-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 22-year-old presents to the emergency department with a nosebleed. You observe that they have blood-soaked tissue paper held against the nose, blocking the opening of the left nostril, and blood stains on the front of their shirt. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Your Answer: Advise the patient to sit forward and pinch just in front of the bony septum firmly and hold it for 15 minutes
Explanation:To control epistaxis, it is recommended to have the patient sit upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinch the cartilaginous part of the nose, specifically in front of the bony septum, and maintain pressure for 10-15 minutes without releasing it.
Further Reading:
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance for a patient experiencing cardiac arrest. Concerning medications administered during cardiac arrest in adults, which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on all types of adrenergic receptors without preference. It is administered in doses of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest. On the other hand, Amiodarone functions by blocking voltage-gated potassium channels and is typically administered after the third shock.
Further Reading:
In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.
Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.
Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.
Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.
Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.
It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
You evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). She had initially improved after receiving fluids, but her condition has worsened in the past hour. She is now expressing discomfort due to a headache and is displaying irritability. She has started vomiting again, and the nursing staff has observed an increase in her blood pressure and a decrease in her heart rate.
What complication has developed?Your Answer: Cerebral oedema
Explanation:Cerebral edema is the most significant complication of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), leading to death in many cases. It occurs in approximately 0.2-1% of DKA cases. The high blood glucose levels cause an osmolar gradient, resulting in the movement of water from the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the extracellular fluid (ECF) space and a decrease in cell volume. When insulin and intravenous fluids are administered to correct the condition, the effective osmolarity decreases rapidly, causing a reversal of the fluid shift and the development of cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema is associated with a higher mortality rate and poor neurological outcomes. To prevent its occurrence, it is important to slowly normalize osmolarity over a period of 48 hours, paying attention to glucose and sodium levels, as well as ensuring proper hydration. Monitoring the child for symptoms such as headache, recurrent vomiting, irritability, changes in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), abnormal slowing of heart rate, and increasing blood pressure is crucial.
If cerebral edema does occur, it should be treated with either a hypertonic (3%) saline solution at a dosage of 3 ml/kg or a mannitol infusion at a dosage of 250-500 mg/kg over a 20-minute period.
In addition to cerebral edema, there are other complications associated with DKA in children, including cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, and acute renal failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her cervical spine is immobilized. The anesthesiologist has attempted to intubate her but is unsuccessful and decides to perform a surgical cricothyroidotomy.
Which of the following statements regarding surgical cricothyroidotomy is FALSE?Your Answer: A cuffed endotracheal tube should be used
Correct Answer: It is the surgical airway of choice in patients under the age of 12
Explanation:A surgical cricothyroidotomy is a procedure performed in emergency situations to secure the airway by making an incision in the cricothyroid membrane. It is also known as an emergency surgical airway (ESA) and is typically done when intubation and oxygenation are not possible.
There are certain conditions in which a surgical cricothyroidotomy should not be performed. These include patients who are under 12 years old, those with laryngeal fractures or pre-existing or acute laryngeal pathology, individuals with tracheal transection and retraction of the trachea into the mediastinum, and cases where the anatomical landmarks are obscured due to trauma.
The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
1. Gathering and preparing the necessary equipment.
2. Positioning the patient on their back with the neck in a neutral position.
3. Sterilizing the patient’s neck using antiseptic swabs.
4. Administering local anesthesia, if time permits.
5. Locating the cricothyroid membrane, which is situated between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage.
6. Stabilizing the trachea with the left hand until it can be intubated.
7. Making a transverse incision through the cricothyroid membrane.
8. Inserting the scalpel handle into the incision and rotating it 90°. Alternatively, a haemostat can be used to open the airway.
9. Placing a properly-sized, cuffed endotracheal tube (usually a size 5 or 6) into the incision, directing it into the trachea.
10. Inflating the cuff and providing ventilation.
11. Monitoring for chest rise and auscultating the chest to ensure adequate ventilation.
12. Securing the airway to prevent displacement.Potential complications of a surgical cricothyroidotomy include aspiration of blood, creation of a false passage into the tissues, subglottic stenosis or edema, laryngeal stenosis, hemorrhage or hematoma formation, laceration of the esophagus or trachea, mediastinal emphysema, and vocal cord paralysis or hoarseness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a fever, chest pain that worsens with breathing, and coughing up thick, yellowish sputum. A chest X-ray is done and shows signs of cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobe.
Which of the following bacteria is most frequently linked to cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobe?Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Explanation:Klebsiella pneumoniae is commonly observed in individuals who are dependent on alcohol. It is more prevalent in men compared to women and typically manifests after the age of 40.
The clinical manifestations of this condition include fevers and rigors, pleuritic chest pain, purulent sputum, and haemoptysis, which occurs more frequently than with other bacterial pneumonias. Klebsiella pneumoniae tends to affect the upper lobes of the lungs and often leads to the formation of cavitating lesions.
While Staphylococcus aureus can also cause cavitation, it usually affects multiple lobes and is not limited to the upper lobes. Other potential causes of cavitating pneumonia include Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and, although rare, Legionella pneumophila.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
You are part of the team working on a child with severe burns. The child has a suspected inhalation injury and needs to be intubated before being transferred to the local burns unit. During direct laryngoscopy, which classification system is used to evaluate the glottic opening?
Your Answer: Cormack and Lehane classification
Explanation:The tracheal opening can be classified using the Cormack-Lehane grading system. This system categorizes the views obtained through direct laryngoscopy based on the structures that are visible. More information about this classification system can be found in the notes provided below.
Further Reading:
A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.
Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.
If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.
Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department from working in a radiation lab. He informs you that he may have been exposed to dangerous radiation. The patient mentions that it has been less than 24 hours since he left lab. Which of the following tests provides the most accurate prognosis for the severity of radiation sickness?
Your Answer: Lymphocyte count
Explanation:The count of lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, can serve as an early indication of the level of radiation exposure. The severity of the exposure can be determined by observing the decrease in lymphocyte count, which is directly related to the amount of radiation absorbed by the body. Ideally, the count is measured 12 hours after exposure and then repeated every 4 hours initially to track the rate of decrease.
Further Reading:
Radiation exposure refers to the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or a material medium. There are two types of radiation: ionizing and non-ionizing. Non-ionizing radiation, such as radio waves and visible light, has enough energy to move atoms within a molecule but not enough to remove electrons from atoms. Ionizing radiation, on the other hand, has enough energy to ionize atoms or molecules by detaching electrons from them.
There are different types of ionizing radiation, including alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and X-rays. Alpha particles are positively charged and consist of 2 protons and 2 neutrons from the atom’s nucleus. They are emitted from the decay of heavy radioactive elements and do not travel far from the source atom. Beta particles are small, fast-moving particles with a negative electrical charge that are emitted from an atom’s nucleus during radioactive decay. They are more penetrating than alpha particles but less damaging to living tissue. Gamma rays and X-rays are weightless packets of energy called photons. Gamma rays are often emitted along with alpha or beta particles during radioactive decay and can easily penetrate barriers. X-rays, on the other hand, are generally lower in energy and less penetrating than gamma rays.
Exposure to ionizing radiation can damage tissue cells by dislodging orbital electrons, leading to the generation of highly reactive ion pairs. This can result in DNA damage and an increased risk of future malignant change. The extent of cell damage depends on factors such as the type of radiation, time duration of exposure, distance from the source, and extent of shielding.
