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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced menstrual periods for the past six months and has taken two pregnancy tests, both of which were negative. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities were found. The patient desires a blood test to determine if she has entered menopause. What is the most sensitive hormone to test for this purpose?
Your Answer: FSH
Explanation:Hormone Levels and Menopausal Status
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels that are greater than 30 IU/l, repeated over a period of four to eight weeks, are typically indicative of menopause. It is important to ensure that FSH is tested when the patient is not on contraception, although this is not relevant in the current scenario. While oestrogen and progesterone levels decrease after menopause, their assay is less reliable in determining menopausal status compared to FSH levels. Beta-HCG levels are elevated during pregnancy and trophoblastic disease, while prolactin levels increase in response to certain drug therapies and the presence of a pituitary tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?
Your Answer: High density lipoprotein
Correct Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and free fatty acids
Explanation:Different types of lipoproteins carry lipids and cholesterol throughout the body. Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids, VLDLs transport liver-synthesized lipids, LDLs carry cholesterol, and HDLs transport cholesterol back to the liver for breakdown. Fatty acids are broken down by pancreatic lipase and absorbed as free fatty acids and monoglycerides, which are then reformed into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons. The liver processes chylomicron remnants and liposomes into various lipoprotein forms, including VLDL and LDL. Apolipoproteins are proteins that bind to lipids to form lipoproteins. HDL particles remove cholesterol from circulation and transport it back to the liver. Oxidized LDL is harmful to the body and promotes atherosclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His blood tests revealed a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 121 mm in the first hour. Serum protein electrophoresis revealed an M band in the gamma globulin region with a total IgG level of 70 g/l. Bone marrow biopsy shows plasma cells in the marrow of 11%. A skeletal survey reveals no abnormalities. Other blood tests revealed:
Test Parameter Normal range
Calcium 2.60 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Creatinine 119 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Phosphate 1.30 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Lactate dehydrogenase 399 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
His body weight was 80 kg.
What is his condition better known as?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smouldering myeloma
Explanation:Smouldering myeloma is a stage between monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) and myeloma. To diagnose this condition, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of at least 30 g/l and monoclonal plasma cells of at least 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, but no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients with smouldering myeloma should be closely monitored as they are at high risk of developing symptomatic myeloma.
Multiple myeloma is a malignant neoplasm where there is clonal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the secretion of a monoclonal antibody and light immunoglobulin chains that cause organ damage. Patients with multiple myeloma present with various symptoms, including lethargy, bone pain, pathological fractures, renal impairment, amyloidosis, and pancytopenia due to marrow infiltration. To diagnose multiple myeloma, the patient must have a monoclonal antibody in serum and/or urine, clonal plasma cells of at least 10% on bone marrow biopsy, and evidence of end-organ damage.
MGUS is a condition where low levels of paraprotein are detected in the blood, but they are not causing clinically significant symptoms or end-organ damage. To diagnose MGUS, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of less than or equal to 30 g/l, monoclonal plasma cells of less than or equal to 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, and no evidence of end-organ damage.
Non-secretory myeloma is a rare variant of multiple myeloma where the bone marrow findings and end-organ damage are similar to myeloma, but there is no detectable monoclonal protein in the serum or urine. This makes it difficult to diagnose.
Plasma cell leukemia is a rare and aggressive form of multiple myeloma characterized by high levels of plasma cells circulating in the peripheral blood. It can occur as a primary condition or a secondary leukaemic transformation of multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with purpura following a recent upper respiratory infection. Upon examination, her platelet count is found to be 20 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400) and a bone marrow examination reveals megakaryocyte hyperplasia. What is the correct statement regarding her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A spontaneous remission is likely
Explanation:Treatment and Prognosis of Acute Temporary Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Acute temporary thrombocytopenic purpura is a condition that often occurs after a viral infection. Fortunately, 85% of children with this condition will recover within a year. Platelet transfusions are not helpful unless there is active bleeding or surgery is necessary. Instead, treatment typically involves immune suppression with medications like prednisolone or intravenous immune globulin infusions. The clotting time remains normal because the coagulation factors are not affected. However, detecting antiplatelet antibodies can be challenging with many assays. While splenectomy may be an option in some cases, it is not recommended early in the disease as it may resolve on its own within a year. Overall, with proper treatment and monitoring, most children with acute temporary thrombocytopenic purpura can expect a positive outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient presents to the general practitioner with a complaint of darkening of urine, particularly noticeable in the morning. The patient has no family history of bleeding disorders and was recently hospitalized for deep venous thrombosis in the right leg. Upon examination, the patient's heart and lungs appear normal. Blood tests reveal anemia, elevated levels of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), high bilirubin levels, and a high reticulocyte count. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect in red blood cells
Explanation:Understanding Different Causes of Haemolytic Anaemia
Haemolytic anaemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced, leading to a shortage of oxygen-carrying cells in the body. There are various causes of haemolytic anaemia, including phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, vitamin B12 deficiency, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody against red blood cells.
Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, also known as nocturnal haemoglobinuria, is an acquired condition caused by a mutation in the gene encoding for phosphatidylinositol glycan A. This leads to an increased susceptibility of red blood cells to complement proteins in an acidotic environment, resulting in haemolysis. Patients typically present with haematuria in the morning, and treatment involves managing symptoms and using medication such as eculizumab.
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia and is not related to haemolysis. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited X-linked recessive condition that results in red blood cell breakdown. Loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane is seen in hereditary spherocytosis, where red blood cells become spherical and are trapped in the spleen, leading to haemolysis. IgM antibody against red blood cells causes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where the antibody binds to the I antigen on the membrane of red blood cells, leading to haemolysis at low temperatures.
Understanding the different causes of haemolytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten years ago after a cycling accident and has been in good health since. However, a friend recently told him that he should be receiving treatment for his splenectomy. He is currently not taking any medication.
What would you recommend to him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal vaccination
Explanation:Asplenic Patients and the Importance of Vaccination
Asplenic patients are individuals who have had their spleen removed, leaving them at risk of overwhelming bacterial infections, particularly from pneumococcus and meningococcus. To prevent such infections, it is recommended that these patients receive the Pneumovax vaccine two weeks before surgery or immediately after emergency surgery. This vaccine should be repeated every five years. Additionally, influenzae vaccination is also recommended to prevent super added bacterial infections.
While oral penicillin is recommended for children, its long-term use in adults is a topic of debate. However, current guidance suggests that splenectomized patients should receive both antibiotic prophylaxis and appropriate immunization. It is crucial to take these preventative measures to protect asplenic patients from potentially life-threatening infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with a history of easy bruising and excessive bleeding after a dental procedure. She is diagnosed with von Willebrand's disease and is scheduled for additional dental extractions. The physician prescribes DDAVP. What is the mechanism of action of DDAVP in treating von Willebrand's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stimulates release of von Willebrand's factor from endothelial cells
Explanation:DDAVP for Increasing von Willebrand Factor
DDAVP is a medication that can be administered to increase the amount of von Willebrand factor in the body, which is necessary for surgical or dental procedures. This medication can increase plasma von Willebrand factor and factor VIII concentrations by two to five times. The mechanism of action involves the induction of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)-mediated vWF secretion through a direct effect on endothelial cells. Overall, DDAVP is a useful tool for increasing von Willebrand factor levels in the body, allowing for safer and more successful surgical and dental procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body. He has been a smoker for 30 years, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, pulse 80/minute, respiratory rate 18/minute, and blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg. An angiogram of the brain shows blockage in a branch of the middle cerebral artery. Laboratory results indicate a haemoglobin A1c level of 80 mmol/mol (9.5%). Which component of blood lipids is the most significant factor in contributing to his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
Explanation:The patient had a stroke likely caused by cerebral atherosclerosis or embolic disease from the heart due to ischaemic heart disease from atherosclerosis. LDL brings cholesterol to arterial walls, and when there is increased LDL or hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, there is more degradation of LDL to oxidised LDL which is taken up into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages to help form atheromas. Chylomicrons transport exogenous products and are formed in intestinal epithelial cells. HDL particles remove cholesterol from the circulation and transport it back to the liver for excretion or re-utilisation. Lipoprotein lipase hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins and promotes cellular uptake of chylomicron remnants, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids. VLDL transports endogenous triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol and cholesteryl esters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child of African descent presents with a 2-day history of increasing abdominal pain. It is not associated with nausea or vomiting, and the bowels are opening regularly. The child’s mother tells you that he has had a few episodes of similar symptoms in the past, but none as severe.
