00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset abdominal pain that worsens when lying...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset abdominal pain that worsens when lying down. He reports feeling nauseous and has been vomiting. The nursing staff notes that he has a rapid heart rate and a fever of 38.1°C. Upon examination, his abdomen is tender and there is significant guarding. Bruising is present around his belly button. The patient admits to drinking six cans of strong beer daily and smoking two packs of cigarettes per day. He recalls being hospitalized two years ago for vomiting blood but cannot remember the treatment he received. He has no other significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. What is the most likely cause of the man's symptoms and presentation?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a man with abdominal pain, nausea, and periumbilical bruising

      The man in question presents with classic symptoms of pancreatitis, including abdominal pain that radiates to the back and worsens on lying down. However, his periumbilical bruising suggests retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which can also cause flank bruising. Given his alcohol consumption, coagulopathy is a possible contributing factor. Hepatic cirrhosis could explain coagulopathy, but not the rapid onset of abdominal pain or the absence of ecchymosis elsewhere. A ruptured duodenal ulcer or bleeding oesophageal varices are less likely causes, as there is no evidence of upper gastrointestinal bleeding this time. A pancreatic abscess is a potential complication of pancreatitis, but would typically have a longer onset and more systemic symptoms. Therefore, the differential diagnosis includes pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage, possibly related to coagulopathy from alcohol use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      237.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old woman is experiencing gradual onset of epigastric pain that worsens during...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman is experiencing gradual onset of epigastric pain that worsens during and after meals. The pain began about a month ago and is moderate in intensity, without radiation to the back. Occasionally, the pain is severe enough to wake her up at night. She reports no regurgitation, dysphagia, or weight loss. Abdominal palpation reveals no tenderness, and there are no signs of lymphadenopathy. A negative stool guaiac test is noted.
      What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Elevated serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Abnormal Lab Results in a Patient with Dyspepsia

      The patient in question is experiencing dyspepsia, likely due to peptic ulcer disease. One potential cause of this condition is primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to excess gastric acid secretion by causing hypercalcemia (elevated serum calcium). However, reduced plasma glucose, decreased serum sodium, and elevated serum potassium are not associated with dyspepsia.

      On the other hand, long-standing diabetes mellitus can cause autonomic neuropathy and gastroparesis with delayed gastric emptying, leading to dyspepsia. Decreased serum ferritin is often seen in iron deficiency anemia, which can be caused by a chronically bleeding gastric ulcer or gastric cancer. However, this patient’s symptoms do not suggest malignancy, as they began only a month ago and there is no weight loss or lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, abnormal lab results should be interpreted in the context of the patient’s symptoms and medical history to arrive at an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old obese woman, who recently returned from a trip to Japan, presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old obese woman, who recently returned from a trip to Japan, presents with chronic diarrhoea, fatigue, and greasy, bulky stools. She is a non-smoker and non-drinker who consumes meat. Stool examination confirms steatorrhoea, and blood tests reveal elevated folic acid levels and reduced vitamin B12 levels. The only abnormal finding on a CT scan of the abdomen is multiple diverticula in the jejunum. What is the most likely cause of this patient's macrocytic anaemia?

      Your Answer: Fish tapeworm infestation

      Correct Answer: Increased utilisation of vitamin B12 by bacteria

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vitamin B12 Deficiency: An Overview

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by various factors, including bacterial overgrowth syndrome, acquired deficiency of intrinsic factor, chronic pancreatic insufficiency, dietary deficiency, and fish tapeworm infestation.

      Bacterial Overgrowth Syndrome: This disorder is characterized by the proliferation of colonic bacteria in the small bowel, resulting in diarrhea, steatorrhea, and macrocytic anemia. The bacteria involved are usually Escherichia coli or Bacteroides, which can convert conjugated bile acids to unconjugated bile acids, leading to impaired micelle formation and steatorrhea. The bacteria also utilize vitamin B12, causing macrocytic anemia.

      Acquired Deficiency of Intrinsic Factor: This condition is seen in pernicious anemia, which does not have diarrhea or steatorrhea.

      Chronic Pancreatic Insufficiency: This is most commonly associated with chronic pancreatitis caused by high alcohol intake or cystic fibrosis. However, in this case, the patient has no history of alcohol intake or CF, and blood tests do not reveal hyperglycemia. CT abdomen can detect calcification of the pancreas, characteristic of chronic pancreatitis.

