00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests show an eGFR of 50 ml/min and a creatinine clearance of 30 ml/min. Which ONE drug should be administered in a reduced dose?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The treatment of tuberculosis is a complex process that requires the expertise of a specialist in the field, such as a respiratory physician or an infectivologist. The first-line drugs used for active tuberculosis without CNS involvement are isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are given together for the first 2 months of therapy, followed by continued treatment with just isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional 4 months. Pyridoxine is added to the treatment regimen to reduce the risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. If there is CNS involvement, the four drugs (and pyridoxine) are given together for 2 months, followed by continued treatment with isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for an additional 10 months. It is important to monitor liver function tests before and during treatment, and to educate patients on the potential side effects of the drugs and when to seek medical attention. Treatment-resistant tuberculosis cases are becoming more common and require special management and public health considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb, and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus. Joint position sense is impaired at her left great toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal.
      Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate site of the lesion from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Right mid-thoracic cord

      Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest Brown-Séquard syndrome, which is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord. This results in ipsilateral pyramidal weakness and loss of joint position/vibration sense, along with contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation. The patient’s lesion is located in the left mid-thoracic cord. A lesion in the left lumbosacral plexus would only affect the left lower limb. A cervical cord lesion would affect the upper limbs. A central lesion would produce bilateral symmetrical defects, which is not the case here. A right mid-thoracic cord lesion would produce similar symptoms, but on the right side instead. Other spinal cord syndromes include complete cord transection, anterior cord syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, syringomyelia, and cauda equina syndrome. Each of these has a distinct set of symptoms and affected areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past few days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy object, and now experiences severe pain that radiates from his back down his left leg. During the examination, he reports experiencing paraesthesia on the lateral aspect of his left foot and the posterior aspect of his thigh. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The straight leg raise test is positive on the left side. Which nerve root is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: L5

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      111.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that it may be caused by a sexually transmitted infection, but her recent sexual health screening came back negative for syphilis, HIV, Chlamydia, and Gonorrhoea. Her urine test shows ketones and glucose. A random glucose test reveals a reading of 13. What is the most suitable medication for the ongoing treatment of this condition?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms of type 2 diabetes, with a random blood glucose level exceeding 11.1 and experiencing related symptoms. As per protocol, the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes is metformin, which should be prescribed to the patient. It is important to note that insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, while gliclazide, pioglitazone, and glibenclamide are secondary medications used in the management of type 2 diabetes, but are not typically prescribed as first line treatments.

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department complaining of blurry vision in her left eye. She reports her vision in that eye as 'hazy and faded' which started a few hours ago. She also experiences pain that worsens with eye movement. There are no visible signs of trauma or infection on her eyes, and her recent HbA1c and capillary blood glucose levels are normal. What clinical manifestation is linked to the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peripheral visual field loss

      Correct Answer: Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD)

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You assess a 27-year-old female patient who experiences intense, one-sided, pulsating headaches. These...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 27-year-old female patient who experiences intense, one-sided, pulsating headaches. These occur approximately once a month and are not associated with her menstrual cycle. Prior to the onset of the headache, she occasionally experiences momentary 'zig-zags' in her vision. She has no specific preference for treatment and seeks your guidance on the most effective approach to managing acute episodes. Which of the following options would be the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral triptan

      Correct Answer: Oral triptan + oral NSAID

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman visits a Family Planning clinic with the intention of getting...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits a Family Planning clinic with the intention of getting a Nexplanon implant. What adverse effect should she be informed about during counselling?

      Your Answer: Irregular menstrual bleeding

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited her physician with complaints of a severe sore throat, fatigue, and headache. The doctor prescribed amoxicillin to treat an upper respiratory tract infection. However, two days ago she developed a pruritic maculopapular rash that has spread throughout her body. Additionally, her initial symptoms have not improved. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with infectious mononucleosis should not be prescribed amoxicillin. Instead, supportive treatment is recommended for their care.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      71.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is in a meeting with her...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is in a meeting with her clinical team to discuss her ongoing care. The team notes that she has been experiencing weight loss and increased fatigue. The patient reports struggling with chewing and swallowing food, even when it has been mashed or pureed. What is the most suitable long-term management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert a percutaneous gastrostomy tube

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate way to provide nutritional support for patients with motor neuron disease is through the insertion of a percutaneous gastrostomy (PEG) tube. If a patient is struggling to feed themselves, they may initially benefit from smaller, more liquid-like meals, but if this is not sufficient, a PEG tube is a definitive long-term management option. Continuing with their current diet regimen is not recommended as it may lead to poor nutrition and a risk of aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is only used as a last resort when there is impaired nutrient absorption. Inserting a nasogastric tube is not a suitable option as it must be removed after a few weeks to avoid adverse effects. A percutaneous jejunostomy tube is also not recommended as it is less commonly used and harder to maintain than a PEG tube.

      Managing Motor Neuron Disease

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It typically presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The cause of the disease is unknown.

      One medication used in the management of motor neuron disease is riluzole, which works by preventing the stimulation of glutamate receptors. It is mainly used in cases of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by approximately three months.

      Respiratory care is also an important aspect of managing motor neuron disease. Non-invasive ventilation, usually in the form of BIPAP, is used at night and has been associated with a survival benefit of around seven months.

      Nutrition support is also crucial in managing motor neuron disease. The preferred method is percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG), which has been linked to prolonged survival.

      Unfortunately, the prognosis for motor neuron disease is poor, with 50% of patients dying within three years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      253.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited illnesses. Her grandmother experienced vision loss at the age of 70, while her mother began to have similar symptoms at the age of 50. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?

      Your Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, Mosaicism, and Translocation of a Chromosome

      Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of inherited traits and conditions. There are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications.

      Anticipation is a term used to describe inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can lead to an expansion of the repeat and an increase in severity.

      Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in individuals with a certain trait. In some cases, only some people who inherit a certain trait will develop the associated condition, while others will not.

      Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele, which can lead to conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes.

      Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.

      Translocation of a chromosome involves the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can lead to conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.

      Understanding these genetic phenomena is important for diagnosing and treating inherited conditions, as well as for predicting the likelihood of certain conditions in future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      15.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Passmed