The absorbed dose of radiation is directly proportional to time, so it is important to minimize the amount of time spent in the vicinity of a radioactive source. A lethal dose of radiation without medical management is 4.5 sieverts (Sv) to kill 50% of the population at 60 days. With medical management, the lethal dose is 5-6 Sv. The immediate effects of ionizing radiation can range from radiation burns to radiation sickness, which is divided into three main syndromes: hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and neurovascular. Long-term effects can include hematopoietic cancers and solid tumor formation.
In terms of management, support is mainly supportive and includes IV fluids, antiemetics, analgesia, nutritional support, antibiotics, blood component substitution, and reduction of brain edema.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 32 year old female has been brought into the ED during the early hours of the morning after being found unresponsive on a park bench by a police patrol. The ambulance crew started Cardiopulmonary resuscitation which has continued after the patient's arrival in the ED. You are concerned about hypothermia given recent frosts and outdoor temperatures near freezing. Which of the following methods is most suitable for evaluating the patient's core temperature?
Your Answer: Oesophageal temperature probe
Explanation:In patients with hypothermia, it is important to use a low reading thermometer such as an oesophageal temperature probe or vascular temperature probe. Skin surface thermometers are not effective in hypothermia cases, and rectal and tympanic thermometers may not provide accurate readings. Therefore, it is recommended to use oesophageal temperature or vascular temperature probes. However, it is worth noting that oesophageal probes may not be accurate if the patient is receiving warmed inhaled air.
Further Reading:
Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.
ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.
Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.
Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 45-year-old presents to the emergency department with palpitations and episodes of fainting. It is determined that the patient would benefit from cardioversion. You have a discussion about the treatment options, advantages, and potential risks. What is the definition of material risk?
Your Answer: Risk associated with an intervention that carries significant risk of harm or adverse outcome
Explanation:Material risk refers to a significant potential for harm that a reasonable person would consider when deciding whether to undergo a medical or surgical treatment. It is an important factor to consider when obtaining consent for the treatment. Montgomery defines material risk as any risk that a reasonable person in the patient’s position would find significant. Relative risk, on the other hand, compares the risk between two different groups of people. Relative risk reduction measures the decrease in the risk of an adverse event in the treatment group compared to an untreated group. Side effect risk quantifies the likelihood of developing a side effect from a treatment, whether minor or major. Lastly, 1/ARR represents the number needed to treat in order to achieve a desired outcome.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department by his parents who are worried that he may have croup. What clinical features would you expect to find in a child with croup?
Your Answer: Barking cough worse at night
Explanation:Croup is identified by a cough that sounds like a seal barking, especially worse during the night. Before the barking cough, there may be initial symptoms of a cough, runny nose, and congestion for 12 to 72 hours. Other signs of croup include a high-pitched sound when breathing (stridor), difficulty breathing (respiratory distress), and fever.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 12 month old is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child has been experiencing diarrhea and has been eating poorly for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, the patient appears alert but shows signs of trembling and excessive sweating. The initial observations are as follows:
Pulse: 150 bpm
Respirations: 32 bpm
Temperature: 37.5ºC
Oxygen Saturations: 98% on air
Capillary glucose: 2.2 mmol/l
Urinalysis: NAD
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Squeeze glucogel® into child’s mouth between the patients lower cheek and gum
Explanation:Diabetes Mellitus:
– Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
– Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
– Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
– Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.Hypoglycemia:
– Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
– Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
– Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
– Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
– Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
– Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
– Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
– Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
– If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
You are examining the hip X-rays of a 78-year-old woman who slipped while getting out of bed. What can be helpful in identifying a femoral neck fracture on the anteroposterior X-ray?
Your Answer: Shenton's line
Explanation:Shenton’s line is a useful tool for identifying hip fractures on radiographs. It is a curved line that is drawn along the bottom edge of the upper pubic bone and the inner lower edge of the femur neck. This line should be smooth and uninterrupted. If there are any breaks or irregularities in the line, it could indicate a fracture, dysplasia, or dislocation.
Further Reading:
Fractured neck of femur is a common injury, especially in elderly patients who have experienced a low impact fall. Risk factors for this type of fracture include falls, osteoporosis, and other bone disorders such as metastatic cancers, hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.
There are different classification systems for hip fractures, but the most important differentiation is between intracapsular and extracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is primarily from ascending cervical branches that arise from an arterial anastomosis between the medial and lateral circumflex branches of the femoral arteries. Fractures in the intracapsular region can damage the blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis (AVN), with the risk increasing with displacement. The Garden classification can be used to classify intracapsular neck of femur fractures and determine the risk of AVN. Those at highest risk will typically require hip replacement or arthroplasty.
Fractures below or distal to the capsule are termed extracapsular and can be further described as intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric depending on their location. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is usually maintained with these fractures, making them amenable to surgery that preserves the femoral head and neck, such as dynamic hip screw fixation.
Diagnosing hip fractures can be done through radiographs, with Shenton’s line and assessing the trabecular pattern of the proximal femur being helpful techniques. X-rays should be obtained in both the AP and lateral views, and if an occult fracture is suspected, an MRI or CT scan may be necessary.
In terms of standards of care, it is important to assess the patient’s pain score within 15 minutes of arrival in the emergency department and provide appropriate analgesia within the recommended timeframes. Patients with moderate or severe pain should have their pain reassessed within 30 minutes of receiving analgesia. X-rays should be obtained within 120 minutes of arrival, and patients should be admitted within 4 hours of arrival.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
You evaluate the pupillary light reflex in a patient with a cranial nerve impairment. Upon shining the light into the left eye, there is no alteration in pupil size in either the left or right eye. However, when the light is directed into the right eye, both the left and right pupils constrict.
What is the location of the lesion in this scenario?Your Answer: Left optic nerve
Explanation:The pupillary light reflex is a reflex that regulates the size of the pupil in response to the intensity of light that reaches the retina. It consists of two separate pathways, the afferent pathway and the efferent pathway.
The afferent pathway begins with light entering the pupil and stimulating the retinal ganglion cells in the retina. These cells then transmit the light signal to the optic nerve. At the optic chiasm, the nasal retinal fibers cross to the opposite optic tract, while the temporal retinal fibers remain in the same optic tract. The fibers from the optic tracts then project and synapse in the pretectal nuclei in the dorsal midbrain. From there, the pretectal nuclei send fibers to the ipsilateral Edinger-Westphal nucleus via the posterior commissure.
On the other hand, the efferent pathway starts with the Edinger-Westphal nucleus projecting preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. These fibers exit the midbrain and travel along the oculomotor nerve. They then synapse on post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers in the ciliary ganglion. The post-ganglionic fibers, known as the short ciliary nerves, innervate the sphincter muscle of the pupils, causing them to constrict.
The result of these pathways is that when light is shone in one eye, both the direct pupillary light reflex (ipsilateral eye) and the consensual pupillary light reflex (contralateral eye) occur.
Lesions affecting the pupillary light reflex can be identified by comparing the direct and consensual reactions to light in both eyes. If the optic nerve of the first eye is damaged, both the direct and consensual reflexes in the second eye will be lost. However, when light is shone into the second eye, the pupil of the first eye will still constrict. If the optic nerve of the second eye is damaged, the second eye will constrict consensually when light is shone into the unaffected first eye. If the oculomotor nerve of the first eye is damaged, the first eye will have no direct light reflex, but the second eye will still constrict consensually. Finally, if the oculomotor nerve of the second eye is damaged, there will be no consensual constriction of the second eye when light is shone into the unaffected first eye.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a two day history of sudden onset loose watery stools accompanied by abdominal cramps and vomiting. Your consultant inquires about any indications of hypernatraemic dehydration.
