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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is shiny with visible telangiectasiae and is gradually increasing in size.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Skin Tumours: Types, Symptoms, and Management
Skin tumours are abnormal growths of skin cells that can be benign or malignant. Basal cell carcinomas are the most common malignant skin tumour, usually caused by excessive sun exposure in early life and previous sunburn. They often present as a slow-growing nodule or papule that forms an ulcer with a raised ‘rolled’ edge. Basal cell carcinomas grow slowly and rarely metastasise.
Low-risk basal cell carcinomas can be managed in primary care if the GP meets the requirements to perform skin surgery. A specialist referral is appropriate for most people with a suspicious skin lesion, and urgent referral is necessary if there is a concern that a delay may have a significant impact.
Squamous cell carcinomas have a crusted or ulcerated surface, while seborrhoeic warts have a warty pigmented surface appearance. Lentigo maligna is a melanoma in situ that progresses slowly and can remain non-invasive for years. In amelanotic melanoma, the colour may be pink, red, purple, or the colour of normal skin, and growth is likely to be rapid with a poor prognosis.
In conclusion, early detection and management of skin tumours are crucial for better outcomes. Regular skin checks and seeking medical advice for any suspicious skin lesion are recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy has been unwell, looks pale, is anorexic and has lost weight. He has abdominal pain and a pain in his leg and a limp. You are concerned about his appearance and worry he may have a malignancy.
Which is the feature that will MOST LIKELY be present if he has a neuroblastoma?Your Answer: Horner syndrome
Correct Answer: Abdominal mass
Explanation:Neuroblastoma: Symptoms and Presenting Features
Neuroblastoma is a solid neoplasm that commonly affects children and arises from sympathetic nervous tissue. The most common symptom is an abdominal mass, which is caused by the tumor location in the adrenal gland. Other symptoms may include bone pain, limping, and anemia due to marrow infiltration. Hypertension is a rare finding, but it can occur due to renal artery compression. Tumors that arise from the thoracic sympathetic chain can produce Horner syndrome, which is characterized by meiosis, ptosis, and absence of sweating of the face. Limb weakness and bladder and bowel problems can occur if the tumor grows through the spinal foramina into the spinal canal, compressing the spinal cord. Periorbital bruising may also be a presenting feature if there is metastatic disease in the orbit. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and to seek medical attention if they occur, as early detection and treatment can improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His doctor prescribes him prednisolone 40 mg once daily for 5 days. What is the recommended course of action after the 5 day treatment?
Your Answer: Stop the prednisolone with no further doses
Explanation:According to the BNF, if patients have been taking systemic corticosteroids at a dosage of more than 40 mg prednisolone daily for over a week, or have been on treatment for more than 3 weeks, or have received repeated courses recently, it is recommended to gradually withdraw the medication.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A mother comes to see you about her 16-year-old daughter. She has been diagnosed with major depression and is due to see a specialist the next day.
You discuss both medical and non-medical therapies.
It is anticipated that she will need medical therapy. Which of the following drugs, if required, is most likely to be prescribed for her?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Fluoxetine as the Only Effective Medication for Treating Depression in Children and Adolescents
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), fluoxetine is the only medication that has been proven effective in clinical trials for treating depressive illness in children and adolescents. It is important to note that medication is not typically prescribed by non-specialists in this age group. However, as a healthcare provider, it is important to have a general understanding of any specialist-initiated treatments and investigations to be able to discuss them with patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Correct
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At what age can the term 'Old age' be included on a death certificate?
Your Answer: 80 years
Explanation:The cause of death cannot be certified as ‘Old age’ unless the deceased was at least 80 years old.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents with dark discolouration of his urine. There is a history of upper respiratory tract infection with severe pharyngitis two weeks earlier. He was previously fit and well. On examination he has a puffy face with periorbital oedema. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
Given the likely diagnosis, which complication would be most likely to occur in the acute illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Understanding Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Complications
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) is a type of nephritic syndrome that causes widespread hypercellularity in the kidneys. The condition is often caused by post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which can lead to dark urine and haemolysis of red blood cells. While DPGN is rare in developed countries, it remains common in the developing world and can also be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus.
Symptoms of DPGN include hypertension, oedema, and nephrotic-range proteinuria. While most children will recover without treatment, a small proportion of adults may develop renal impairment that can progress to end-stage renal failure requiring dialysis. Acute cardiac failure is unlikely in patients with normal cardiovascular systems, but can be a cause of death in elderly patients.