On examination, the child has generalised abdominal tenderness, and splenomegaly is noted. After further investigation, the child is diagnosed with sickle-cell anaemia.
Which organ is most responsible for the removal of sickled red blood cells from the circulatory system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spleen
Explanation:The Role of Organs in Immune Surveillance and Blood Production
The human body has several organs that play a crucial role in immune surveillance and blood production. The spleen, for instance, is responsible for removing abnormal and aged red blood cells from circulation and monitoring the blood for immune purposes. However, in sickle-cell anaemia patients, the spleen can become non-functional due to continuous hypoxic and thrombotic insults, leading to a process called autosplenectomy.
Lymph nodes, on the other hand, are involved in immunological surveillance of the lymph. They can swell in response to severe bacterial infections in specific body parts, such as the axillary lymph nodes in the case of a hand infection.
The thymus is responsible for programming pre-T cells to differentiate into T cells, which are responsible for the cellular immune response against pathogenic viruses and fungi and the destruction of malignant cells. It is most active during neonatal and pre-adolescent life.
The bone marrow is responsible for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. In sickle-cell anaemia patients, erythropoiesis in the bone marrow is stimulated.
Finally, the liver can become a site of extramedullary erythropoiesis, which means it can produce red blood cells outside of the bone marrow.
Overall, these organs work together to maintain a healthy immune system and blood production in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU). However, he is starting to deteriorate despite being on the Sepsis Six Bundle. He is pyrexial and appears very unwell. On examination:
Investigation Results Normal value
Respiratory rate (RR) 30 breaths/minute 12–18 breaths/minute
Heart rate (HR) 120 bpm 60–100 bpm
Blood pressure (BP) 88/40 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
You noted some bleeding along the cannulation site and on his gums. The coagulation profile showed prolonged prothrombin time, a decrease in fibrinogen level and marked elevation of D-dimer. He has some purpuric rash on his extremities.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the above condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
Explanation:Comparison of DIC, von Willebrand’s Disease, Liver Failure, Haemophilia, and Heparin Administration
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is a serious complication of severe sepsis that can lead to multiorgan failure and widespread bleeding. It is characterized by high prothrombin time and the use of fibrinogen for widespread clot formation, resulting in high levels of D-dimer due to intense fibrinolytic activity. DIC is a paradoxical state in which the patient is prone to clotting but also to bleeding.
Von Willebrand’s disease is an inherited disorder of coagulation that is usually autosomal dominant. There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient in this case has von Willebrand’s disease.
Liver failure could result in excessive bleeding due to disruption of liver synthetic function, but there is no other information to support liver failure in this case. Signs of hepatic encephalopathy or jaundice would also be expected.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation that is characterized by prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and normal prothrombin time.
There is no information to suggest that heparin has been administered, and the bleeding time and platelet count would be normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages and is afraid her husband will leave her. The patient gave the history of bruising even with minor injuries and several spontaneous miscarriages. On examination, the patient is noted to have a rash in a butterfly distribution on the nose and cheeks. Tests reveal 1+ proteinuria only.
What is the most likely cause of her main concern?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS)
Explanation:Understanding Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APLS) and its Link to Recurrent Spontaneous Abortions
When a young woman experiences multiple spontaneous abortions, it may indicate an underlying disorder. One possible cause is antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS), a hypercoagulable state with autoantibodies against phospholipid components. This disorder can lead to recurrent spontaneous abortions during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, and approximately 9% of APLS patients also have renal abnormalities.
Other potential causes of recurrent spontaneous abortions include poorly controlled diabetes, nephritic syndrome, dermatomyositis, and anatomic defects like a bicornuate uterus. However, the examination and test results in this case suggest a systemic etiology, making APLS a strong possibility.
Diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can also cause nephritic or nephrotic syndrome, requires meeting at least 4 out of 11 criteria established by the American Rheumatism Association (ARA).
