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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her neck....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her neck. She is anxious because her sister was diagnosed with a highly aggressive type of thyroid cancer that is prevalent in older adults and has a poor prognosis. What type of cancer is she talking about?

      Your Answer: Medullary carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Anaplastic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Thyroid Cancer: An Overview

      Thyroid cancer is a relatively rare malignancy that affects the thyroid gland. There are several types of thyroid cancer, each with its own unique characteristics and prognosis. Here is an overview of the most common types of thyroid cancer:

      1. Anaplastic carcinoma: This is a highly aggressive form of thyroid cancer that is typically found in elderly patients. It has a low survival rate and is usually treated palliatively.

      2. Papillary carcinoma: This is the most common type of thyroid cancer and typically affects younger patients. It tends to spread to local lymph nodes but rarely metastasizes via the bloodstream.

      3. Follicular carcinoma: This is the second most common type of thyroid cancer and is more aggressive than papillary carcinoma. It tends to spread via the bloodstream.

      4. Medullary carcinoma: This type of thyroid cancer originates from thyroid C cells and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. It produces calcitonin, which is used as a tumor marker.

      5. Thyroid lymphoma: This is a rare type of thyroid cancer that is almost always a non-Hodgkin’s B-cell lymphoma. It is treated as a lymphoma rather than a thyroid cancer.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of thyroid cancer is important for diagnosis and treatment. If you have concerns about your thyroid health, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      10.4
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  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old man comes to the Cancer Outpatient Department complaining of severe back...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the Cancer Outpatient Department complaining of severe back pain. He reports that the NSAIDs and opioids he has been taking are not providing relief. The patient has been diagnosed with CRPC that is advancing rapidly. He has completed a full course of taxane chemotherapy and imaging has revealed metastases in his vertebrae and organs.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: External beam radiation therapy (EBRT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pain Relief in Metastatic Prostate Cancer Patients

      External beam radiation therapy (EBRT) is the preferred treatment for pain relief in men with castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC). It has a success rate of 60-80% in providing complete or partial pain relief in palliative care management. Bisphosphonates can also be prescribed in combination with other agents for mild to moderate pain relief in hormone-resistant prostate cancer patients. Enzalutamide, an antineoplastic, antiandrogen systemic drug, is not preferred in rapidly progressing cases of CRPC. Radium-223, an alpha-particle-emitting radiopharmaceutical agent, is contraindicated in cases with visceral metastases. Stereotactic body radiotherapy (STBRT) is the preferred modality for pain relief in metastatic prostate cancer patients with longer survival times, using targeted irradiation to minimize damage to adjacent normal tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which bone is an uncommon location for metastatic spread? ...

    Correct

    • Which bone is an uncommon location for metastatic spread?

      Your Answer: Tibia

      Explanation:

      Bone Metastasis and its Common Sites

      Bone metastasis is a common cause of pain in cancer patients. It can also lead to pathological fractures and hypercalcaemia. The spine is the most commonly affected part of the skeleton, followed by the pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull. However, the tibia is rarely involved in bone metastasis.

      In summary, bone metastasis is a significant concern for cancer patients, as it can cause pain and other complications. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients for signs of bone metastasis, especially in the commonly affected sites such as the spine, pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      3.5
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP after her 38-year-old sister was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP after her 38-year-old sister was diagnosed with breast cancer. She is worried about her own risk of developing the disease, especially since their mother passed away from breast cancer at age 41. The patient requests a referral for genetic testing to determine if she carries mutations commonly associated with inherited breast cancer.

      In which genes are these mutations most frequently found?

      Your Answer: BRCA2

      Explanation:

      Genetic Mutations and Their Associated Risks

      Inherited genetic mutations can increase the risk of developing certain diseases, including cancer. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are associated with an increased incidence of breast and ovarian cancers, with a 50% chance of inheritance from a parent. Mutations in these genes significantly increase the lifetime risk of developing these malignancies, with women with the BRCA1 mutation having a 72% risk of developing breast cancer and a 44% risk of developing ovarian cancer. The APC gene is associated with familial polyposis and an increased risk of colorectal cancer, while mutations in the PKD1 gene are associated with polycystic kidney disease. The delta F508 gene mutation causes cystic fibrosis, and mutations in the RAS gene are implicated in a wide range of malignancies. Understanding these genetic mutations and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention efforts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      6.8
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. She has been diagnosed with inoperable cancer and is experiencing pain from infiltration of the posterior abdominal wall. Currently, her pain is being managed effectively with Kapake (codeine 30 mg and paracetamol 500 mg), taken two tablets four times per day.