      Dietary Deficiency of Vitamin B12: This is unlikely in non-vegetarians like the patient in this case.

      Fish Tapeworm Infestation: This infestation can cause vitamin B12 deficiency, but it is more common in countries where people commonly eat raw freshwater fish. In this case, the presence of diarrhea, steatorrhea, and CT abdomen findings suggestive of jejunal diverticula make bacterial overgrowth syndrome more likely.

      In conclusion, vitamin B12 deficiency can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of tiredness, epigastric discomfort and an episode of passing black stools. His past medical history includes a 4-year history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he takes regular methotrexate, folic acid and naproxen. He recently received a course of oral corticosteroids for a flare of his rheumatoid arthritis. He denies alcohol consumption and is a non-smoker. On systemic enquiry he reports a good appetite and denies any weight loss. The examination reveals conjunctival pallor and a soft abdomen with tenderness in the epigastrium. His temperature is 36.7°C, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, pulse is 81 beats per minute and oxygen saturations are 96% on room air. A full blood count is taken which reveals the following:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 68 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Conditions: Peptic Ulcer, Atrophic Gastritis, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Gastric Cancer, and Oesophageal Varices

      Peptic Ulcer:
      Peptic ulceration is commonly caused by NSAID use or Helicobacter pylori infection. Symptoms include dyspepsia, upper gastrointestinal bleeding, and iron deficiency anaemia. Treatment involves admission to a gastrointestinal ward for resuscitation, proton pump inhibitor initiation, and urgent endoscopy. If caused by H. pylori, triple therapy is initiated.

      Atrophic Gastritis:
      Atrophic gastritis is a chronic inflammatory change of the gastric mucosa, resulting in malabsorption and anaemia. However, it is unlikely to account for melaena or epigastric discomfort.

      Barrett’s Oesophagus:
      Barrett’s oesophagus is a histological diagnosis resulting from chronic acid reflux. It is unlikely to cause the patient’s symptoms as there is no history of reflux.

      Gastric Cancer:
      Gastric cancer is less likely due to the lack of risk factors and additional ‘red flag’ symptoms such as weight loss and appetite change. Biopsies of peptic ulcers are taken at endoscopy to check for an underlying malignant process.

      Oesophageal Varices:
      Oesophageal varices are caused by chronic liver disease and can result in severe bleeding and haematemesis. However, this diagnosis is unlikely as there is little history to suggest chronic liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man who lives in a local hostel for the homeless is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man who lives in a local hostel for the homeless is added onto the medical take following a seizure. He last consumed alcohol 32 h previously and, when assessed, he is tremulous and anxious, wishing to self-discharge. His nutritional status and personal hygiene are poor.
      Which one of the following is the most essential to be carefully monitored while an inpatient?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Electrolytes in Alcohol Withdrawal: Importance of Serum Phosphate

      Alcohol dependency can lead to poor personal hygiene, nutritional deficiencies, and alcohol withdrawal. During withdrawal, electrolyte imbalances may occur, including magnesium, potassium, and serum phosphate. Of these, serum phosphate levels require close monitoring, especially during refeeding, as they may plummet dangerously low and require prompt replacement with intravenous phosphate. Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) may also be elevated but is not useful in this situation. Sodium levels should be monitored to avoid hyponatraemia, but serum phosphate levels are more likely to change rapidly and must be monitored closely to prevent refeeding syndrome. Haemoglobin levels are not the most appropriate answer in this case unless there is an acute change or bleeding risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      145.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A newborn presents with a suspected diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is a...

    Correct

    • A newborn presents with a suspected diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is a characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer: Projectile vomiting

      Explanation:

      Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

      Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that is most commonly observed in first-born male children. One of the most characteristic symptoms of this condition is projectile vomiting of large quantities of curdled milk. However, anorexia and loose stools are not typically observed in patients with this condition. The biochemical picture of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.