Understanding these potential causes and their links to recurrent spontaneous abortions can help healthcare providers identify and treat underlying disorders in women of reproductive age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue following his retirement 6 months ago:
Hb 130 g/L (120-160)
RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
Haematocrit 0.39 (0.36-0.46)
MCV 86.5 fL (80-100)
MCH 28.1 pg (27-32)
Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-400)
WBC 6.5 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 3.8 ×109/L (2-7)
Lymphocytes 1.9 ×109/L (1-4)
Monocytes 0.5 ×109/L (0.2-1)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.5)
Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0-0.1)
He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband is constantly tired, has lost interest in his hobbies and has trouble sleeping.
Examination is pretty much normal except that he appears fatigued. There are no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient
Explanation:
The patient in question is displaying a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. If the cause of macrocytosis were folate or B12 deficiency, it would be expected to cause anemia in association with the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism may also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss argues against this diagnosis. For further information on macrocytosis, refer to the BMJ Practice article Macrocytosis: pitfalls in testing and summary of guidance, the BMJ Endgames case report A woman with macrocytic anemia and confusion, and the BMJ Best Practice article Assessment of anemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle cramps, and circumoral paraesthesia. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Investigate and treat citrate toxicity
Explanation:Citrate Toxicity and Hypocalcaemia in Apheresis Patients
This patient is experiencing symptoms of citrate toxicity, which has led to hypocalcaemia. While it is possible for haemorrhage to occur at the site of venepuncture or venous access, this is typically easy to identify through clinical examination. Sepsis is an uncommon occurrence if proper aseptic precautions have been taken, and the symptoms described here are not indicative of an infection. Immediate treatment is necessary, and this can be achieved by slowing or stopping the apheresis process. Treatment options include the administration of oral or intravenous calcium replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.
During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)
What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male has a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis for the past four years. Despite being compliant with therapy (NSAIDs and methotrexate), the disease remains poorly controlled. Recently, he has been experiencing extreme fatigue. Upon conducting an FBC, the following results were obtained:
- Haemoglobin 70 g/L (120-160)
- White cell count 1.5 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet count 40 ×109/L (150-400)
What could be the possible cause of his pancytopenia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Pancytopenia in a Patient with Erosive Rheumatoid Arthritis
This patient is showing signs of pancytopenia, a condition where there is a decrease in all three blood cell types (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Given her history of erosive rheumatoid arthritis for the past three years, it is likely that she has been on immunosuppressive therapy, which can lead to this type of blood disorder.
Immunosuppressive drugs such as methotrexate, sulfasalazine, penicillamine, and gold can all have an impact on blood cell production and lead to pancytopenia. It is important to monitor patients on these medications for any signs of blood disorders and adjust treatment accordingly. Early detection and management can prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with acute myeloid leukemia is experiencing inadequate response to platelet transfusions despite treatment. He is currently 2 weeks post-chemotherapy, without fever, and only minor bruising as a symptom. What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage his platelet refractoriness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check for a one hour post platelet transfusion platelet count
Explanation:Management of Refractory Platelet Transfusions
Patients who do not respond to platelet transfusions should be evaluated to ensure that their platelet counts are increasing adequately. The best way to do this is by taking a blood sample one or two hours after the transfusion. If the patient’s platelet counts are still low, further investigation is necessary. However, it is not appropriate to request HLA-matched platelets or a directed platelet donation at this stage.
Continuing to give random platelet transfusions is also not recommended. Platelets are necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to determine why the transfusions are not working. Therefore, checking for HLA antibodies is the next step in the management of refractory platelet transfusions. Once the cause of the refractory response is identified, appropriate treatment can be initiated.
In summary, managing refractory platelet transfusions involves evaluating the patient’s response to the transfusions, checking for HLA antibodies, and determining the underlying cause of the refractory response. Platelets are still necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to address the underlying issue to ensure that the transfusions are effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the blood product that poses the greatest risk of bacterial infection transmission during transfusion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Platelets
Explanation:Storage Conditions and Bacterial Contamination Risk in Blood Products
Platelets, which are stored at room temperature, have the highest risk of bacterial contamination among all blood products. On the other hand, packed red cells are stored at an average of 4°C, while fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate are stored at −20°C. Factor VIII concentrates, which are heat inactivated freeze dried products, have a minimal risk of bacterial contamination.