      What is the optimal approach for managing her pain?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous diamorphine by continuous infusion

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Analgesia for a Patient with Inoperable Carcinoma

      When a patient has inoperable carcinoma and requires opiate analgesia, it is important to choose the most effective method of administration. In the case of a patient who is vomiting, parenteral analgesia is necessary. Subcutaneous diamorphine administered through continuous infusion is the best option for achieving adequate analgesia while also allowing for effective dose titration.

      Other options, such as fentanyl patches, are not ideal for titration as they are used for 72 hours and are typically reserved for patients with stable opiate usage. Intramuscular pethidine has a delayed onset and prolonged effect, which is not ideal when the patient’s opiate requirements are unknown. Oral morphine is unlikely to be tolerated in a vomiting patient, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are unlikely to provide sufficient pain relief in this case.

      In summary, subcutaneous diamorphine administered through continuous infusion is the most effective and appropriate method of analgesia for a patient with inoperable carcinoma who is vomiting and requires opiate pain relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 51-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of abdominal discomfort and bloating....

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of abdominal discomfort and bloating. She reports feeling fatigued and has lost around 5 kg in weight during this time. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a solid mass with multiple compartments and high vascularity originating from the left ovary. Which tumour marker is expected to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ca-125

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers for Ovarian Cancer: Understanding Ca-125 and Other Tests

      Ovarian cancer is a serious condition that can be difficult to diagnose. However, there are several tumour markers that can help healthcare professionals identify the presence of ovarian cancer and monitor its progression. One of the most well-established tumour markers for epithelial ovarian cancer is Ca-125. This marker is likely to be elevated in patients with ovarian malignancies, particularly those over the age of 50 who present with symptoms such as abdominal distension, pain, early satiety, loss of appetite, urinary frequency and urgency, unexplained weight loss, fatigue, or change in bowel habit.

      While Ca-125 is not specific to ovarian cancer, a raised level of 35 iu/ml or greater should prompt an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis. If the scan is suggestive of ovarian cancer, the patient must be referred to Gynaecology on an urgent basis. Other tumour markers, such as SCC antigen, Ca 19-9, calcitonin, and CEA, may also be used to aid in the management of advanced cervical cancers, gastrointestinal malignancies, thyroid malignancies, and other types of cancer, respectively. However, these markers are not commonly associated with ovarian tumours.

      It is important to note that tumour markers should not be used in isolation to diagnose or monitor ovarian cancer. They should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests, such as imaging studies and biopsies, to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. With proper use and interpretation, tumour markers can be a valuable tool in the fight against ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 7 - An older gentleman with prostate cancer is beginning treatment with morphine elixir for...

    Correct

    • An older gentleman with prostate cancer is beginning treatment with morphine elixir for painful bone metastases. What would be the most suitable advice to give to his caregiver?

      Your Answer: A laxative will need to be used

      Explanation:

      Managing Pain in Terminally Ill Patients

      Managing pain in terminally ill patients can be challenging, but there are several strategies that can be employed to provide relief. When prescribing narcotics, it is important to start a laxative regimen to prevent constipation. Sedation may occur in the first few days, but this typically wears off. If pain relief is inadequate, the dose should be increased, although it is important to note that cocaine may produce hallucinations. It is also important to note that addiction is not a concern in terminally ill patients. Injections are typically three times more effective than oral medication. By employing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate pain and improve the quality of life for terminally ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      22.3
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  • Question 8 - A 58-year-old lady with multiple myeloma visits the Oncology Day Hospital for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old lady with multiple myeloma visits the Oncology Day Hospital for her monthly infusion of intravenous zoledronic acid. She reports experiencing neck pain and new weakness and paraesthesiae in her left hand and arm.
      What is the most suitable initial approach for managing this woman?