      This condition is caused by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric sphincter, which leads to obstruction of the gastric outlet. This obstruction can cause the stomach to become distended, leading to vomiting. Diagnosis of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically made through ultrasound imaging, which can reveal the thickened pyloric muscle. Treatment for this condition typically involves surgical intervention to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal gastric emptying.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic for a follow-up appointment after...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic for a follow-up appointment after a liver biopsy. She was referred by her General Practitioner two weeks ago due to symptoms of fatigue, myalgia, abdominal bloating and significantly abnormal aminotransferases. The results of her liver biopsy and blood tests confirm a diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis (AIH).
      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Azathioprine and prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Autoimmune Hepatitis: Azathioprine and Prednisolone

      Autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects young and middle-aged women. The cause of AIH is unknown, but it is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. The condition is characterized by inflammation of the liver, which can progress to cirrhosis if left untreated.

      The first-line treatment for AIH is a combination of azathioprine and prednisolone. Patients with moderate-to-severe inflammation should receive immunosuppressive treatment, while those with mild disease may be closely monitored instead. Cholestyramine, a medication used for hyperlipidemia and other conditions, is not a first-line treatment for AIH.

      Liver transplantation is not typically recommended as a first-line treatment for AIH, but it may be necessary in severe cases. However, AIH can recur following transplantation. Antiviral medications like peginterferon alpha-2a and tenofovir are not effective in treating AIH, as the condition is not caused by a virus.

      In summary, azathioprine and prednisolone are the primary treatment options for AIH, with liver transplantation reserved for severe cases. Other medications like cholestyramine, peginterferon alpha-2a, and tenofovir are not effective in treating AIH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 39-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with sudden onset vomiting and...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with sudden onset vomiting and severe upper abdominal pain. On examination, he appears unwell, with a high heart and respiratory rate, and a temperature of 38.0°C. His blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg. He localises the pain to his upper abdomen, with some radiation to the back. His abdomen is generally tender, with bowel sounds present. There is no blood in his vomit. He is unable to provide further history due to the pain and nausea, but he is known to Accident and Emergency due to many previous admissions with alcohol intoxication. He has previously been normotensive, is a non-smoker and has not been treated for any other conditions.
      Based on the information provided, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Upper Abdominal Pain: Considerations and Exclusions

      Acute upper abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s history of alcohol abuse is a significant risk factor for acute pancreatitis, which is consistent with the presentation of quick-onset, severe upper abdominal pain with vomiting. Mild pyrexia is also common in acute pancreatitis. However, other conditions must be considered and excluded.

      Pulmonary embolism can cause acute pain, but it is typically pleuritic and associated with shortness of breath rather than nausea and vomiting. Aortic dissection is another potential cause of sudden-onset upper abdominal pain, but it is rare under the age of 40 and typically associated with a history of hypertension and smoking. Myocardial infarction should also be on the differential diagnosis, but the location of the pain and radiation to the back, along with the lack of a history of cardiac disease or hypertension, suggest other diagnoses. Nevertheless, an electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed to exclude myocardial infarction.

      Bleeding oesophageal varices can develop as a consequence of portal hypertension, which is usually due to cirrhosis. Although the patient is not known to have liver disease, his history of alcohol abuse is a significant risk factor for cirrhosis. However, bleeding oesophageal varices would present with haematemesis, which the patient does not have.

      In conclusion, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain. In this case, acute pancreatitis is the most likely diagnosis, but other conditions must be considered and excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with a 6-month history of increasing difficulty with swallowing solid foods. He does not have any problems with swallowing liquids. He has always been overweight but has lost 5 kg in the past few months. He attributes this eating a little less due to his swallowing difficulties. He has a past history of long-term heartburn and indigestion, which he has been self-treating with over-the-counter antacids. The GP is concerned that the patient may have oesophageal cancer.
      Which one of the following statements with regard to oesophageal cancer is correct?

      Your Answer: Barrett’s oesophagus is a pre-malignant condition that may lead to squamous carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Achalasia predisposes to squamous carcinoma of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oesophageal Carcinoma: Risk Factors, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the oesophagus, the muscular tube that connects the throat to the stomach. In this article, we will discuss the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis of oesophageal carcinoma.

      Risk Factors

      Achalasia, a condition that affects the ability of the oesophagus to move food down to the stomach, and alcohol consumption are associated with squamous carcinoma, which most commonly affects the upper and middle oesophagus. Barrett’s oesophagus, a pre-malignant condition that may lead to squamous carcinoma, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) predispose to adenocarcinoma, which occurs in the lower oesophagus.