It is important to differentiate DPGN from other types of nephritic and nephrotic syndromes, such as IgA nephropathy, lupus nephritis, and minimal change disease. Complications such as acute rheumatic fever are rare but can occur in some patients. Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and potential complications of DPGN is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter at a dose of 800 units. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the equivalent dose in micrograms since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.
Which of the following is equal to 800 units of vitamin D?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 mcg
Explanation:Converting Vitamin D Units to Micrograms
Many CCG pathways recommend taking vitamin D supplements in units, but the packaging of many vitamin D suppliers lists the dose in micrograms. To convert units to micrograms for vitamin D, simply divide by 40. For example, 400 units of vitamin D is equivalent to 10 micrograms. Remember to check the packaging for the correct dosage and always consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new supplement regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-year history of widespread body pain. The pain started after a fall and was initially localized to her lower back. Over time, the pain has spread and she now reports feeling constant pain all over her body. She denies any joint swelling or other systemic symptoms. She has difficulty sleeping and experiences fatigue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome but is otherwise healthy. On examination, she appears well and there are no significant musculoskeletal findings, but she is tender at multiple points bilaterally on her body.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibromyalgia
Explanation:Understanding Fibromyalgia: Symptoms and Tender Points
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that primarily affects women, causing widespread pain and tenderness throughout the body. Along with pain, individuals with fibromyalgia may experience morning stiffness, fatigue, sleep disturbances, cognitive difficulties, and other unexplained symptoms. To diagnose fibromyalgia, doctors may use the standard 18 tender points, which are pairs of points on either side of the body that are particularly sensitive to pressure. However, many patients may experience pain in other areas as well. Routine blood testing can help rule out other potential causes of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents after a fall with an acutely swollen knee and difficulty bending the joint. The knee became swollen within two hours of the injury. He can still stand on the leg, although it is painful. He takes no regular medication and is otherwise fit and well, although a little overweight.
What diagnosis can best be made, based on this patient's history?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A haemarthrosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of joint effusion
Joint effusion, the accumulation of fluid within a joint, can have various causes. A rapid onset of pain and swelling after trauma suggests a haemarthrosis, which may be associated with clotting disorders or anticoagulant use. Dislocation of the patella typically causes severe pain, a popping sensation, and difficulty bearing weight. Ligamentous injuries, such as anterior cruciate ligament tears, often occur during sports and may be accompanied by haemarthrosis. Osteoarthritis usually causes a gradual development of effusion. Traumatic synovitis, which involves inflammation of the synovial membrane, may also cause a gradual accumulation of fluid, especially if there is a meniscal tear. A careful history, physical examination, and imaging studies can help differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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When prescribing the following drugs, which one requires the prescription to state the total quantity in both words and figures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam
Explanation:In January 2008, midazolam was reclassified as a controlled drug under Schedule 3.
Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.
Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.
Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.
Which one of the following is more suggestive of vascular dementia than Alzheimer's?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emotional lability
Explanation:Emotional lability in Vascular Dementia
Emotional lability, which refers to sudden and exaggerated changes in mood or emotions, is a common symptom in patients with vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, leading to damage in different areas of the brain. Emotional lability can manifest as sudden outbursts of anger, crying spells, or inappropriate laughter.
On the other hand, other symptoms such as memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with language and communication are more suggestive of Alzheimer’s disease. It is important to differentiate between the two types of dementia as they have different underlying causes and may require different treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You encounter a 45-year-old woman in your women's health clinic. She is perimenopausal with irregular periods and some vasomotor symptoms that she is managing well. She had been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for birth control, but since her divorce, she no longer needs it. However, she has noticed that it helps with her menopausal symptoms, which worsen during the pill-free week, and is hesitant to discontinue it. She has no significant medical history, and her blood pressure and BMI are within normal limits. She has never smoked.