      Your Answer: Urgent blood cultures

      Correct Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) whole spine

      Explanation:

      Urgent Management for a Patient with Acute Neck Pain and Malignancy

      Explanation:

      When a patient with malignancy presents with acute neck pain and focal neurological deficits, urgent investigation is necessary. This is particularly important for patients with multiple myeloma, who are at risk for developing plasmacytomas, which can cause spinal cord compression or pathological fractures. In this case, an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the whole spine is needed to assess for spinal cord compression.

      While blood cultures may be important in other situations, they would not affect the management of this patient. Instead, the focus should be on obtaining a diagnosis and definitive treatment. Plasmacytomas are radiosensitive, so urgent radiotherapy is indicated for treatment.

      Although analgesia and pain assessment are necessary, they are not the top priority. Physiotherapy assessment for hand weakness may be beneficial, but it does not need to be done urgently. An X-ray of the cervical spine is not sensitive enough to detect all plasmacytomas, so an MRI of the whole spine is necessary to assess for multiple levels of disease.

      In summary, urgent management for a patient with acute neck pain and malignancy includes an urgent MRI of the whole spine to assess for spinal cord compression, followed by urgent radiotherapy for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      329
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department feeling generally unwell, with fever...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department feeling generally unwell, with fever and a cough. She had chemotherapy for her breast cancer 4 days ago. There are no known drug allergies. On examination:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Blood pressure (BP) 108/70 < 120/80 mmHg
      Heart rate (HR) 101 60–100 beats/min
      Respiratory rate (RR) 26 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 96% on air 94–98%
      Temperature 38.7ºC 36.1–37.2°C
      There is some scattered crepitations at the right lung base. You check on the system and see that bloods were done 2 days ago, and showed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 120 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 3.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next-step management?

      Your Answer: Start IV piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)

      Explanation:

      Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Post-Chemotherapy Patient

      When a patient presents with neutropenic sepsis post-chemotherapy, it is crucial to start a broad-spectrum antibiotic immediately, without waiting for blood results or investigations. Tazocin is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE, but local hospital guidelines should be consulted if there is a known penicillin allergy. The Sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated promptly, and antibiotics should be administered within an hour of presentation. Once the patient is stabilized, an urgent chest X-ray can be performed. While granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) administration may have a role in selected patients, it is not routinely used in neutropenic sepsis. Consultation with the haematology team is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      3.6
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman presented to the Oncology Clinic with chronic cough with haemoptysis,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presented to the Oncology Clinic with chronic cough with haemoptysis, she has a long standing heavy smoking history. A bronchoscopy was performed which showed a tumour confined to the left main bronchus. A biopsy was taken and showed small cell lung cancer. She then had a staging computed tomography (CT) scan which showed a TNM grading of T2, N1, M0. She does not have any other medical co-morbidities and is usually independent in all daily activities.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Surgery

      Correct Answer: Chemotherapy and radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Small Cell Lung Cancer

      Small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that is often treated with a combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy. According to NICE guidelines, concurrent chemoradiotherapy is the recommended first-line treatment for limited-stage disease. Radiotherapy alone is less effective than combination therapy.

      Surgery is not routinely recommended for limited disease, but may be considered for patients with very early stage disease. Interferon-alpha is no longer recommended for small cell lung cancer.

      For patients with extensive metastatic disease, palliative chemotherapy may be offered. However, this decision should be discussed with the patient. In the case of a patient without significant co-morbidities and no metastases, other treatment options may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      387.9
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  • Question 11 - A woman in her 40s has the BRCA2 mutation. What cancers are she...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 40s has the BRCA2 mutation. What cancers are she and her family members at higher risk of developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast, prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, melanoma

      Explanation:

      BRCA1 and BRCA2: Associated Cancers and Mechanisms of Action

      The BRCA1 and BRCA2 tumour suppressor genes are commonly associated with breast cancer, but they also predispose individuals to other types of cancer such as prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, and melanoma. Mutations in both copies of BRCA2 can lead to Fanconi anaemia and an increased risk of certain types of leukaemia.

      Both BRCA1 and BRCA2 play a role in repairing double-stranded DNA breaks, but through different mechanisms. BRCA2 is involved in homologous recombination, while BRCA1 is involved in non-homologous end-joining. This mechanism is utilized in the treatment of BRCA-associated cancers through the use of PARP inhibitors. PARP is a protein that repairs single-stranded DNA breaks, and inhibiting it creates multiple double-stranded breaks that cannot be fixed by BRCA-deficient cells, leading to cell death.