      Diagnosis

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a recognised pre-malignant condition that requires acid-lowering therapy and frequent follow-up. Ablative and excisional therapies are available. Most cases are amenable to curative surgery at diagnosis. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is an early manifestation of the disease and is typically experienced with solid foods.

      Prognosis

      Prognosis depends on the stage and grade at diagnosis, but unfortunately, the disease frequently presents once the cancer has spread. Therefore, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes.

      Conclusion

      Oesophageal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      196.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical deterioration. Diagnostic aspiration of the ascites fluid shows a raised neutrophil count in the ascites fluid.
      Which of the following statements best fits this scenario?

      Your Answer: There is a high mortality and high recurrence rate

      Explanation:

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis: Mortality, Prevention, and Treatment

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication of ascites, occurring in 8% of cirrhosis cases with ascites. This condition has a high mortality rate of 25% and recurs in 70% of patients within a year. While there is some evidence that secondary prevention with oral quinolones may decrease mortality in certain patient groups, it is not an indication for liver transplantation. The most common infecting organisms are enteric, such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus, and Enterococcus. While an ascitic tap can decrease discomfort, it cannot prevent recurrence. Understanding the mortality, prevention, and treatment options for SBP is crucial for managing this serious complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      308.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman presented to her General Practitioner complaining of six months of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presented to her General Practitioner complaining of six months of intermittent uncomfortable abdominal distension and bloating, which changed with her menstrual cycle. These symptoms were interspersed with bouts of loose motions. She worked as a teacher in a busy school and found work very stressful; she had previously taken a course of sertraline for anxiety and depression. Examination, blood test results and sigmoidoscopy were all normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Irritable Bowel Syndrome from Other Gastrointestinal Disorders

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects more women than men and is often associated with affective disorders. Symptoms of IBS may vary throughout the menstrual cycle, but it is important to rule out other possible diagnoses such as endometriosis. Physical exams and tests are typically normal in IBS, but any unintentional weight loss, rectal bleeding, nocturnal diarrhea, fecal incontinence, or onset of persistent GI symptoms after age 40 requires further assessment. Management of IBS may include dietary changes and medication such as antispasmodics, anti-diarrheals, laxatives, and even Antidepressants. Other gastrointestinal disorders such as chronic pancreatitis, diverticulitis, peptic ulcer disease, and ulcerative colitis have distinct clinical features that can help differentiate them from IBS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around the caecum and also involves the terminal ileum. There are no signs of weight loss or lymphadenopathy. The patient has a history of multiple oral ulcers and severe perianal disease, including fissures, fistulae, and previous abscesses that have required draining.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a condition that affects different parts of the digestive tract. The location of the disease can be classified as ileal, colonic, ileo-colonic, or upper gastrointestinal tract. In some cases, the disease can cause a solid, thickened mass around the caecum, which also involves the terminal ileum. This is known as ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.

      While weight loss is a common symptom of Crohn’s disease, it is not always present. It is important to note that the range of areas affected by the disease makes it unlikely for it to be classified as anything other than ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man with a history of chronic active hepatitis B presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of chronic active hepatitis B presents with abdominal distension and bilateral ankle oedema, worsening over the previous 2 weeks. Three months ago, he was admitted for bleeding oesophageal varices, which was treated endoscopically. There was shifting dullness without tenderness on abdominal examination, and splenomegaly was also noted. His serum albumin concentration was diminished. Prothrombin time was elevated.
      Which one of the following diuretics will best help this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Diuretics for Ascites in Liver Cirrhosis: Mechanisms and Options

      Ascites is a common complication of liver cirrhosis, caused by both Na/water retention and portal hypertension. Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, is the first-line diuretic for ascites in liver cirrhosis. It promotes natriuresis and diuresis, while also preventing hypokalaemia and subsequent hepatic encephalopathy. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be used as an adjunct or second-line therapy. Bumetanide and amiloride are alternatives, but less preferred. Acetazolamide and thiazide diuretics are not recommended. Common side-effects of diuretics include electrolyte imbalances and renal impairment. Careful monitoring is necessary to ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He reports being a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He reports being a teetotaler and having no risk factors for liver disease. However, his grandfather passed away from liver cancer. Upon investigation, his serum albumin is 38 g/L (37-49), serum total bilirubin is 41 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 105 U/L (5-35), serum alkaline phosphatase is 115 U/L (45-105), serum ferritin is 1360 μg/L (15-300), and serum iron saturation is 84%. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hereditary Haemochromatosis from Other Liver Diseases

      Raised serum ferritin levels and increased transferrin saturation, with or without abnormal liver function tests, are indicative of hereditary haemochromatosis. On the other hand, abnormal serum ferritin and iron saturation are not observed in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Diagnosis of the latter involves measuring serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and pi-typing for mutant alleles.