Which of the following statements regarding the COCP is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The COCP may help to maintain bone mineral density in the perimenopause
Explanation:Using combined hormonal contraceptive pills (CHC) can be beneficial for women in their 40s and beyond. It can reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms. CHC with levonorgestrel or norethisterone are recommended as they have a lower risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other progestogens. However, it is important to note that there are risks associated with CHC use, and women should be informed of these before deciding to use it. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health advises that CHC can be used until age 50, but after that, women should switch to non-hormonal methods as the risks of CHC generally outweigh the benefits. Women who wish to continue using CHC after age 50 should be assessed on an individual basis. Extended or continuous CHC regimens can also be used for contraception and to manage menstrual or menopausal symptoms. Additionally, CHC is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for several decades after stopping use. Finally, CHC may help maintain bone mineral density during the perimenopause compared to not using hormones.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a 3-month history of progressive difficulty with speech and swallowing. During examination, she exhibits dysarthria and a brisk gag reflex. There is increased tone in all four limbs, with weakness distributed pyramidally. Sensation is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: Types, Symptoms, and Characteristics
Motor neurone disease, also known as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a degenerative condition that affects motor neurones, leading to increasing disability and death. It usually occurs after the age of 50 and has a focal onset, with a particular group of muscles affected first. Rare variants include primary lateral sclerosis and progressive muscular atrophy.
Brainstem gliomas are diagnosed in children and young adults under the age of twenty, with common symptoms including double vision, weakness, unsteady gait, difficulty in swallowing, dysarthria, headache, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. Physical examination commonly elicits long tract signs such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, and abnormal reflexes.
Cervical spondylotic myelopathy is a serious consequence of cervical intervertebral disc degeneration, with clinical signs and symptoms depending on which spinal cord level is affected and the extent of the pathology. There may be upper and lower motor neurone signs, sensory changes, and bladder and bowel involvement.
Guillain-Barré syndrome presents within 3 weeks of a respiratory or bowel infection, due to immune damage to the peripheral nervous system. Early symptoms include nerve root type pain and paraesthesia of the legs and feet, followed by proximal muscle weakness of the lower extremities progressing over hours to days. Tendon reflexes are lost but plantar responses remain normal.
Multiple sclerosis is characterized by symptomatic neurological episodes, motor, sensory, or autonomic, that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old baby presents with a brief history of cough and difficulty breathing. During the examination, the infant has a temperature of 38.6°C and a respiratory rate of 37. The baby appears distressed, and there are widespread crackles and wheezing sounds when listening to the chest. The pulse rate is 170 BPM. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:Acute Bronchiolitis in Children
This child is experiencing acute bronchiolitis and needs to be admitted to the hospital for supportive care. Ribavirin may also be necessary. The child is showing clear signs of respiratory distress. The most common cause of acute bronchiolitis is respiratory syncytial virus, but adenoviruses and parainfluenza viruses can also be responsible.
Acute bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in young children, especially those under the age of two. It is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the small airways in the lungs, making it difficult for the child to breathe. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Treatment typically involves supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and fluids, and may also include antiviral medications like ribavirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting in a distal radius fracture (Colles' fracture). She has a history of depression and osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions. What is the best course of action to address her risk of future fractures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start alendronate 70mg once weekly
Explanation:Patients aged 75 years or older who have experienced a fragility fracture should be initiated on oral alendronate 70mg once weekly without the need for a DEXA scan, as they are presumed to have osteoporosis.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.
For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.
For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She enjoys walking her dog but has noticed a decrease in exercise tolerance. She reports experiencing fast, irregular palpitations at various times throughout the day.
During the examination, you observe flushed cheeks, a blood pressure reading of 140/95, and a raised JVP. You suspect the presence of a diastolic murmur. In a subsequent communication from the cardiologist, they describe a loud first heart sound, an opening snap, and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral Stenosis and Palpitations
The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension. Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap. Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures. AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.
Spacing:
The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension.
Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap.
Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures.
AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man from Ghana complains of back pain, fatigue, and increased thirst. His ESR is 95 mm/hour and he has normocytic normochromic anemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Elevated ESR
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells and is more common in Afro-Caribbeans. It can cause bone pain, fractures, and hypercalcemia, leading to lethargy and thirst. An elevated ESR and normochromic normocytic anemia are typical features of multiple myeloma.
Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy (CPA), also known as chondrocalcinosis, primarily affects the knee joint and doesn’t typically cause anemia. Osteoarthritis may cause back pain but doesn’t typically present with systemic symptoms such as lethargy and thirst. Osteoporosis is rare in men at this age and doesn’t cause anemia or elevated ESR. Paget’s disease of bone may cause bone pain, deformity, and fractures, but the patient in this scenario doesn’t have classical features of the disease.
Differential Diagnosis for Bone Pain and Elevated ESR
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 6 weeks. She has been taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill for 8 months and has not missed any pills. She is not on any other medication or using any over-the-counter products. A pregnancy test she recently took came back negative. She denies experiencing dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding.