Which of the following signs or symptoms are linked to hypernatraemia?Your Answer: Jittery movements
Explanation:If a child with gastroenteritis shows signs of jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyper-reflexia, or convulsions, hypernatraemic dehydration should be considered. Additional signs of hypernatraemic dehydration include drowsiness or coma.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
You are reviewing a 35-year-old man after receiving his most recent blood results. He is currently taking ramipril for his blood pressure, which is well controlled. He used to consume 30 units of alcohol per week until three months ago when he was advised to reduce his intake following his last set of blood tests. He has since remained completely abstinent. He has no identifiable risk factors for chronic liver disease. On examination, you can palpate a 1 cm liver edge below the right costal margin. His most recent two sets of blood results are provided below.
Blood results today:
Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (3-20)
ALT: 98 IU/L (5-40)
AST: 46 IU/L (5-40)
ALP: 126 IU/L (20-140)
GGT: 225 IU/L (5-40)
Blood results 3 months ago:
Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (3-20)
ALT: 126 IU/L (5-40)
AST: 39 IU/L (5-40)
ALP: 118 IU/L (20-140)
GGT: 35 IU/L (5-40)
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
Explanation:The diagnosis in this case is non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), which is characterized by fatty infiltration of the liver and is commonly associated with obesity. It is the most frequent cause of persistently elevated ALT levels in patients without risk factors for chronic liver disease.
Risk factors for developing NASH include obesity, particularly truncal obesity, diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia.
The clinical features of NASH can vary, with many patients being completely asymptomatic. However, some may experience right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver).
The typical biochemical profile seen in NASH includes elevated transaminases, with an AST:ALT ratio of less than 1. Often, there is an isolated elevation of ALT, and gamma-GT levels may be mildly elevated. In about one-third of patients, non-organ specific autoantibodies may be present. The presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is associated with insulin resistance and indicates a higher risk of rapid progression to advanced liver disease.
If the AST level is significantly elevated or if the gamma-GT level is markedly elevated, further investigation for other potential causes should be considered. A markedly elevated gamma-GT level may suggest alcohol abuse, although it can also be elevated in NASH alone.
Diagnosis of NASH is confirmed through a liver biopsy, which will reveal increased fat deposition and a necro-inflammatory response within the hepatocytes.
Currently, there is no specific treatment for NASH. However, weight loss and medications that improve insulin resistance, such as metformin, may help slow down the progression of the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department by her husband following a fall. The patient seems unsure about how the fall occurred. The patient's husband takes you aside to express his growing concern about the patient's memory and overall functioning in the past year. He has previously suggested visiting the doctor about it, but the patient has consistently refused, claiming to be perfectly fine. The patient's husband is worried that the patient might be suffering from dementia. What is the leading cause of dementia?
Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:Dementia is a condition characterized by a decline in cognitive abilities, such as memory, thinking, and reasoning, that is severe enough to interfere with daily functioning. There are several different causes of dementia, but the leading cause is Alzheimer’s disease. Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive brain disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. It is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 60-80% of cases.
Further Reading:
Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.
To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.
The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.
There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.
Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.
Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.
Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.
In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and itchy right eye. On examination, there is mild redness of the conjunctiva, and small bumps are visible on the inside of the eyelid. The eyelid is swollen, and there are a few small red spots on the white part of the eye. The eye is watery, and there is no pus. He recently had a mild cold. You diagnose him with viral conjunctivitis.
According to the current NICE guidance, which of the following should NOT be included in the management of this patient?Your Answer: The child should be excluded from school until the infection has resolved
Explanation:When it comes to managing viral conjunctivitis, it’s important to reassure the patient that most cases are self-limiting and don’t require antimicrobial treatment. In fact, viral conjunctivitis usually resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, there are some self-care measures that can help ease symptoms. These include cleaning the eyelids with cotton wool soaked in sterile saline or boiled and cooled water, applying cool compresses around the eye area, and using lubricating drops or artificial tears. It’s also important to avoid prescribing antibiotics if possible.
It’s crucial to inform the person that infective conjunctivitis is contagious and they should take steps to prevent spreading the infection to their other eye and other people. This includes washing hands frequently with soap and water, using separate towels and flannels, and avoiding close contact with others, especially if they are a healthcare professional or child-care provider. It’s worth noting that the infection can be contagious for up to 14 days from onset.
According to Public Health England, there is no recommended exclusion period from school, nursery, or childminders unless there is an outbreak or cluster of cases. It’s important to provide written information to the patient, explain the red flags for an urgent review, and advise them to seek further help if symptoms persist beyond 7 days. If the person returns with symptoms of conjunctivitis, it may be necessary to consider sending swabs for viral PCR and bacterial culture, as well as prescribing empirical topical antibiotics if they haven’t already been prescribed. If symptoms persist for more than 7-10 days after initiating treatment, it may be necessary to discuss with or refer to ophthalmology.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 42 year old male presents to the emergency department with intermittent blurred vision over the past few days. The patient reports feeling constantly fatigued and has gained over a stone in weight over the last 6-8 weeks. The patient was diagnosed with temporal arteritis 3 months ago. On examination, there is truncal obesity, supraclavicular fat pads, abdominal striae, and pitting edema to both ankles. The triage nurse has recorded the following observations:
Blood pressure: 174/92 mmHg
Pulse rate: 80 bpm
Respiration rate: 12 bpm
Oxygen saturations: 98% on air
Temperature: 37.1ºC
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Cushing syndrome
Explanation:Hypertension, hyperglycemia, weight gain, truncal obesity, supraclavicular fat pads, and striae are characteristic symptoms of a Cushing syndrome.
Further Reading:
Cushing’s syndrome is a clinical syndrome caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of glucocorticoids. The severity of symptoms can vary depending on the level of steroid exposure. There are two main classifications of Cushing’s syndrome: ACTH-dependent disease and non-ACTH-dependent disease. ACTH-dependent disease is caused by excessive ACTH production from the pituitary gland or ACTH-secreting tumors, which stimulate excessive cortisol production. Non-ACTH-dependent disease is characterized by excess glucocorticoid production independent of ACTH stimulation.
The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is exogenous steroid use. Pituitary adenoma is the second most common cause and the most common endogenous cause. Cushing’s disease refers specifically to Cushing’s syndrome caused by an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor.
Clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome include truncal obesity, supraclavicular fat pads, buffalo hump, weight gain, moon facies, muscle wasting and weakness, diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance, gonadal dysfunction, hypertension, nephrolithiasis, skin changes (such as skin atrophy, striae, easy bruising, hirsutism, acne, and hyperpigmentation in ACTH-dependent causes), depression and emotional lability, osteopenia or osteoporosis, edema, irregular menstrual cycles or amenorrhea, polydipsia and polyuria, poor wound healing, and signs related to the underlying cause, such as headaches and visual problems.
Diagnostic tests for Cushing’s syndrome include 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, and late-night salivary cortisol. Other investigations aim to assess metabolic disturbances and identify the underlying cause, such as plasma ACTH, full blood count (raised white cell count), electrolytes, and arterial blood gas analysis. Imaging, such as CT or MRI of the abdomen, chest, and/or pituitary, may be required to assess suspected adrenal tumors, ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors, and pituitary tumors. The choice of imaging is guided by the ACTH result, with undetectable ACTH and elevated serum cortisol levels indicating ACTH-independent Cushing’s syndrome and raised ACTH suggesting an ACTH-secreting tumor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
You are part of the resus team treating a 42-year-old female patient with a severe head injury after falling from a ladder. As the patient's GCS continues to decline, your consultant instructs you to prepare for rapid sequence induction. You gather the necessary supplies and prepare etomidate as the induction agent. Upon reviewing the patient's details, you observe that she weighs 65kg. What would be the appropriate dose of etomidate for this patient during RSI?