      In primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), liver function abnormalities follow a cholestatic pattern, and it typically affects middle-aged females. However, serum ferritin and iron studies are normal in PBC. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is characterized by a disproportionate elevation (4-10 times normal) in serum alkaline phosphatase, and patients with PSC usually have a history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Finally, Wilson’s disease is a condition that primarily affects young people, usually in their second or third decade of life. It is rare for Wilson’s disease to manifest after the age of 40. By the unique characteristics of each liver disease, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation at her GP's office after her blood test results showed an elevated level of anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody. What condition is linked to this antibody?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Diseases: Causes and Symptoms

      Autoimmune diseases are conditions where the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues and organs. Here are some examples of autoimmune diseases and their causes and symptoms:

      Coeliac Disease
      Coeliac disease is caused by an autoimmune reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat. Symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, and fatigue.

      Graves’ Disease
      This autoimmune disease affects the thyroid gland, resulting in hyperthyroidism. It is associated with anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibodies.

      Pemphigus Vulgaris
      This rare autoimmune disease causes blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces due to autoantibodies against desmoglein.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
      This multisystem autoimmune disease is associated with a wide range of autoantibodies, including anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded (ds) DNA. Symptoms can include joint pain, fatigue, and skin rashes.

      Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
      This autoimmune disease results in the destruction of islet cells in the pancreas. Islet cell autoantibodies and antibodies to insulin have been described as causes. Symptoms include increased thirst and urination, weight loss, and fatigue.

      In summary, autoimmune diseases can affect various organs and tissues in the body, and their symptoms can range from mild to severe. Understanding their causes and symptoms is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 20-year old man presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit complaining of sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old man presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit complaining of sudden onset abdominal pain. What physical examination finding is most indicative of a possible diagnosis of appendicitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tenderness over McBurney’s point

      Explanation:

      Common Abdominal Exam Findings and Their Significance

      Abdominal exams are an important part of diagnosing various medical conditions. Here are some common findings and their significance:

      Tenderness over McBurney’s point: This is a sign of possible appendicitis. McBurney’s point is located a third of the way from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus.

      Grey–Turner’s sign: Flank bruising is a sign of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which is commonly associated with acute pancreatitis.

      Murphy’s sign: This suggests cholecystitis. The examiner places their hand below the right costal margin and the tender gallbladder moves inferiorly on inhalation, causing the patient to catch their breath.

      Tinkling bowel sounds: High-pitched, ‘tinkling’ bowel sounds are typically associated with mechanical bowel obstruction.

      Absent bowel sounds: This is suggestive of paralytic ileus, which most commonly occurs after abdominal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year due to recurring episodes of abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. She is concerned about the possibility of bowel cancer, as her father passed away from it at the age of 86. She has no other relevant family history. She also mentions that she needs a refill for her salbutamol inhaler, which she takes for her recently diagnosed asthma. Additionally, she has noticed an increase in hot flashes and wonders if she is experiencing early menopause. She has lost some weight, which she attributes to her healthy diet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Gastrointestinal Neuroendocrine Tumour (NET)

      A patient presenting with symptoms of diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing may have a gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET), also known as carcinoid syndrome. It is important to consider NET in the differential diagnosis, even in relatively young patients, as the average delay in diagnosis is 2-3 years.

      Appropriate investigations include routine blood tests, gut hormone measurement, 24-hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) measurement, cross-sectional imaging, and gastrointestinal endoscopy. Management options include somatostatin analogues, peptide receptor radiotargeted therapy (PRRT), and molecularly targeted treatments such as sunitinib or everolimus.