      While BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations account for approximately 20% of familial breast cancer cases, they are also associated with other cancers such as prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, and melanoma. However, they are not associated with bladder cancer. Leukaemia, thyroid, and endometrial cancers are also not linked to BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old man with oesophageal cancer has completed two cycles of neo-adjuvant cisplatin...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with oesophageal cancer has completed two cycles of neo-adjuvant cisplatin and 5-fluorouracil (5FU) and is scheduled for his third cycle of chemotherapy in a week. He complains of pain, discharge, and redness around the site of his jejunostomy and has a fever of 38.5 °C. Upon examination, he is stable, with a clear chest and soft abdomen, but shows signs of infection around the jejunostomy. His renal function is normal, and he has no known drug allergies. A full blood count taken yesterday reveals a neutrophil count of 0.5 × 109/l.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obtain iv access, take full blood count and blood cultures and commence iv piperacillin–tazobactam (as per local policy) as soon as possible

      Explanation:

      Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Patient Receiving Chemotherapy

      Neutropenic sepsis is a life-threatening condition that can occur in patients receiving chemotherapy. It is defined as pyrexia in the presence of a neutrophil count of <0.5 × 109/l. Prompt administration of broad-spectrum iv antibiotics is crucial in improving outcomes. Therefore, obtaining iv access, taking full blood count and blood cultures, and commencing iv piperacillin–tazobactam (as per local policy) should be done as soon as possible. In cases where there is suspicion of a collection around the jejunostomy, further imaging and surgical consultation may be required. It is important to discuss the management of chemotherapy with the patient’s oncologist. Delaying chemotherapy is necessary in cases of active infection and worsening neutropenia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines advise treating suspected neutropenic sepsis as an acute medical emergency and offering empiric antibiotic therapy immediately. It is important to note that NICE guidelines recommend offering β-lactam monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam as initial empiric antibiotic therapy to patients with suspected neutropenic sepsis who need iv treatment, unless there are patient-specific or local microbiological contraindications. However, this should be reviewed with the result of cultures at 48 hours. In summary, the management of neutropenic sepsis in a patient receiving chemotherapy requires prompt and appropriate administration of antibiotics, delaying chemotherapy, and close collaboration with the patient’s oncologist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 13 - A woman aged 57 presents with a unilateral ovarian mass, accompanied by a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman aged 57 presents with a unilateral ovarian mass, accompanied by a large omental metastasis.
      Which of the following postoperative treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carboplatin and Taxol®

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy Options for Ovarian Cancer

      Platinum-based drugs, such as carboplatin and cisplatin, are the primary treatment for ovarian cancer. Carboplatin is preferred over cisplatin due to its lower risk of kidney and nerve damage. For germ cell tumors of the testicles or ovaries, a combination of bleomycin, cisplatin, and etoposide (BEP) may be used.

      While Taxol® can be used alone, it is not as effective as when combined with a platinum-based drug. In 2002, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended the addition of Taxol® as a first-line drug for ovarian cancer treatment, based on large multicenter randomized trials. Overall, the choice of chemotherapy depends on the type and stage of ovarian cancer, as well as individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man undergoing chemo-radiotherapy treatment for prostate cancer complains of poor appetite...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man undergoing chemo-radiotherapy treatment for prostate cancer complains of poor appetite and nausea secondary to his treatment. He is finding it difficult to cope with his illness and has become depressed.
      Which of the following may be the most suitable appetite stimulant for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Medications for Appetite Stimulation and Mood Improvement in a Patient with Anorexia

      Mirtazapine is an antidepressant that can also stimulate appetite, making it a suitable option for a patient with anorexia who needs both mood improvement and increased food intake. Dexamethasone can also be used to boost appetite in the short term. However, metoclopramide is not effective for mood improvement and would require dual therapy with another medication. Megestrol, a progestin, is indicated for anorexia, cachexia, or significant weight loss, but it does not address mood issues. Trazodone, on the other hand, is an antidepressant but may not be the first choice for a patient with anorexia as it can cause weight loss and anorexia as side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 15 - A 47-year-old woman with primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with a 2 week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with a 2 week history of pain under her right rib cage and 2 days history of yellow skin and pale stools. She has also experienced a weight loss of 2 stone over the last 6 months. What would be the appropriate tumour marker investigation for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA 19–9