Your Answer: 21mg
Explanation:The recommended dose of etomidate for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is typically 0.3mg per kilogram of body weight. For example, a patient weighing 70 kilograms would receive a dose of 21mg (70 x 0.3 = 21mg). This dosage falls within the accepted range of 0.15-0.3 mg/kg as suggested by the British National Formulary (BNF). Therefore, the only option within this range is the fourth option.
Further Reading:
There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.
Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.
Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.
Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.
Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old Emergency Medicine Resident presents after a night shift, having experienced a needle-stick injury while suturing a laceration with a flat-bladed suture needle.
Which SINGLE statement is true regarding their care?Your Answer: The risk of contracting hepatitis C from a hepatitis C positive source patient is between 0.3-1%
Correct Answer: More than 90% of people with hepatitis C can now be cured
Explanation:The risk of acquiring HIV from an HIV positive source patient ranges from 0.2% to 0.5%. On the other hand, the risk of contracting Hepatitis C from a Hepatitis C positive source patient is estimated to be between 3% and 10%.
When it comes to post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV, it is crucial to administer it within 72 hours after a needle-stick injury. The effectiveness of this prophylaxis decreases with time, so it should be given as soon as possible after the incident. For detailed guidelines on post-exposure prophylaxis, please refer to the DOH guidelines.
Unfortunately, there is currently no post-exposure prophylaxis available for Hepatitis C. However, there is a class of antiviral medications called nucleotide polymerase inhibitors that have revolutionized the treatment of Hepatitis C. These medications, such as sofosbuvir and daclatasvir, have shown remarkable efficacy in curing more than 90% of people with Hepatitis C. Moreover, they are easier to tolerate and have shorter treatment courses, making them a significant advancement in Hepatitis C treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 60-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She has had her bowels open four times in the past 24 hours. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable with a pulse of 80 bpm and a BP of 120/77. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there is no obvious source of anorectal bleeding on rectal examination.
Which risk assessment tool is recommended by the British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) guidelines to assess the severity of stable lower gastrointestinal bleeds?Your Answer: Oakland score
Explanation:The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.
When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).
For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.
Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.
Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.
If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.
If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.
If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.
Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.
In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
You are conducting a research project and audit based on patients who presented to the emergency department with back pain and were subsequently diagnosed with a ruptured aortic aneurysm. As part of the audit, you need to collect the ages of all patients in the study. What steps would you take before starting the research to ensure the appropriate use and protection of patient data throughout the course of the project?
Your Answer: Submit a Caldicott request
Explanation:If you are conducting research or an audit that involves using patient identifiable information, you must submit a Caldicott request to the designated Caldicott guardian for the trust.
Further Reading:
Principles of Medical Ethics:
1. Autonomy: Competent adults have the right to make informed decisions about their own medical care.
2. Beneficence: Healthcare professionals should take actions that serve the best interests of patients.
3. Non-maleficence: Healthcare professionals should not take actions that may injure or harm patients.
4. Justice: Healthcare professionals should take actions that are fair and equitable to both the individual and society as a whole.Confidentiality:
1. Use minimum necessary personal information and consider anonymizing information if possible.
2. Manage and protect personal information to prevent improper access, disclosure, or loss.
3. Understand and adhere to information governance appropriate to your role.
4. Comply with the law when handling personal information.
5. Share relevant information for direct care unless the patient objects.
6. Obtain explicit consent to disclose identifiable information for purposes other than care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or justified in the public interest.
7. Inform patients about disclosures of personal information they would not reasonably expect, unless not practicable or undermines the purpose of the disclosure.
8. Support patients in accessing their information and respecting their legal rights.Obtaining Patient’s Consent for Disclosure:
– Consent should be obtained for disclosing personal information for purposes other than direct care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or not appropriate or practicable.
Situations Where Patient Consent is Not Required for Disclosure:
– Adults at risk of or suffering abuse or neglect, as required by law.
– Adults lacking capacity, if neglect or harm is suspected, unless not overall beneficial to the patient.
– When required by law or approved through a statutory process.
– When justified in the public interest, such as for the prevention, detection, or prosecution of serious crime, patient’s fitness to drive, serious communicable disease, or posing a serious risk to others through being unfit for work.Confidentiality Following a Patient’s Death:
– Respect the patient’s confidentiality even after their death.
– If the patient previously requested not to share personal information with those close to them, abide by their wishes.
– Be considerate, sensitive, and responsive to those close to the patient, providing as much information as possible.The Law & Caldicott Guardians:
Data Protection Act:
– Sets rules and standards for the use and handling of personal data by organizations.
– Personal data must be used fairly, lawfully, transparently, and for specified purposes.
– Individuals have rights -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to assess the patient and initiate her treatment.
What condition will she develop if she goes untreated?Your Answer: Korsakoff psychosis
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional features may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.
The condition is caused by capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These changes can be visualized using MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).
Patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy should receive parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Oral thiamine should be administered after the parenteral therapy.
It is important to note that in patients with chronic thiamine deficiency, the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine can trigger the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old girl presents accompanied by her Mom. She suffers from asthma for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler as needed. She has had a runny nose for the past few days and has developed wheezing this evening.
Which ONE characteristic indicates acute severe asthma in this age range?Your Answer: Oxygen saturation of 93%
Correct Answer: Use of accessory muscles
Explanation:The presence of certain clinical features can indicate the possibility of acute severe asthma in children over the age of 5. These features include oxygen saturations below 92%, peak flow measurements below 50% of what is expected, a heart rate exceeding 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute, and the use of accessory muscles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 35-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department, complaining of feeling unwell for the past 48 hours. After obtaining the patient's medical history, you suspect carbon monoxide poisoning. What is the primary intervention in managing patients with carbon monoxide poisoning?
Your Answer: 100% oxygen
Explanation:In managing patients with carbon monoxide poisoning, the primary intervention is providing 100% oxygen. This is because carbon monoxide has a higher affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. By administering 100% oxygen, the patient is able to displace carbon monoxide from hemoglobin and increase oxygen levels in the blood, which is crucial for the patient’s recovery.
Further Reading:
Carbon monoxide (CO) is a dangerous gas that is produced by the combustion of hydrocarbon fuels and can be found in certain chemicals. It is colorless and odorless, making it difficult to detect. In England and Wales, there are approximately 60 deaths each year due to accidental CO poisoning.
When inhaled, carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin in the blood, forming carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb). It has a higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen, causing a left-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve and resulting in tissue hypoxia. This means that even though there may be a normal level of oxygen in the blood, it is less readily released to the tissues.
The clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity can vary depending on the severity of the poisoning. Mild or chronic poisoning may present with symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and weakness. More severe poisoning can lead to intoxication, personality changes, breathlessness, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, seizures, blurred vision or blindness, deafness, extrapyramidal features, coma, or even death.
To help diagnose domestic carbon monoxide poisoning, there are four key questions that can be asked using the COMA acronym. These questions include asking about co-habitees and co-occupants in the house, whether symptoms improve outside of the house, the maintenance of boilers and cooking appliances, and the presence of a functioning CO alarm.
Typical carboxyhaemoglobin levels can vary depending on whether the individual is a smoker or non-smoker. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers may have levels below 10%. Symptomatic individuals usually have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%.