      Health/illness-related anxiety, or hypochondriasis, should be a diagnosis of exclusion, and physical causes should be addressed first. Irritable bowel syndrome may cause similar symptoms, but without hot flashes or asthma. Colorectal or gastric adenocarcinoma may also be considered, but the symptoms are more consistent with a NET.

      Most gastrointestinal NETs are low grade, and even in metastatic disease, the median overall survival is around 10 years. Early diagnosis and appropriate management can improve outcomes for patients with NET.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history of progressively worsening jaundice. His wife says that she noticed it a while ago, but her husband has been reluctant to come to see the GP. The man does not complain of any abdominal pain and on examination no masses are felt. He agrees when asked by the GP that he has lost quite some weight recently. The patient has a strong alcohol history and has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily since he was in his twenties. The GP refers the patient to secondary care.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Painless Jaundice in a Patient with Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer

      This patient presents with painless jaundice, which is most suggestive of obstructive jaundice due to a tumour in the head of the pancreas. The patient also has strong risk factors for pancreatic cancer, such as smoking and alcohol. However, other conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis, such as chronic cholecystitis, chronic pancreatitis, cholangiocarcinoma, and chronic liver disease.

      Chronic cholecystitis is unlikely to be the cause of painless jaundice, as it typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and gallstones on ultrasound. Chronic pancreatitis is a possible diagnosis, given the patient’s risk factors, but it usually involves abdominal pain and fatty diarrhoea. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer that develops in the bile ducts and can cause jaundice, abdominal pain, and itching. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Chronic liver disease is also a possible consequence of alcohol abuse, but it usually involves other signs such as nail clubbing, palmar erythema, and spider naevi.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and rule out other potential causes of painless jaundice. Early detection and treatment of pancreatic cancer are crucial for improving the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old man presents for a general check-up. He is well in himself...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents for a general check-up. He is well in himself and reports no symptoms.
      On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 33 kg/m2 and there are some thickened folds of skin in his axilla and the nape of his neck. His blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. He is a non-smoker and does not drink.
      A set of blood work is ordered. He demonstrated impaired fasting glucose in addition to the results below.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Cholesterol 5.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
      Triglyceride 3.9 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 60 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 30 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 30 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      What is the next best investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound liver

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Investigation: A Case Study

      In this case study, a patient presents with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), raised ALT, impaired glucose regulation, acanthosis nigricans, and a high BMI. The question is, what investigation should be done next?

      Ultrasound liver is the best investigation in this case. It is quick, inexpensive, and can provide enough information to guide management at initial stages. Weight management and dietary modification can help abate symptoms.

      Screening for hereditary haemochromatosis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient does not complain of arthritis, diabetes, or changes to the skin.

      Haematinics are not necessary, as the Hb is normal.

      A CT scan of the abdomen would be useful, but it is costly and would result in the patient receiving radiation. It should not be the next best investigation.

      Serum ceruloplasmin is not necessary, as there is nothing in the history to suggest Wilson’s disease.

      In conclusion, choosing the best investigation requires careful consideration of the patient’s history and symptoms. In this case, ultrasound liver is the most appropriate next step.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man was admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man was admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) due to biliary colic. He had an uneventful procedure, but was re-admitted the same night with severe abdominal pain. He is tachycardic, short of breath, and has a pleural effusion on his chest X-ray (CXR). His blood tests show C-reactive protein (CRP) 200 mg/litre, white cell count (WCC) 16 × 109/litre, creatine 150 µmol/litre, urea 8 mmol/litre, phosphate 1.1 mmol/litre, calcium 0.7 mmol/litre.
      What is his most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing and Managing Complications of ERCP: A Case Study

      A patient presents with abdominal pain, hypocalcaemia, and a pleural effusion several hours after undergoing an ERCP. The most likely diagnosis is pancreatitis, a known complication of the procedure. Immediate management includes confirming the diagnosis and severity of pancreatitis, aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation, oxygen, and adequate analgesia. Severe cases may require transfer to intensive care. Intestinal and biliary perforation are unlikely causes, as they would have presented with immediate post-operative pain. A reaction to contrast would have occurred during the procedure. Another possible complication is ascending cholangitis, which presents with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain, but is unlikely to cause hypocalcaemia or a pleural effusion. It is important to promptly diagnose and manage complications of ERCP to prevent severe complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (10/12) 83%
Passmed