It is important to note that the risk of bacterial contamination in blood products is directly related to their storage conditions. Therefore, proper storage and handling of blood products is crucial to ensure their safety and efficacy. By following strict guidelines and protocols, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and ensure that patients receive safe and effective blood products.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male patient comes in with a history of fevers, night sweats, and a weight loss of 20 pounds over the course of several months. Upon conducting a CT scan, mediastinal lymphadenopathy is discovered, and a biopsy is performed. The genetic analysis of the lesion reveals a translocation between chromosomes 14 and 18. What protein is expected to be overexpressed due to this translocation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: bcl-2
Explanation:Follicular lymphoma is a prevalent type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma that results from a chromosomal translocation between chromosome 14 and chromosome 18. This translocation causes the bcl-2 protein, which is anti-apoptotic, to be moved to the IgH promoter region, leading to overproduction of bcl-2. Consequently, abnormal B cells undergo clonal proliferation and are protected from apoptosis. Follicular lymphoma affects both genders equally, and its incidence increases with age. The disease typically presents with painless adenopathy that progresses over time. Systemic symptoms, such as fevers, night sweats, and weight loss, may occur later in the disease progression and can be associated with anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and lymphocytosis. Diagnosis requires a lymph node biopsy to demonstrate the expansion of follicles filling the node and chromosomal analysis of cells from bone marrow aspiration to detect t(14:18). Chemotherapy is the primary treatment, and rituximab, a monoclonal antibody against the CD20 protein found on B cells, is often used in combination with other agents. In Burkitt’s lymphoma, c-myc overexpression is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 8 and 14, while chronic myeloid leukaemia results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, forming the Philadelphia chromosome. Ewing’s sarcoma is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 12, leading to the formation of the fusion protein Ewsr1-fli1, which causes aberrant transcription of genes regulating cell growth and development. In a small subset of follicular lymphoma patients, translocations involving the bcl-6 gene and protein are found, which may increase the risk of transformation to a more aggressive form.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman who is in hospital for pneumonia begins to deteriorate on her third day of intravenous antibiotics. She develops purple bruises on her skin and on the inside of her mouth, and tells you that she feels short of breath and fatigued. Her platelet count has dropped from 165 × 109/l to 43 × 109/l over the last two days. She also complains of blurred vision in the last few hours.
Which of the following will form part of her initial management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasma exchange
Explanation:Treatment Options for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. The most common initial management for TTP is plasma exchange, which aims to remove the antibodies that block the ADAMTS13 enzyme and replace the ADAMTS13 enzymes in the blood. Intravenous methylprednisone and rituximab may also be used in conjunction with plasma exchange.
Aspirin should only be considered when the platelet count is above 50 × 109/l, and even then, it is not an essential part of initial management and will depend on the patient’s comorbidities. Cryoprecipitate is not recommended for TTP treatment, as it is indicated for disseminated intravascular coagulation or fibrinogen deficiency.
Factor VIII infusion is used for haemophilia A, a C-linked-recessive disorder that presents with excessive bleeding and anaemia, and is less likely to be associated with thrombocytopenia and TTP. Platelet transfusions are relatively contraindicated in TTP and should only be considered in cases of catastrophic bleeding or urgent surgery that cannot wait until after plasma exchange. Platelet transfusions increase the risk of arterial thrombosis, which can lead to myocardial infarction and stroke.
In summary, plasma exchange is the most common initial management for TTP, and other treatment options should be carefully considered based on the patient’s individual circumstances. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Haemoglobin 78 g/l
Males: 135–175 g/l
Females: 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apixaban
Explanation:According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She is diagnosed with a genetic disorder that causes abnormal blood cell shape due to a dysfunctional membrane protein. As a result, these cells are broken down by the spleen, leading to haemolytic anaemia and splenomegaly. What is the most probable abnormality observed in a blood film of individuals with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sphere-shaped red blood cells
Explanation:Understanding Abnormalities in Red Blood Cells: Hereditary Spherocytosis and Other Conditions
Hereditary spherocytosis is an inherited condition that causes red blood cells to take on a sphere shape instead of their normal biconcave disc shape. This abnormality leads to increased rupture of red blood cells in capillaries and increased degradation by the spleen, resulting in hypersplenism, splenomegaly, and haemolytic anaemia. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis often present with jaundice, splenomegaly, anaemia, and fatigue.