When managing carbon monoxide poisoning, the first step is to administer 100% oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered for individuals with a COHb concentration of over 20% and additional risk factors such as loss of consciousness, neurological signs, myocardial ischemia or arrhythmia, or pregnancy. Other management strategies may include fluid resuscitation, sodium bicarbonate for metabolic acidosis, and mannitol for cerebral edema.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A patient with a previous history of painless rectal bleeding episodes is found to have a Meckel's diverticulum during a colonoscopy.
Which ONE statement about Meckel's diverticulum is accurate?Your Answer: They receive their blood supply from the mesentery of the ileum
Explanation:A Meckel’s diverticulum is a leftover part of the vitellointestinal duct, which is no longer needed in the body. It is the most common abnormality in the gastrointestinal tract, found in about 2% of people. Interestingly, it is twice as likely to occur in men compared to women.
When a Meckel’s diverticulum is present, it is usually located in the lower part of the small intestine, specifically within 60-100 cm (2 feet) of the ileocaecal valve. These diverticula are typically 3-6 cm (approximately 2 inches) long and may have a larger opening than the ileum.
Meckel’s diverticula are often discovered incidentally, especially during an appendectomy. Most of the time, they do not cause any symptoms. However, they can lead to complications such as bleeding (25-50% of cases), intestinal blockage (10-40% of cases), diverticulitis, or perforation.
These diverticula run in the opposite direction of the intestine’s natural folds but receive their blood supply from the ileum mesentery. They can be identified by a specific blood vessel called the vitelline artery. Typically, they are lined with the same type of tissue as the ileum, but they often contain abnormal tissue, with gastric tissue being the most common (50%) and pancreatic tissue being the second most common (5%). In rare cases, colonic or jejunal tissue may be present.
To remember some key facts about Meckel’s diverticulum, the rule of 2s can be helpful:
– It is found in 2% of the population.
– It is more common in men, with a ratio of 2:1 compared to women.
– It is located 2 feet away from the ileocaecal valve.
– It is approximately 2 inches long.
– It often contains two types of abnormal tissue: gastric and pancreatic.
– The most common age for clinical presentation is 2 years old. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 62-year-old man with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue. His arthritis is well managed with sulfasalazine. His blood test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 9.8 g/dl (11.5-15.5 g/dl)
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 80 fl (75-87 fl)
Platelets: 176 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
Serum Iron: 5 mmol/l (10-28 mmol/l)
Total Iron-Binding Capacity (TIBC): 35 mmol/l (45-72 mmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Explanation:Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that can occur in various chronic conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, tuberculosis, malignancy, malnutrition, hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, chronic kidney disease, and chronic liver disease. The underlying mechanisms of this type of anaemia are complex and not fully understood, with multiple contributing factors involved. One important mediator in inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis is interleukin-6 (IL-6). Increased levels of IL-6 lead to the production of hepcidin, a hormone that regulates iron balance. Hepcidin prevents the release of iron from the reticulo-endothelial system and affects other aspects of iron metabolism.
Anaemia of chronic disease typically presents as a normochromic, normocytic anaemia, although it can also be microcytic. It is characterized by reduced serum iron, reduced transferrin saturation, and reduced total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). However, the serum ferritin levels are usually normal or increased. Distinguishing anaemia of chronic disease from iron-deficiency anaemia can be challenging, but in iron-deficiency anaemia, the TIBC is typically elevated, and serum ferritin is usually low.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 72-year-old woman comes in with a reddish-brown discharge from her vagina. She has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for the past ten years and had regular withdrawal bleeds until three years ago.
What is the MOST suitable initial investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:postmenopausal bleeding should always be treated as a potential malignancy until proven otherwise. The first step in investigating postmenopausal bleeding is a transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS). This method effectively assesses the risk of endometrial cancer by measuring the thickness of the endometrium.
In postmenopausal women, the average endometrial thickness is much thinner compared to premenopausal women. A thicker endometrium indicates a higher likelihood of endometrial cancer. Currently, in the UK, an endometrial thickness threshold of 5 mm is used. If the thickness exceeds this threshold, there is a 7.3% chance of endometrial cancer being present.
For women with postmenopausal bleeding, if the endometrial thickness is uniformly less than 5 mm, the likelihood of endometrial cancer is less than 1%. However, in cases deemed clinically high-risk, additional investigations such as hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy should be performed.
The definitive diagnosis of endometrial cancer is made through histological examination. If the endometrial thickness exceeds 5 mm, an endometrial biopsy is recommended to confirm the presence of cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing who has experienced a head injury. They are uncertain whether they should request a CT head scan for their patient. Which of the following is NOT among the clinical criteria for an urgent CT head scan in an elderly individual?
Your Answer: 1 episode of vomiting
Explanation:If an adult with a head injury experiences more than one episode of vomiting, it is recommended to undergo a CT scan of the head. There are several criteria for an urgent CT scan in individuals with a head injury, including a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment in the emergency department (ED), a GCS score of less than 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture (such as haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, or Battle’s sign), post-traumatic seizure, new focal neurological deficit, and being on anticoagulation medication. If any of these signs are present, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour, except for patients on anticoagulation medication who should undergo a CT scan within 8 hours if none of the other signs are present. However, if a patient on anticoagulation medication has any of the other signs, the CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.
Further Reading:
Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
– GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
– GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– Post-traumatic seizure
– New focal neurological deficit
– > 1 episode of vomitingIndications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
– Suspicion of non-accidental injury
– Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
– GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
– Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
– At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– New focal neurological deficit
– For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
– Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
– Abnormal drowsiness
– Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
– Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 4 week old female is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. They inform you that the patient had vomited a few times after feeds over the past week, but in the last day or two, the patient has been vomiting 30-45 minutes after every feed. The vomiting is non-bilious and projectile. You observe that the child is solely bottle fed.
What investigation would be the most helpful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Explanation:The diagnostic criteria for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) on ultrasound are as follows: the thickness of the pyloric muscle should be greater than 3 mm, the longitudinal length of the pylorus should be greater than 15-17 mm, the volume of the pylorus should be greater than 1.5 cm3, and the transverse diameter of the pylorus should be greater than 13 mm.
Further Reading:
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.
Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.
Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.
The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
-
-
Question 31
Correct
-
A 32 year old has undergone reduction of fracture-dislocation to the right shoulder under procedural sedation. Following the reduction, the patient reports feeling nauseated and subsequently vomits. What is the most significant risk factor for postoperative nausea and vomiting?
Your Answer: Female gender
Explanation:The most significant factor in predicting postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is being female. Females are three times more likely than males to experience PONV. Additionally, not smoking increases the risk of PONV by about two times. Having a history of motion sickness, PONV, or both also approximately doubles the risk of PONV. Age is another factor, with older adults being less likely to suffer from PONV. In children, those below 3 years of age have a lower risk of PONV compared to those older than 3.
Further Reading:
postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is a common occurrence following procedures performed under sedation or anesthesia. It can be highly distressing for patients. Several risk factors have been identified for PONV, including female gender, a history of PONV or motion sickness, non-smoking status, patient age, use of volatile anesthetics, longer duration of anesthesia, perioperative opioid use, use of nitrous oxide, and certain types of surgery such as abdominal and gynecological procedures.
To manage PONV, antiemetics are commonly used. These medications work by targeting different receptors in the body. Cyclizine and promethazine are histamine H1-receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine and help reduce nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of serotonin and is effective in preventing and treating PONV. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of dopamine and helps alleviate symptoms of nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide is also a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist and a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, providing dual action against PONV. It is also a 5-HT4 receptor agonist, which helps improve gastric emptying and reduces the risk of PONV.