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Associated Cancers

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring certain types of cancer. Here are some common tumor markers and the cancers they are associated with:

      – CA 19-9: This marker is associated with cholangiocarcinoma, but can also be positive in pancreatic and colorectal cancer.
      – CA 15-3: This marker is associated with breast cancer.
      – AFP: This marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and teratomas.
      – CEA: This marker is associated with colorectal cancer.
      – CA 125: This marker is associated with ovarian, uterine, and breast cancer.

      It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder after presenting with haematuria. Are there any recognised occupational exposures that increase the risk of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aniline dye

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer

      Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the lower abdomen that stores urine. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing bladder cancer. One of the most significant risk factors is smoking, which can cause harmful chemicals to accumulate in the bladder and increase the risk of cancer. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry, as well as rubber manufacture, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Additionally, the use of cyclophosphamide, a chemotherapy drug, can increase the risk of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis, a parasitic infection that is common in certain parts of the world, is also a risk factor for bladder cancer, particularly for squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A 76-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency confused, dehydrated and constipated. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency confused, dehydrated and constipated. He is complaining of significant pain down his left flank. He was diagnosed with multiple myeloma 6 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment. He is treated with aggressive fluid resuscitation and recovers promptly.
      Elevated levels of which biochemical parameter would has caused this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Electrolyte Imbalances and their Symptoms

      Calcium: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy is a common cause of lytic bone lesions in multiple myeloma patients. Symptoms include dehydration, which can be prevented with aggressive fluid resuscitation. Treatment involves intravenous bisphosphonate or denosumab and calcitonin to inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption.

      Vitamin D: Over-medication with vitamin D can lead to hypervitaminosis D, which presents similar symptoms to hypercalcaemia. However, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with lytic bone lesions.

      Phosphate: Hyperphosphataemia can be caused by impaired renal excretion or massive extracellular phosphate loadings. Symptoms are similar to hypercalcaemia, but hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with multiple myeloma.

      Sodium: Hypernatraemia presents with symptoms of thirst, lethargy, weakness, and irritability.

      Potassium: Hyperkalaemia can present with symptoms of chest pain, palpitations, and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 18 - What is the most frequent location for an osteoclastoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent location for an osteoclastoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower end of femur

      Explanation:

      Distribution and Characteristics of Giant Cell Tumours

      Giant cell tumours, also known as osteoclastomas, are most commonly found around the knee at the distal femur, accounting for approximately 50% of cases. The next most common site is the proximal tibia, followed by the proximal humerus and distal radius. These tumours are typically solitary, with less than 1% being multicentric.

      Overall, giant cell tumours are relatively rare and tend to occur in young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. They are characterized by the presence of numerous multinucleated giant cells, which are responsible for the destruction of bone tissue. While most cases are benign, some may become malignant and spread to other parts of the body. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the tumour, although radiation therapy and other treatments may also be used in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with proximal muscle weakness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with proximal muscle weakness. He has noticed difficulty in trying to get up out of a chair. There is a past history of obstructive airways disease and a 35-pack-year cigarette history. On examination, you notice that he has marked weakness of the pelvic and shoulder girdle and decreased tendon reflexes.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      You suspect that he may have an underlying malignancy with a paraneoplastic syndrome. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the bronchus

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndromes: Neurological Manifestations in Different Types of Cancer

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neurological manifestation that affects around 6% of cancer patients, particularly those with bronchial and ovarian tumors. This syndrome is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, impotence, and peripheral neuropathy. The cause of Lambert-Eaton is unknown, but it may be due to anti-tumor antibodies that cross-react with calcium channels involved in neuromuscular function. Resection of the primary tumor or use of immunosuppressive agents may lead to an improvement in symptoms for some patients.