Schistocytes, irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are the result of mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as haemolytic anaemia.
Acanthocytes or spur cells, which have a spiked, irregular surface due to deposition of lipids and/or proteins on the membrane, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are seen in several conditions, including cirrhosis, anorexia nervosa, and pancreatitis.
Microcytic red blood cells, which are smaller than normal red blood cells but have a normal shape, are typically seen in iron deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, and anaemia of chronic disease.
Teardrop-shaped red blood cells are seen in conditions where there is an abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis. This is different from hereditary spherocytosis, which is a primary disorder of abnormal red blood cell shape.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy with thalassaemia major, receiving regular blood transfusions, has been added to the transplant waiting list for chronic heart failure. What is the probable reason for his heart failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transfusion haemosiderosis
Explanation:Complications of Blood Transfusions: Understanding the Risks
Blood transfusions are a common medical intervention used to treat a variety of conditions, from severe bleeding to anaemia. While they can be life-saving, they also carry certain risks and potential complications. Here are some of the most common complications associated with blood transfusions:
Transfusion haemosiderosis: Repeated blood transfusions can lead to the accumulation of iron in the body’s organs, particularly the heart and endocrine system. This can cause irreversible heart failure if left untreated.
High-output cardiac failure: While anaemia on its own may not be enough to cause heart failure, it can exacerbate the condition in those with reduced left ventricular systolic dysfunction.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction: This occurs when there is a mismatch between the major histocompatibility antigens on blood cells, such as the ABO system. It can cause severe intravascular haemolysis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal failure, and shock, and has a high mortality rate if not recognized and treated quickly.
Pulmonary oedema: While rare in patients with normal left ventricular systolic function, blood transfusions can cause fluid overload and pulmonary oedema, which can exacerbate chronic heart failure.
Transfusion-related bacterial endocarditis: While rare, bacterial infections can occur from blood transfusions. Platelet pools, which are stored at room temperature, have a slightly higher risk of bacterial contamination that can cause fulminant sepsis.
Understanding the potential complications of blood transfusions is important for both patients and healthcare providers. By recognizing and addressing these risks, we can ensure that blood transfusions remain a safe and effective treatment option for those who need them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has a history of chronic atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His blood tests reveal a Hb level of 112g/L and an INR of 9, but he is stable hemodynamically. The consulting physician recommends reversing the effects of warfarin. What blood product/s would be the most appropriate choice for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prothrombin concentrate ('Octaplex')
Explanation:Treatment Options for Warfarin Reversal
Prothrombin concentrates are the preferred treatment for reversing the effects of warfarin in cases of active bleeding and a significantly elevated INR. While packed cells are important for managing severe bleeding, they are not the recommended treatment for warfarin reversal. Cryoprecipitate, recombinant factor VII, and platelets are also not indicated for reversing the effects of warfarin. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. Proper management of warfarin reversal can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with headaches and nosebleeds and is found to have a raised platelet count. She is diagnosed with essential thrombocytosis by the haematologist.