What is the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a speculum to assess the cervix, and take endocervical and high-vaginal swabs including a sexual health screen
Explanation:Patients who experience a change in bleeding after being on the combined contraceptive pill for 3 months should undergo a speculum examination. It is common to experience problematic bleeding in the first 3 months after starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, but if bleeding starts after 3 months or is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal examination and speculum examination should be considered to identify any underlying causes. Although the irregular bleeding may not be serious, it is important to offer an examination as it has started 3 months after starting the combined hormonal contraceptive pill. There is no need to refer the patient to a gynaecology clinic at this stage before further investigation. If problematic bleeding persists, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. Changing the dose of progestogen doesn’t appear to improve cycle control, although it may be helpful on an individual basis. There is no reason to discontinue the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and switch to the progestogen-only pill.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes complains of blood stained diarrhoea and cramping abdominal pain of several months’ duration. She underwent a hysterectomy and radiotherapy 2 years ago for endometrial carcinoma.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic radiation enteropathy
Explanation:Chronic Radiation Enteropathy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Chronic radiation enteropathy is a progressive disease that can occur months or even years after radiation therapy. It is characterized by transmural bowel damage, obliterative endarteritis, and altered intestinal transit, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea (which may be blood-stained), malabsorption, and dysmotility. Patients with a history of pelvic or abdominal radiation therapy are at risk for developing chronic radiation enteropathy, which can lead to intestinal obstruction, fistula formation, or perforation. Corrective surgery is associated with high morbidity and mortality, and long-term symptoms are common.
Diagnosis of chronic radiation enteropathy is based on the persistence of symptoms for three or more months following irradiation. Differential diagnosis includes irritable bowel syndrome, lymphoma, pseudomembranous colitis, and ulcerative colitis. However, the history of pelvic radiation is a key factor in distinguishing chronic radiation enteropathy from other conditions. While irritable bowel syndrome may cause diarrhea, blood in the stool is not a typical symptom. Lymphoma and ulcerative colitis may also present with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain, but the history of radiation therapy makes chronic radiation enteropathy more likely. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by infection with Clostridium difficile and is not typically associated with bloody stools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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As part of a clinical audit, a medical student is analysing the characteristics of patients attending a hypertension clinic. She calculates that the mean age of the patients is 56 years old, and that the variance of the data is 64. She wants to calculate the standard deviation of the data set.
What is the connection between standard deviation and variance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard deviation is the square root of variance
Explanation:The square root of variance is equal to standard deviation, while variance is the squared value of standard deviation.
Understanding Variance as a Measure of Spread
Variance is a statistical measure that helps to determine how far apart a set of scores is from the mean. It is calculated by taking the square of the standard deviation. In other words, variance is a way to quantify the amount of variability or spread in a data set. It is a useful tool in many fields, including finance, engineering, and science, as it can help to identify patterns and trends in data. By understanding variance, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the distribution of data and make more informed decisions based on their findings. Overall, variance is an important concept to grasp for anyone working with data, as it provides a way to measure the degree of variability in a set of scores.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 21
Incorrect
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In a 20-year-old man with generalised tonic-clonic seizures, what is the most effective initial oral treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valproate
Explanation:First-Line Treatments for Epilepsy: A Guide
When it comes to treating epilepsy, it’s important to choose the right medication for the specific type of seizure. While topiramate is often used as a first-line treatment, there isn’t enough evidence to support its effectiveness. Phenobarbital is no longer recommended due to its side effects, and phenytoin can cause problems with long-term use. For primary generalized epilepsy, lamotrigine and valproate are the preferred options, although lamotrigine can worsen myoclonic seizures. Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine can also be used, but may exacerbate myoclonic or absence seizures. For partial seizures, carbamazepine or lamotrigine are the first-line treatments, with levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, or sodium valproate as alternatives if needed. By choosing the right medication, patients with epilepsy can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica presents to her General Practitioner with a sudden loss of vision in her right eye. For the previous few days, she had been suffering from right-sided temporal headache, muscle aches and tiredness. She also noticed her jaw was getting painful after a few minutes of chewing.
What single investigation would most strongly support the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giant cell infiltrate on temporal artery biopsy
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Features of Giant Cell Arteritis
Giant cell arteritis (GCA) is a type of vasculitis that affects medium- and large-sized arteries. The gold standard for diagnosing GCA is a biopsy of the temporal artery, which will show vasculitis characterized by a predominance of mononuclear cell infiltration or granulomatous inflammation, usually with multinucleated giant cells. A positive biopsy is a strong indicator of GCA.
