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and...

    Correct

    • A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and appear to have both positive and negative symptoms. Which of the following assessment tools would be most useful in monitoring their psychotic symptoms?

      Your Answer: PANSS

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Assessment Tools: Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS)

      As a language model AI, I am familiar with the rating scales used to assess individuals with schizophrenia. Two of the most commonly used scales are the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and the Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS). While there are many other scales available, these two are particularly important for exam purposes. The BPRS is a tool used to assess the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia, including positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms such as apathy and social withdrawal. The PANSS, on the other hand, is a more comprehensive tool that assesses both positive and negative symptoms, as well as general psychopathology. Both scales are useful in helping clinicians to evaluate the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which statement about modafinil is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about modafinil is accurate?

      Your Answer: It should not be used in people with obstructive sleep apnoea

      Correct Answer: It does not tend to lead to dependence

      Explanation:

      Modafinil shares similarities in its mechanism of action with amphetamine, and its effects are relatively brief with a half-life of approximately 8-12 hours. Additionally, the side effects of modafinil are comparable to those of amphetamine.

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory?

      Your Answer: It has a total of 24 items

      Correct Answer: Is used to assess the severity of depression

      Explanation:

      The Beck’s depression inventory consists of 21 questions with a maximum score of 63. Each question is scored from 0 to 3 and is used to evaluate the severity of depression. It is a self-rated assessment that covers the two weeks leading up to the evaluation.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You are employed at a psychiatric inpatient unit where several patients are taking...

    Incorrect

    • You are employed at a psychiatric inpatient unit where several patients are taking clozapine. Among the following patients, who would you suspect to have the lowest plasma clozapine levels if they were all taking the same dose?

      Your Answer: A 30-year-old Asian female non-smoker

      Correct Answer: A 25-year-old Caucasian male smoker

      Explanation:

      Younger patients, males, and smokers typically exhibit lower plasma levels of clozapine, while the Asian population tends to have higher levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved to the United States from Japan...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved to the United States from Japan presents to the local Emergency department in a state of extreme anxiety. The attending physician refers her to you as the psychiatrist on call and reports no evidence of an organic illness based on her physical examination.

      Upon meeting the patient, she expresses intense distress and reports a belief that her vagina is shrinking and that she will die as a result. She attributes this to a loss of balance in her sexual energy after engaging in sexual activity with a partner who did not align with her astrological sign.

      What would be your preferred diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Koro

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by the patient are consistent with Koro, a culture-specific disorder observed primarily in males (and occasionally in females) in China and Thailand. For more information, please refer to Edwards JW’s article Indigenous Koro, a genital retraction syndrome of insular Southeast Asia: a critical review published in Cult Med Psychiatry in 1984.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
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  • Question 30 - What is true about global psychogenic amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about global psychogenic amnesia?

      Your Answer: Repetitive questioning is a common feature

      Correct Answer: It is often associated with fugue states

      Explanation:

      The presence of repetitive questioning is not commonly seen in cases of global psychogenic amnesia and may indicate transient global amnesia instead.

      Psychogenic Amnesia: A Non-Neurological Syndrome

      Psychogenic amnesia is a rare condition where patients experience severe retrograde amnesia without any known brain injury of disorder. This syndrome is also known as hysterical amnesia, dissociative amnesia, and functional retrograde amnesia. It can be difficult to distinguish from malingered amnesia. There are two types of psychogenic amnesia: global and situation-specific. Global psychogenic amnesia can manifest as psychogenic fugue, psychogenic focal retrograde amnesia, of multiple personality disorder. Situation-specific amnesia refers to a gap in memory for a traumatic incident and can arise in various circumstances, such as PTSD of being the victim of an offense. The amnesia in global psychogenic amnesia often follows a reversed gradient, with earlier memories preferentially affected. Three factors have been identified as predisposing factors for global psychogenic amnesia: a severe precipitating stress, a history of depressed mood and suicidal ideas, and a previous history of a transient neurological amnesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (6/13) 46%
Neurosciences (1/5) 20%
Description And Measurement (1/1) 100%
Classification And Assessment (4/5) 80%
Social Psychology (1/3) 33%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Diagnosis (1/1) 100%
Stigma And Culture (1/1) 100%
Passmed