Which of the following might be used to treat essential thrombocytosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxyurea
Explanation:Common Medications and Their Uses
Thrombocytosis and Hydroxyurea
Thrombocytosis is a condition characterized by an elevated platelet count, which can lead to bleeding or thrombosis. Primary or essential thrombocytosis is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in overproduction of platelets by the bone marrow. Hydroxyurea is the first-line treatment for essential thrombocytosis, as it inhibits an enzyme involved in DNA synthesis and reduces the rate of platelet production.Interferon Gamma for Immunomodulation
Interferon gamma is an immunomodulatory medication used to reduce the frequency of infections in patients with chronic granulomatous disease and severe malignant osteopetrosis. It is administered by subcutaneous injection.Cromoglycate for Inflammation
Sodium cromoglycate is a synthetic non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used in the treatment of asthma, allergic rhinitis, and various food allergies.Interferon β for Multiple Sclerosis
Interferon β is a cytokine used in the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. It is administered subcutaneously.Ranitidine for Acid Reduction
Ranitidine is a H2 (histamine) receptor blocker that inhibits the production of acid in the stomach. It can be used in the treatment of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, and gastritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also notes he has been bruising more easily of late. He is noted to be in sinus tachycardia but otherwise is haemodynamically stable. Examination reveals conjunctival pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. No definite lymphadenopathy is palpable. A full blood count is performed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 69 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 0.7 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets 14 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Blood film is reported as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped erythrocytes. A bone marrow aspirate is attempted, but this is unsuccessful.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Myelofibrosis: A Comparison with Other Bone Marrow Disorders
Myelofibrosis is a rare disorder that primarily affects older patients. It is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can also be found in other diseases such as advanced prostate cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myelocytic leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia. However, myelofibrosis can be distinguished from these other disorders by specific diagnostic clues.
One of the key diagnostic features of myelofibrosis is the presence of a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells, which is also seen in advanced prostate cancer. However, in myelofibrosis, a failed bone marrow aspirate, or dry tap, is frequent and a bone marrow trephine biopsy is needed for diagnosis. This is not the case in other bone marrow disorders.
Myelofibrosis is caused by the proliferation of megakaryocytes, which leads to intense bone marrow fibrosis, marrow failure, and secondary hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis. Patients may present with systemic upset, symptoms of marrow failure, or abdominal discomfort from hepatosplenomegaly. Treatment is supportive, with bone marrow transplant reserved for younger patients. The median survival is 4-5 years, and transformation to acute myeloid leukemia is relatively common.
In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a disease of childhood that presents with elevated white cell count and blasts on peripheral blood film. Acute myelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia both present with raised white cell counts and blasts on blood film, but are more common in younger patients. Advanced prostate cancer may cause bone marrow failure if there is replacement of enough bone marrow by metastases, but patients would also complain of bone pain.
In summary, while bone marrow failure may be found in various diseases, specific diagnostic clues such as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells and a failed bone marrow aspirate can help distinguish myelofibrosis from other bone marrow disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. She reports feeling well and has not experienced any significant issues since the procedure.
What blood test is the most effective in monitoring for the recurrence of trophoblastic disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-HCG
Explanation:Hydatidiform Mole and Trophoblastic Disease
A hydatidiform mole is a type of abnormal pregnancy that only generates placental tissue. However, approximately 10% of cases of hydatidiform mole can transform into malignant trophoblastic disease. To assess if there is any retained tissue or recurrence/malignant transformation, the best way is to measure the levels of HCG, which is primarily produced by the placenta. On the other hand, alpha-fetoprotein, CEA, and CA-125 are tumour markers associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, colonic carcinoma, and ovarian carcinoma, respectively. It is important to note that progesterone levels are not useful in determining the prognosis of trophoblastic disease. the characteristics and markers of hydatidiform mole and trophoblastic disease is crucial in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain.
On examination, she is found to have a tachycardia of 130 bpm, with generalised abdominal tenderness and 3 cm splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal marked anaemia, and a diagnosis of splenic sequestration crisis is considered.
Which blood vessel in the spleen is most responsible for monitoring the quality of red blood cells and removing aged ones from circulation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic sinusoid
Explanation:The Anatomy of the Spleen: Splenic Sinusoids, Trabecular Veins, Arteries, and Sheathed Capillaries
The spleen is an important organ in the immune system, responsible for filtering blood and removing old or damaged red blood cells. Its unique anatomy allows it to perform this function effectively.
One key component of the spleen is the splenic sinusoid. These sinusoids are lined with elongated, cuboidal endothelial cells that are closely associated with macrophages. The gaps between the endothelial cells and incomplete basement membrane allow for the passage of red blood cells, with younger and more deformable cells passing through easily while older or abnormal cells are more readily destroyed by the macrophages.
The trabecular veins receive blood from the splenic sinusoids, while the trabecular arteries are branches of the afferent splenic artery. These arteries pass deep into the spleen along connective tissue trabeculae and branch into central arteries that pass through the white pulp of the spleen.