While there are other tests that may be performed, such as the Treponema pallidum haemagglutination (TPHA) test for syphilis and the C-reactive protein (CRP) level test, these are not specific to GCA. However, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is often elevated in GCA, with levels usually exceeding 50 mm/hour and sometimes exceeding 100 mm/hour.
One of the most concerning symptoms of GCA is homonymous hemianopia, a visual field defect that affects either the two right or two left halves of the visual fields of both eyes. This is caused by lesions in the retrochiasmal visual pathways, which are located anterior to the optic chiasm in GCA patients.
Overall, understanding the diagnostic features of GCA is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A new mother delivered a baby with ambiguous genitalia. She mentioned that she and her spouse have a family history of sex hormone disorders, but neither of them have been impacted. What is the probable cause of hormone disorder in this case, considering the diagnosis of 5 alpha-reductase syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to convert testosterone to 5α-dihydrotestosterone
Explanation:Disorders of Sex Development: Common Conditions and Characteristics
Disorders of sex development refer to a group of conditions that affect the development of an individual’s reproductive system. The most common disorders are androgen insensitivity syndrome, 5-α reductase deficiency, male and female pseudohermaphroditism, and true hermaphroditism. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that results in end-organ resistance to testosterone, causing genotypically male children to have a female phenotype. 5-α reductase deficiency, on the other hand, is an autosomal recessive condition that results in the inability of males to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, leading to ambiguous genitalia in the newborn period. Male and female pseudohermaphroditism are conditions where individuals have testes or ovaries but external genitalia are female or male, respectively. Finally, true hermaphroditism is a very rare condition where both ovarian and testicular tissue are present. Understanding the characteristics of these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate medical care and support for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man requests a check-up after the unexpected passing of his 45-year-old brother. He denies experiencing any specific symptoms. His blood pressure is 132/88 and heart rate 90 and regular. His cardiovascular system examination is unremarkable. An ECG reveals left bundle branch block and a chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly.
What is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Understanding Cardiomyopathy: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Cardiomyopathy is a chronic disease that affects the heart muscle, causing it to become enlarged, thickened, or stiffened. This condition can range from being asymptomatic to causing heart failure, arrhythmia, thromboembolism, and sudden death. In this article, we will discuss the causes, symptoms, and diagnosis of cardiomyopathy.
Causes of Cardiomyopathy
Cardiomyopathy can be caused by a variety of factors, including coronary heart disease, hypertension, valvular disease, and congenital heart disease. It can also be caused by secondary factors such as ischaemia, alcohol abuse, toxins, infections, thyroid disorders, and valvular disease. In some cases, cardiomyopathy may be familial or genetic.Symptoms of Cardiomyopathy
Most cases of cardiomyopathy present as congestive heart failure with symptoms such as dyspnoea, weakness, fatigue, oedema, raised JVP, pulmonary congestion, cardiomegaly, and a loud 3rd and/or 4th heart sound. However, some cases may remain asymptomatic for a long time.Diagnosis of Cardiomyopathy
Diagnosis of cardiomyopathy usually involves an electrocardiogram (ECG) which may show sinus tachycardia, intraventricular conduction delay, left bundle branch block, or nonspecific changes in ST and T waves. Other diagnostic tests may include echocardiography, cardiac MRI, and cardiac catheterization.Conclusion
Cardiomyopathy is a serious condition that can lead to heart failure, arrhythmia, thromboembolism, and sudden death. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and diagnosis of this condition in order to manage it effectively. If you suspect that you or a loved one may have cardiomyopathy, seek medical attention immediately. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy complaining of acute abdominal pain is brought to see you by his mother. His mother tells you that he has been having bouts of abdominal pain for the last few days that she thought would settle with time. In addition, she tells you that he has also developed a rash on his legs and has been complaining that his knees and ankles are sore. He is opening his bowels normally and passing urine normally. Prior to the last few days he has been entirely well. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medications.
You examine him and he is afebrile and alert. His blood pressure is 118/82 mmHg. There is no significant lymphadenopathy. His abdomen is soft with no masses. He has some mild tenderness on deep palpation around the umbilicus and lower abdomen. There is an obvious purpuric rash over the extensor surfaces of his legs and buttocks. You also notice a few similar lesions on the extensor surfaces of his arms. His trunk is unaffected by the rash.
He has full range of movements in his joints which are not inflamed, however there is discomfort when manipulating his knees and ankles and his ankles appear slightly puffy.