      In contrast, neurological manifestations are rare in colorectal carcinoma, with only a few case reports of patients presenting with neurological symptoms as a paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to colorectal carcinoma. Bronchial carcinoid is more likely to cause endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes, such as Cushing’s syndrome. Renal cell carcinoma is also more likely to cause an endocrine picture rather than neurological manifestations. Similarly, pancreatic tumors are more commonly associated with endocrinological manifestations than neurological presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 20 - A pre-med student is preparing for her oncology rotation and is studying the...

    Incorrect

    • A pre-med student is preparing for her oncology rotation and is studying the use of tumour markers in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer.
      Which of the following tumour markers is accurately matched with the cancer it is linked to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Association with Specific Cancers

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. These markers can be used to screen for and monitor certain types of cancer. Here are some examples of tumor markers and their association with specific cancers:

      – Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma: AFP is raised in 80% of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. High-risk patients should be offered 6-monthly screening with a combination of hepatic ultrasound and AFP level.
      – CA 15-3 and breast cancer: CA 15-3 is associated with breast cancer.
      – CA 19-9 and pancreatic and biliary tract cancers: CA 19-9 is associated with pancreatic and biliary tract cancers.
      – CA 125 and ovarian cancer: CA 125 is associated with ovarian cancer.
      – Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and prostatic cancer: PSA is associated with prostatic cancer and benign prostatic hypertrophy.
      – Testicular cancer: Testicular cancer can be associated with AFP, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), depending on the tumor type.

      It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and can also be elevated in non-cancerous conditions. Therefore, tumor markers should always be interpreted in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 21 - A 22-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department after ingesting an unknown...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department after ingesting an unknown quantity of paracetamol tablets. What is the ideal time to evaluate his paracetamol level to determine if treatment with n-acetylcysteine is necessary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Four hours after overdose

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Paracetamol Overdose

      Paracetamol overdose is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The nomograms used for the treatment of paracetamol overdose are based on assessing paracetamol levels four hours or later after an overdose has occurred. This is because measuring levels earlier may be unpredictable and lead to inappropriate omission of N-acetylcysteine. If a significant overdose is suspected or the patient presents more than four hours after overdose, treatment should be started expectantly.

      The treatment of paracetamol overdose begins with a loading dose of N-acetylcysteine over one hour, followed by four-hour and 16-hour infusions. Less than 5% of patients suffer an allergic reaction to N-acetylcysteine, and in those patients, slowing the infusion rate, giving IV corticosteroids and/or antihistamines are all potential options. Patients who do not tolerate N-acetylcysteine even after these measures should be given oral methionine.

      In summary, the treatment of paracetamol overdose is time-sensitive and requires careful monitoring of paracetamol levels. N-acetylcysteine is the primary treatment option, but alternative options are available for patients who cannot tolerate it.

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      • Oncology
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  • Question 22 - What is a typical characteristic seen in the display of myeloma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a typical characteristic seen in the display of myeloma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features of Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that commonly affects older adults, with a median age of 60 years, and is more prevalent in males than females. Patients with multiple myeloma may present with various clinical features, including anaemia, bone pain, and infections. Bone pain is the most common symptom and is often felt in the back or ribs. In some cases, it may lead to a pathologic fracture, especially in the femoral neck, following minimal trauma. Patients with multiple myeloma are also at risk of infections, particularly with encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae, due to suppression of antibody production and neutropenia.

      Hypercalcaemia is another common feature of multiple myeloma, which can cause nausea, fatigue, confusion, polyuria, and constipation. This occurs due to the release of osteoclast activating factors, which stimulate bone resorption and lead to an increase in serum calcium levels. Weight loss is also a common symptom in patients with multiple myeloma. In some cases, patients may develop hyperviscosity, which can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, headache, and dizziness.

      In summary, multiple myeloma is a complex disease with various clinical features. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to improve patient outcomes. Healthcare professionals should be aware of these clinical features and consider multiple myeloma in the differential diagnosis of patients presenting with bone pain, anaemia, infections, hypercalcaemia, and weight loss.