Assessment and management of PONV involves a comprehensive approach. Healthcare professionals need to assess the patient’s risk factors for PONV and take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. This may include selecting the appropriate anesthesia technique, using antiemetics prophylactically, and providing adequate pain control. In cases where PONV does occur, prompt treatment with antiemetics should be initiated to alleviate symptoms and provide relief to the patient. Close monitoring of the patient’s condition and response to treatment is essential to ensure effective management of PONV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
You are part of the team managing a pediatric trauma patient in the resuscitation room. You are assisting the attending physician who is performing rapid sequence induction. The attending physician asks you to apply cricoid pressure. What is the recommended amount of pressure that should be applied to the cricoid?
Your Answer: 30-40 Newtons
Explanation:To prevent the aspiration of gastric contents, it is recommended to apply a force of 30-40 Newtons to the cricoid cartilage during cricoid pressure.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
-
-
Question 33
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man is brought in to the Emergency Department by his wife. He is experiencing multiple episodes of vertigo, each lasting almost all day, before resolving spontaneously. He usually vomits during the attacks and complains of a sensation of fullness in his ears. He also states that his hearing has been worse than usual recently, and he is also experiencing symptoms of tinnitus.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Meniere’s disease
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear due to changes in fluid volume within the vestibular labyrinth. This leads to the progressive distension of the labyrinth, known as endolymphatic hydrops, which causes damage to the vestibular system and the cochlea. The classic symptoms associated with Meniere’s disease are vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus.
The main clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that typically last for 2-3 hours. These episodes are usually shorter than 24 hours in duration. Hearing loss, which is often gradual and affects only one ear, is also a common symptom. Tinnitus, a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears, is frequently associated with Meniere’s disease. Other symptoms may include a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ears, as well as nausea and vomiting. Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, may occur away from the side of the lesion. Meniere’s disease is more prevalent in individuals who suffer from migraines.
The management of Meniere’s disease aims to alleviate acute attacks, reduce their severity and frequency, and improve hearing while minimizing the impact of tinnitus. If Meniere’s disease is suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist.
During acute attacks, medications such as prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, and cyclizine can help reduce nausea and vertigo symptoms. If vomiting is present, buccal or intramuscular administration of these medications may be necessary. In severe cases, hospital admission may be required to prevent dehydration.
For long-term prevention, lifestyle measures can be beneficial. Avoiding caffeine, chocolate, alcohol, and tobacco is recommended. Excessive fatigue should also be avoided. Following a low-salt diet may be helpful. Betahistine, a medication that initially starts at a dose of 16 mg three times a day, can be used for prophylaxis to reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. Diuretics may also be beneficial, but they are typically not recommended for primary care use.
Overall, the management of Meniere’s disease involves a combination of lifestyle changes and medication to control symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 25 year old female presents to the emergency department with a sore throat, fever, altered voice, and difficulty opening her mouth. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a peritonsillar abscess and decide to perform a needle aspiration. What is a well-known complication of this procedure?
Your Answer: Accidental puncture of external carotid artery
Correct Answer: Accidental puncture of internal carotid artery
Explanation:The internal carotid artery is situated approximately 2.5 cm behind and to the side of the tonsil. When performing an aspiration procedure for a peritonsillar abscess, there is a risk of puncturing this artery. In the UK, it is common for emergency department doctors to refer the task of draining a peritonsillar abscess to the on-call ENT team due to their lack of familiarity and experience with the procedure. However, the RCEM learning platform considers the management of uncomplicated peritonsillar abscess to be within the scope of emergency department practice, making it important for doctors to be knowledgeable about the procedure and its potential complications. It is worth noting that Lemierre’s syndrome, which is infective thrombophlebitis of the jugular vein, is a complication of deep neck infections and not directly related to the aspiration procedure.
Further Reading:
A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a collection of pus that forms between the palatine tonsil and the pharyngeal muscles. It is often a complication of acute tonsillitis and is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The exact cause of a peritonsillar abscess is not fully understood, but it is believed to occur when infection spreads beyond the tonsillar capsule or when small salivary glands in the supratonsillar space become blocked.
The most common causative organisms for a peritonsillar abscess include Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobic organisms. Risk factors for developing a peritonsillar abscess include smoking, periodontal disease, male sex, and a previous episode of the condition.
Clinical features of a peritonsillar abscess include severe throat pain, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), fever, headache, drooling of saliva, bad breath, painful swallowing, altered voice, ear pain on the same side, neck stiffness, and swelling of the soft palate. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation, but imaging scans such as CT or ultrasound may be used to assess for complications or determine the best site for drainage.
Treatment for a peritonsillar abscess involves pain relief, intravenous antibiotics to cover for both aerobic and anaerobic organisms, intravenous fluids if swallowing is difficult, and drainage of the abscess either through needle aspiration or incision and drainage. Tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence. Complications of a peritonsillar abscess can include sepsis, spread to deeper neck tissues leading to necrotizing fasciitis or retropharyngeal abscess, airway compromise, recurrence of the abscess, aspiration pneumonia, erosion into major blood vessels, and complications related to the causative organism. All patients with a peritonsillar abscess should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for further management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an excessive amount of one of his prescribed medications. Upon further inquiry, you uncover that he has overdosed on quetiapine. You consult with your supervisor about the case, and she clarifies that the symptoms of this type of poisoning are caused by the blocking of central and peripheral acetylcholine receptors.
What is one of the clinical effects that arises from the blockade of central acetylcholine receptors?Your Answer: Miosis
Correct Answer: Tremor
Explanation:Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. These drugs are commonly used in clinical practice and include antihistamines, typical and atypical antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antispasmodics, antiemetics, antiparkinsonian agents, antimuscarinics, and certain plants. When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in the central and peripheral systems.
The central effects of anticholinergic drugs result in an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma or seizures. On the other hand, the peripheral effects can vary and may include dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 36
Correct
-
A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only passed a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 48 hours, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
Which of the following is NOT a primary renal cause of AKI?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body and disrupts the balance of fluids and electrolytes. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.
The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases that develop outside of healthcare settings are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These causes typically involve low blood pressure associated with conditions like sepsis and fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated.
Pre-renal:
– Volume depletion (e.g., severe bleeding, excessive vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
– Oedematous states (e.g., heart failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
– Low blood pressure (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
– Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe heart failure, arrhythmias)
– Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, abdominal aortic aneurysm
– Renal artery stenosis
– Hepatorenal syndromeIntrinsic renal:
– Glomerular diseases (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
– Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged lack of blood supply
– Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
– Vascular diseases (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
– EclampsiaPost-renal:
– Kidney stones
– Blood clot
– Papillary necrosis
– Urethral stricture
– Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
– Bladder tumor
– Radiation fibrosis
– Pelvic malignancy
– Retroperitoneal -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 37
Correct
-
A 60-year-old woman comes in sweating and in distress, complaining of abdominal discomfort and feeling nauseous. She has a history of excessive alcohol consumption and has just completed a weekend of heavy drinking. During the examination, there is significant tenderness in her abdomen, particularly in the upper middle area, and bruising is noticeable around her belly button and on the sides of her abdomen.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause self-digestion of the organ.
The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Many cases are also of unknown origin. To remember the various causes, the mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ can be helpful:
– I: Idiopathic
– G: Gallstones
– E: Ethanol
– T: Trauma
– S: Steroids
– M: Mumps
– A: Autoimmune
– S: Scorpion stings
– H: Hyperlipidemia/hypercalcemia
– E: ERCP
– D: DrugsThe clinical features of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting, referral of pain to specific dermatomes (or shoulder tip via the phrenic nerve), fever/sepsis, epigastric tenderness, jaundice, and signs such as Gray-Turner sign (ecchymosis of the flank) and Cullen sign (ecchymosis of the peri-umbilical area).