Which of the following tests is most useful in guiding further management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) in Children
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a vasculitic condition that commonly affects children between the ages of 3 and 10. The core clinical features of HSP include a characteristic skin rash, joint pain, periarticular oedema, renal involvement, and abdominal pain. The skin rash, known as ‘palpable’ purpura, typically affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the legs and arms. Renal involvement can lead to hypertension, haematuria, and proteinuria, which can result in nephrotic and nephritic syndromes.
Urine dipstick testing is essential in making a clinical diagnosis and guiding management and follow-up. Regular follow-up is necessary during the convalescent period as HSP can lead to chronic renal problems in some patients. Therefore, early detection and management of renal manifestations are crucial in preventing long-term complications. If left untreated, HSP can cause significant morbidity and mortality in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits your clinic. He has been suffering from chronic bronchitis for several years and was diagnosed with mesothelioma two months ago. He worked as an electrician for a long time and also worked as a dockworker. He expresses his dissatisfaction with the care he has received from you and the local hospital and wants to file a complaint. He also wants to review his medical records. You assure him that you will take care of it, but he insists on seeing the records right away. What is the legal timeframe for you to comply with his request?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You must give him a copy of the records within 10 days
Explanation:Accessing Medical Records
Patients have the right to access their medical records, but it is important to obtain their consent before releasing any information to others, including their relatives. However, parents of young children are entitled to view their children’s records. For children over 16 and those under 16 who understand the significance of allowing others to see their records, their consent must be obtained before releasing any information.
The NHS Choices website provides guidance on how to request access to health records, and it is important to note that GDPR regulations require access to be granted within one calendar month. NHS England advises that access should be granted within 28 days. The British Medical Association also provides a helpful PDF guide on accessing medical records. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that their medical information is kept confidential and that they have control over who can access their records.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent fatigue and indigestion. He has been belching excessively at night and is bothered by constant bloating. He denies any alterations in his bowel movements and has not noticed any rectal bleeding. During the physical examination, you observe mild conjunctival pallor and a slightly distended abdomen. A rectal exam reveals no abnormalities.
What is the most frequent underlying condition that could explain these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Coeliac disease is the most likely underlying diagnosis as it can present with nonspecific gastrointestinal symptoms and fatigue. Bowel cancer should also be considered and appropriate screening carried out if there is clinical suspicion or red flag symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux is unlikely to cause fatigue or anaemia, while inflammatory bowel disease is less common than irritable bowel and there are no signs of it in the stem.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK is inaccurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The health visitor distraction test is the first screening test done on infants hearing
Explanation:The primary screening test for infant hearing is now the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme, which is replacing distraction testing. Midwives rarely conduct visits beyond 4 weeks in their daily routine.
Child Health Surveillance in the UK
Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to Preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. After birth, a clinical examination is conducted, and the newborn hearing screening programme is carried out to detect any hearing problems. The mother is also given a Personal Child Health Record.
Within the first month, a heel-prick test is conducted to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks. In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is conducted at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time.
Preschool children are screened for vision problems through a national orthoptist-led programme. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention. Although midwife visits are supposed to occur up to four weeks after birth, in practice, health visitors usually take over at two weeks. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and support for their physical and developmental well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is inaccurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Affects between 2-3% of women of reproductive age
Explanation:Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be related to both hyperinsulinemia and high levels of luteinizing hormone. Symptoms of PCOS include subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.
To diagnose PCOS, a pelvic ultrasound is typically performed to check for multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). A raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature, but it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Prolactin may be normal or mildly elevated, while testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated. However, if testosterone is markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.
To make a formal diagnosis of PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of 12 or more follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries and/or increased ovarian volume greater than 10 cm³.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against in patients aged 65 or above who are more susceptible to community acquired infections?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: influenza virus
Explanation:The Importance of influenza Vaccination in the Elderly Population
influenza vaccination is crucial for promoting health and preventing disease in the elderly population, especially those with underlying chronic conditions. While recommended for all individuals over 65, those with cardiorespiratory, metabolic, or neoplastic diseases are at the highest risk. Despite being cost-effective, protection rates against influenza-associated respiratory illness are lower in the elderly population. In England, the uptake for patients over 65 was 73% in 2010/2011. While vaccination doesn’t change the incidence of upper respiratory tract symptoms, it significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates by 72% and 87%, respectively, in community-dwelling elderly individuals. However, nursing-home residents may not experience the same efficacy due to a greater burden of chronic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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