The central arteries then lead to sheathed capillaries, which are branches of the central arteries. These capillaries open directly into the red pulp of the spleen, allowing for further filtration and removal of old or damaged red blood cells.
Overall, the anatomy of the spleen is complex and specialized, allowing it to perform its important functions in the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) with 71% of bone marrow blasts. She declined bone marrow transplant and was started on appropriate chemotherapy. After 2 months, a repeat bone marrow revealed 8% of blasts. Peripheral blood was blast-free and blood tests revealed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 106 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 5.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.8 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
Platelets 131 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
What is her clinical status?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Partial remission
Explanation:Partial remission occurs when a patient meets all the criteria for complete remission except for having more than 5% bone marrow blasts. To be diagnosed with partial remission, the blast cells can be between 5% and 25% and must have decreased by at least 50% from their levels before treatment.
Complete remission is achieved when a patient meets specific criteria, including having a neutrophil count of over 1.0 × 109/l and a platelet count of over 100 × 109/l, not requiring red cell transfusions, having normal cellular components on bone marrow biopsy, having less than 5% blasts in the bone marrow without Auer rods present, and having no signs of leukemia anywhere else in the body.
Complete remission with incomplete recovery is when a patient meets all the criteria for complete remission except for continuing to have neutropenia or thrombocytopenia.
Resistant disease occurs when a patient fails to achieve complete or partial remission and still has leukemia cells in their peripheral blood or bone marrow seven days after completing initial therapy.
A morphologic leukemia-free state is when a patient has less than 5% bone marrow blasts without blasts with Auer rods present and no extramedullary disease, but they do not meet the criteria for neutrophils, platelets, and blood transfusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A worried mother brings her 7-year-old son to the Emergency Department as she is concerned about his left knee. The child injured his knee while playing outside, and the knee is now significantly swollen and he is experiencing a lot of pain. The mother mentions that the child bruises easily. The mother herself does not have any such issues, but her sister had similar problems when she was young.
What is the most probable pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for this boy's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of a clotting factor in the intrinsic pathway of coagulation
Explanation:Pathophysiological Mechanisms of Various Medical Conditions
Haemophilia: Deficiency of a Clotting Factor in the Intrinsic Pathway of Coagulation
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition that affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It is caused by a mutation in factor VIII or IX, leading to deficient coagulation. Patients present with excessive bleeding, such as spontaneous bruising, prolonged bleeding following a dental procedure or minor injury, bleeding into the joints (haemarthrosis), and epistaxis. Treatment involves correcting the deficiency with concentrated factor VIII or IX.Von Willebrand’s Disease: Deficiency of a Protein Found in Endothelial Cells and Released by Endothelial Damage
Von Willebrand’s disease is an autosomal dominant, inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the von Willebrand factor. This protein is found in the endothelial cells lining the vessels and is released following endothelial damage. It promotes adhesion of platelets to the area of damage and stabilizes factor VIII, both actions promoting haemostasis. Symptoms include easy bruising and prolonged bleeding following minimal trauma.Ewing’s Sarcoma: Translocation Between Chromosomes 11 and 22
Ewing’s sarcoma is a malignant bone tumour seen in children and young adults. It is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22.Leukaemia: Invasion of Bone Marrow by Leukaemic Cells
Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the invasion of bone marrow by leukaemic cells, leading to pancytopenia, a condition in which there is a deficiency of all three types of blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and increased susceptibility to infections. Treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and bone marrow transplantation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery is noted to have rigors.
On examination, their temperature is 39°C (baseline 36.5°C). They also complain of abdominal pain and their blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg (baseline 126/84 mmHg).
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately and commence IV fluids
Explanation:Management of Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
When a patient experiences a temperature rise of more than 2°C, abdominal pain, and hypotension after a blood transfusion, an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction should be suspected. In such cases, the transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the set should be taken down. Saline infusion should be initiated to maintain the patient’s blood pressure.
The blood bank should be notified of the suspected reaction, and a sample may need to be collected for further investigation. However, the priority is to manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent further complications. If the reaction is severe, the transfusion should not be continued.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions are crucial to prevent serious complications. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in monitoring patients who receive blood transfusions and act quickly if any adverse reactions occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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