The stimulation of the thoracic splanchnic nerves is responsible for the referred pain to the T6-10 dermatomes that is sometimes observed in pancreatitis and other pancreatic disorders.
When investigating acute pancreatitis in the emergency department, it is important to perform blood glucose testing, a full blood count (which often shows an elevated white cell count), urea and electrolyte testing, calcium testing, liver function tests, coagulation screening, serum amylase testing (which should be more than 5 times the normal limit), an ECG, arterial blood gas analysis, and an abdominal X-ray.
Treatment for acute pancreatitis involves providing the patient with oxygen, adequate pain relief (including antiemetics), and fluid resuscitation. A nasogastric tube and urinary catheter should be inserted, and fluid balance should be carefully monitored. Most patients require management in a high dependency unit (HDU) or intensive care unit (ICU) setting.
Acute pancreatitis has a significant mortality rate, and complications are common. Early complications may include severe sepsis and circulatory shock, acute renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, hypocalcemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome and pancreatic encephalopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
-
-
Question 38
Correct
-
You receive a needlestick injury after drawing blood from a 45-year-old patient. The patient is visiting due to experiencing frequent heart palpitations. Her only significant medical history is hypothyroidism, for which she is prescribed thyroxine.
What should be your initial course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Wash the wound with soap and water and gently encourage bleeding
Explanation:First and foremost, the immediate concern is providing first aid for the wound. It is important to wash the wound with soap (or chlorhexidine) and water, while gently encouraging bleeding. It is crucial not to scrub or suck the wound. Additionally, if there are any splashes or body fluid that come into contact with the eyes or mouth, they should be thoroughly washed.
For all healthcare workers who experience a needlestick injury, it is necessary to have a baseline serum sample taken and stored. This should be arranged through occupational health. The subsequent management of the injury depends on the risk of blood-borne virus transmission. This risk is determined by factors such as the source patient’s history (e.g. IV drug use), the circumstances of the injury (e.g. visible blood on the device, use of personal protection equipment), and the healthcare worker’s own characteristics (e.g. response to hepatitis B vaccination).
If the patient consents after appropriate counseling, blood may be taken from the source patient for blood-borne virus testing. However, it is important to note that the injured healthcare worker should not be responsible for counseling and obtaining consent from the patient. Lastly, all needlestick injuries should be reported to the Health Protection Agency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 39
Correct
-
A 4 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a two day history of sudden onset watery diarrhea accompanied by stomach cramps and feelings of nausea. Your consultant inquires if you intend to submit a stool sample for microbiological analysis. What would be a reason to send a stool sample for microbiological testing?
Your Answer: Mucus present in stool
Explanation:Stool samples are recommended for children with diarrhea who have recently traveled, show signs of mucus or blood in their stools, or have had diarrhea for more than a week. This patient’s symptoms align with gastroenteritis. While stool microbiological testing is not typically necessary, it should be conducted if any of the following conditions are present: recent travel, prolonged diarrhea, immunocompromised state, suspected septicemia, presence of blood and/or mucus in the stool, or uncertainty regarding the diagnosis.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 40
Correct
-
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following a fall in the playground at daycare. She has a bruise and a small scrape on her right knee and is walking with a slight limp, but she can put weight on her leg. Her pain is assessed using a numerical rating scale, and the triage nurse informs you that she has 'mild discomfort'.
According to the RCEM guidance, which of the following analgesics is recommended as a loading dose for the treatment of mild discomfort in a child of this age?Your Answer: Oral paracetamol 20 mg/kg
Explanation:A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.
To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.
The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.
To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
-
-
Question 41
Correct
-
A 25-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department with severe head injuries after jumping from a bridge in a suicide attempt. The following neurological deficits are observed:
- Contralateral lower limb motor deficit
- Bladder incontinence
- Ipsilateral motor and sensory deficits
- Dysarthria
Which brain herniation syndrome is most consistent with these findings?Your Answer: Subfalcine herniation
Explanation:Subfalcine herniation occurs when a mass in one side of the brain causes the cingulate gyrus to be pushed under the falx cerebri. This condition often leads to specific neurological symptoms. These symptoms include a motor deficit in the lower limb on the opposite side of the body, bladder incontinence, motor and sensory deficits on the same side of the body as the herniation, and difficulty with speech (dysarthria).
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 42
Correct
-
A 65-year-old patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease three years ago has experienced a rapid deterioration in her overall functioning. She has been experiencing a progressive decline in her cognitive abilities, with severe memory impairment. Additionally, she has been experiencing prominent visual hallucinations and frequent fluctuations in her level of attention and alertness. Although her tremor is relatively mild, it is still present.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy Bodies
Explanation:The Parkinson-plus syndromes are a group of neurodegenerative disorders that share similar features with Parkinson’s disease but also have additional clinical characteristics that set them apart from idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (iPD). These syndromes include Multiple System Atrophy (MSA), Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP), Corticobasal degeneration (CBD), and Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB).
Multiple System Atrophy (MSA) is a less common condition than iPD and PSP. It is characterized by the loss of cells in multiple areas of the nervous system. MSA progresses rapidly, often leading to wheelchair dependence within 3-4 years of diagnosis. Some distinguishing features of MSA include autonomic dysfunction, bladder control problems, erectile dysfunction, blood pressure changes, early-onset balance problems, neck or facial dystonia, and a high-pitched voice.
To summarize the distinguishing features of the Parkinson-plus syndromes compared to iPD, the following table provides a comparison:
iPD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Typically starts at rest on one side of the body
– Levodopa response: Excellent response
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Late in the disease
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingMSA:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingPSP:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Less common, if present affects both sides
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Personality changes, depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1 year
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, difficulty in looking downwardsCBD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 43
Correct
-
A 7 year old girl is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. They inform you that she hasn't been feeling well for the past couple of days, complaining of fatigue, nausea, and excessive thirst. Today, the parents decided to bring her to the ED as she has become extremely lethargic. Upon examination, you notice that the patient appears pale and has cool extremities. The triage observations and tests are as follows:
Blood pressure: 85/50
Pulse: 145 bpm
Respiration rate: 30 bpm
Oxygen saturations: 94% on air
Capillary blood glucose: 26 mmol/l
Which of the following actions should be prioritized?Your Answer: Administer 0.9% sodium chloride fluid bolus of 10 ml/kg
Explanation:When children with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) show signs of shock such as low blood pressure, fast heart rate, and poor peripheral perfusion, it is important for clinicians to consider DKA as a possible cause. In these cases, the initial treatment should involve giving a fluid bolus of 10 ml/kg to help stabilize the patient.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
-
-
Question 44
Correct
-
A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presented to the emergency department with a sudden onset severe occipital headache accompanied by vomiting and neck stiffness. There is no reported history of head injury. Upon clinical examination, his temperature is recorded as 37ºC, respiratory rate at 18 per minute, pulse at 88 beats per minute, and blood pressure at 160/100. It is observed that his right eye is laterally and inferiorly deviated, with a dilated pupil and drooping of the right upper eyelid.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer: CT head scan
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH).
When assessing patients who present with an SAH, there may be focal neurological signs that can indicate the potential location of the aneurysm. Common sites for aneurysms include the bifurcation of the middle cerebral artery, the junction of the anterior communicating cerebral artery, and the junction of the posterior communicating artery with the internal carotid artery. If there is complete or partial palsy of the oculomotor nerve, it suggests the rupture of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm.