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      • Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old retired banker is referred to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired banker is referred to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month history of poor stream when passing urine. Over the past few weeks, the patient has also noticed some blood in his urine.
      He is normally fit and well. The only medical history of note is type 2 diabetes, which is well controlled with diet alone.
      On rectal examination, the patient is noted to have an enlarged, irregularly shaped prostate.
      A raised level of which of the tumour markers below would be most commonly associated with carcinoma of the prostate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers: PSA and Other Commonly Used Markers

      Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men in the UK. It is a slow-growing cancer, which means that it may be present for a long time before symptoms appear. Symptoms of prostate cancer include increased urinary frequency, urgency, hesitancy, weak flow, sensation of incomplete emptying of the bladder post-voiding, and blood in the urine or semen. PSA is the most commonly used tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, PSA can also be elevated in non-malignant conditions of the prostate, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia. A normal PSA level ranges from 0 to 4 ng/ml, although the upper level of normal can vary according to age and race. If a patient’s PSA is 3.0 or higher, they should be referred urgently to a specialist using a Suspected Cancer Pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. Serial PSA measurements are also used to monitor disease progression, to measure response to treatment and to check for remission in patients with carcinoma of the prostate.

      Other commonly used tumour markers include AFP, which is associated with liver and testicular tumours, CEA, which is a non-specific tumour marker associated with colorectal cancer, lung cancer, and breast cancer, Ca-125, which is associated with ovarian cancer, and Ca 15-3, which is associated with carcinoma of the breast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old patient came to his doctor with a lump in his neck....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient came to his doctor with a lump in his neck. After evaluation, he was referred for a biopsy. The biopsy results revealed the presence of pleomorphic giant cells with binuclear cells. What is the most probable illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that typically affects individuals between the ages of 15 and 35 years and those above the age of 55. Common symptoms include unexplained fever, weight loss, fatigue, and lymphadenopathy in the neck, axilla, and groin. Diagnosis is made through fine needle aspiration of enlarged lymph nodes, which reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, giant cells with a multilobed or bilobed nucleus and prominent eosinophilic nucleoli. Risk factors for Hodgkin’s lymphoma include Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection, HIV infection, and a family history of the disease. Management involves radiation and chemotherapy, and survival rates have been improving, with 5-year survival reaching 85% in some recent studies.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include tuberculosis (TB), non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). TB typically presents with respiratory problems, a productive cough, and night fevers, but can also cause lymphadenopathy. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a collective term used to describe all lymphomas apart from Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and is characterized by the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells. ALL is a rapidly progressive acute leukemia associated with an increase in the number of immature lymphoid cells called lymphoblasts, and can present with general weakness, anemia, lymphadenopathy, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly.

      EBV is a virus that causes infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever. It is transmitted through infected saliva and mostly affects young individuals, presenting with cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, tonsillar enlargement with white exudate, and palatal petechiae. EBV is also associated with some forms of lymphoma, predominantly Burkitt’s lymphoma, but also Hodgkin’s and diffuse large B cell lymphoma.

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      • Oncology
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  • Question 25 - The pathologist observed a lymph node biopsy under a microscope and found that...

    Incorrect

    • The pathologist observed a lymph node biopsy under a microscope and found that the lymph node morphology was completely effaced by scattered malignant cells. These cells were identified as Reed-Sternberg cells and were large and binucleated. Given these findings, what is the most probable pathological diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Overview of Different Types of Lymphoma

      Lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system, which is responsible for fighting infections and diseases. There are several types of lymphoma, each with its own unique characteristics and treatment options.

      Hodgkin Lymphoma: This type of lymphoma is diagnosed by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large malignant B cells found in lymphoid tissue. It is staged using the Ann Arbor staging system and can be treated with cyclical chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy.

      Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: This type of lymphoma is caused by the malignant transformation of B1 cells, a subset of B cells. It is a slow-growing cancer that may not require immediate treatment.

      Waldenström Macroglobulinemia: This neoplasm is characterized by a single clone of B cells and a mixture of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and lymphoplasmacytoid cells. Treatment options include chemotherapy, immunotherapy, and stem cell transplantation.

      Follicular Lymphoma: This type of lymphoma is a transformation of the B cells found in lymph node follicles. It is a slow-growing cancer that may not require immediate treatment.

      Burkitt Lymphoma: This type of lymphoma is not associated with Reed-Sternberg cells and can present as either a leukemia or lymphoma. Treatment options include chemotherapy and immunotherapy.

      Overall, the treatment and prognosis for lymphoma depend on the type and stage of the cancer, as well as the individual patient’s health and medical history.

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      • Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm tumour in the upper outer quadrant (OUQ) of her left breast. One local axillary node is positive, and no metastases are detected on imaging.
      What is the accurate TNM (Tumour, Nodes, and Metastases) staging for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T1, N1, M0

      Explanation:

      TNM Staging and Examples

      TNM staging is a system used to describe the extent of cancer in a patient’s body. It takes into account the size of the tumor (T), whether it has spread to nearby lymph nodes (N), and whether it has metastasized to distant organs (M). The categories are further subdivided to provide more detailed information. Based on the TNM categories, cancers are grouped into stages, which help determine the most appropriate treatment options.

      Examples of TNM staging include:

      – T1, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), one local axillary node is positive (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T0, Nx, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1). Nx would mean that spread to local lymph nodes was not assessed.
      – T1, N0, M1: There was one positive axillary lymph node (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T2, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1).
      – T1, N1, Mx: There are no distant metastases (M0).

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      • Oncology
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  • Question 27 - You review a pediatric patient with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) and are considering...

    Incorrect

    • You review a pediatric patient with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) and are considering starting them on imatinib. Imatinib is a kinase inhibitor.
      Which of the following best describes the mode of action of a kinase inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits phosphorylation

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanism of Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors

      Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are a class of drugs that specifically target enzymes involved in the transfer of phosphate groups from ATP to proteins. Imatinib, for example, inhibits tyrosine kinase enzymes and is used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) by blocking the activity of the bcr-abl fusion protein. However, it is important to note that tyrosine kinase inhibitors do not inhibit other biochemical processes such as sulfonation, hydroxylation, dephosphorylation, or dihydroxylation. By understanding the mechanism of action of these drugs, researchers can develop more targeted and effective treatments for various diseases.

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      • Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old individual who has been smoking for their entire life visits their...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old individual who has been smoking for their entire life visits their GP with complaints of worsening breathlessness and symptoms of ptosis and constriction of the pupil. The GP refers them for a chest x-ray, which reveals the presence of an apical mass. What is the term used to describe the cause of this person's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      Horner’s Syndrome and Pancoast Tumour

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by ptosis and constriction of the pupil. However, in some cases, it can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung that invades the chest wall and brachial plexus. This lady is likely to have a Pancoast tumour as she presents with Horner’s syndrome. On the other hand, Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition where the pupil is larger than normal and slow to react to direct light. Peyronie’s disease is a hardening of the corpora cavernosa of the penis caused by scar tissue, while Pott’s cancer is a scrotal cancer caused by coal tar exposure. Wilms’ tumour, on the other hand, is a malignant tumour of the kidney that usually occurs in childhood.

      In summary, Horner’s syndrome can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung. Other conditions that present differently from Horner’s syndrome include Holmes-Adie syndrome, Peyronie’s disease, Pott’s cancer, and Wilms’ tumour. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and treatment.

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      • Oncology
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  • Question 29 - With which malignancy is HTLV-1 infection linked? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which malignancy is HTLV-1 infection linked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adult T cell leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Risk of Malignancy Associated with HTLV-1

      Between the time frame of 1:10 and 1:20, it is believed that individuals may develop malignancy associated with HTLV-1, specifically adult T cell leukaemia/lymphoma. This suggests that a small percentage of individuals infected with HTLV-1 may be at risk for developing this type of cancer. It is important for individuals who are infected with HTLV-1 to be aware of this potential risk and to regularly monitor their health for any signs or symptoms of malignancy. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful outcomes for those affected.

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      • Oncology
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  • Question 30 - What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast

      Explanation:

      Bone Metastases: Common Tumours, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Bone metastases are a common occurrence in patients with malignant disease, affecting approximately 30% of cases. The most frequent tumours that cause bone metastases are breast, prostate, bronchus, kidney, and thyroid, with breast and prostate cancers accounting for the majority. Symptoms of bone metastases typically include bone pain, the presence of a lump, pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, or cord compression. Pathological fractures occur in about 10% of patients with bone metastases. Radiological changes usually occur late, and bone scintigraphy is the most sensitive diagnostic tool available to detect metastatic spread. Most metastases are osteolytic, but some tumours, such as prostate carcinoma, cause osteosclerotic lesions.

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      • Oncology
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