While hypertension is a risk factor for SAH, a significant increase in blood pressure may occur as a reflex response following the haemorrhage.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a CT head scan, which can detect over 95% of cases if performed within the first 24 hours. The sensitivity of the scan increases to nearly 100% if done within 6 hours of symptom onset. If the CT head scan is negative and there are no contraindications, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed to diagnose SAH. It is recommended to perform the LP at least 12 hours after the onset of headache. It is important to note that approximately 3% of patients with a negative CT scan will be confirmed to have had an SAH after undergoing an LP.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine dipstick is performed, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrites. Her only past medical history of note is benign bladder enlargement, for which she takes oxybutynin. You make a diagnosis of a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of men with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to offer an immediate prescription of antibiotics. However, certain factors should be taken into account. This includes considering previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria.
Before starting antibiotics, it is important to obtain a midstream urine sample from men and send it for culture and susceptibility testing. This will help determine the most appropriate choice of antibiotic.
Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the initial choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.
The first-choice antibiotics for men with lower UTI are trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 7 days, or nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 7 days if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.
If there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms after at least 48 hours on the first-choice antibiotics, or if the first-choice is not suitable, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses and follow the recommendations in the NICE guidelines on pyelonephritis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing or prostatitis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing. The choice of antibiotic should be based on recent culture and susceptibility results.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 46
Correct
-
A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of progressively worsening weakness in her right arm. She denies any history of speech difficulties, neck pain, or issues with hand coordination. On examination, there is noticeable muscle wasting in her right upper limb with an upward plantar response. Fasciculations are also observed in her right forearm. There is no apparent sensory loss.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)
Explanation:Motor Neuron Disease (MND) is a group of degenerative diseases that primarily involve the loss of specific neurons in the motor cortex, cranial nerve nuclei, and anterior horn cells. Both upper and lower motor neurons are affected in this condition. It is important to note that MND does not cause any sensory or sphincter disturbances, and it does not affect eye movements.
MND is relatively uncommon, with a prevalence of approximately 5-7 cases per 100,000 individuals. The median age of onset in the United Kingdom is 60 years, and unfortunately, it often leads to fatality within 2 to 4 years of diagnosis. The treatment for MND mainly focuses on providing supportive care through a multidisciplinary approach.
There are four distinct clinical patterns observed in MND. The first pattern, known as Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), accounts for up to 50% of MND cases. It involves the loss of motor neurons in both the motor cortex and the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Clinically, individuals with ALS experience weakness and exhibit signs of both upper and lower motor neuron involvement.
The second pattern, called Progressive Bulbar Palsy, occurs in up to 10% of MND cases. This condition specifically affects cranial nerves IX-XII, resulting in Bulbar and pseudobulbar palsy.
Progressive Muscular Atrophy is the third pattern, also seen in up to 10% of MND cases. It primarily affects the anterior horn cells, leading to the presence of only lower motor neuron signs.
Lastly, Primary Lateral Sclerosis involves the loss of Betz cells in the motor cortex. Clinically, individuals with this pattern exhibit upper motor neuron signs, including marked spastic leg weakness and pseudobulbar palsy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 47
Correct
-
You evaluate a 62-year-old woman in the Emergency Room with intense central chest discomfort. She is extremely worried as she experienced a heart attack (MI) 8 weeks ago. Today the pain is sharp and is alleviated by leaning forward. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 37.9°C and she has pitting edema in both ankles. The ECG shows Q waves in the anterolateral leads.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Dressler’s syndrome
Explanation:Dressler’s syndrome is a form of pericarditis that occurs within 2 to 10 weeks following a heart attack or cardiac surgery. It is distinguished by intense chest pain that is usually alleviated by assuming an upright position. Additionally, individuals may experience a mild fever, a pericardial rub, pulsus paradoxus, and indications of right ventricular failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
You evaluate a 30-year-old patient who has intentionally ingested a large amount of aspirin. The medical student on rotation in the emergency department inquires about the administration of activated charcoal. What are the indications for using activated charcoal in cases of salicylate overdose?
Your Answer: Presentation within 1 hour of ingestion and ingested dose >500 mg/kg
Correct Answer: Presentation within 1 hour of ingestion and ingested dose >125 mg/kg
Explanation:Activated charcoal should be administered in cases of salicylate overdose if the patient arrives at the medical facility within one hour of ingestion and the amount ingested is greater than 125 mg per kilogram of body weight.
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma..
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
A 30-year-old doctor that works in your department has recently come back from a visit to India and has been having diarrhea 5-10 times per day for the past week. They are also experiencing mild stomach cramps and occasional fevers but have not vomited.
What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Traveller’s diarrhoea (TD) is a prevalent illness that affects travellers all around the globe. It is estimated that up to 50% of Europeans who spend two or more weeks in developing regions experience this condition. TD is characterized by the passage of three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period. Alongside this, individuals often experience abdominal cramps, nausea, and bloating.
Bacteria are the primary culprits behind approximately 80% of TD cases, while viruses and protozoa account for the remaining cases. Among the various organisms, Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is the most frequently identified cause.
In summary, TD is a common ailment that affects travellers, manifesting as loose stools, abdominal discomfort, and other associated symptoms. Bacterial infections, particularly ETEC, are the leading cause of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 50
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal discomfort and rectal bleeding. An abdominal CT scan is conducted and reveals a diagnosis of diverticulitis.
Which part of her large intestine is most likely to be impacted?Your Answer: Sigmoid colon
Explanation:Diverticulitis primarily affects the sigmoid colon in about 90% of cases. As a result, it is more commonly associated with pain in the left iliac fossa.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
-
-
Question 51
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of headaches. He recently started a new job and spends a significant amount of time on a computer. He admits to feeling more stressed than usual lately. He describes his headaches as a tight band around his head that sometimes extends into his neck. The headaches are more severe towards the end of the day and typically last for a couple of hours. He does not experience any aura, sensitivity to light, or nausea during an episode. The headaches occur approximately 4-5 days per month and are relieved by over-the-counter pain medication.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Episodic tension-type headache
Explanation:This patient’s history is indicative of episodic tension-type headache. Chronic tension-type headache is defined as experiencing headaches on more than 15 days per month.
Migraine with typical aura presents with temporary visual disturbances such as hemianopia or scintillating scotoma that spreads. Migraine without aura must meet the criteria set by the International Headache Society, which are outlined below:
1. The patient must have at least five attacks that meet criteria 2-4.
2. The duration of each headache attack should be between 4 and 72 hours.
3. The headache must have at least two of the following characteristics:
– Located on one side of the head
– Pulsating quality
– Moderate or severe pain intensity
– Aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity (e.g., walking or climbing stairs)
4. During the headache, the patient must experience at least one of the following:
– Nausea and/or vomiting
– Sensitivity to light (photophobia) and sound (phonophobia)
5. The headache should not be attributed to another disorder.Medication overuse headache is suspected when a patient uses multiple medications, often at low doses, without experiencing any relief from their headaches. Combination medications containing barbiturates, codeine, and caffeine are frequently involved. The diagnosis can only be confirmed when the symptoms improve after discontinuing the medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car crash and sustains severe facial injuries. Facial X-rays and CT scans show the presence of a Le Fort I fracture.
What is the most probable cause of this injury?Your Answer: A force directed in an upward direction against the lower teeth
Correct Answer: A force directed in a downward direction against the upper teeth
Explanation:Le Fort fractures are intricate fractures of the midface, which involve the maxillary bone and the surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the separation of the pterygomaxillary due to trauma. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening situations and disfigurement.
The causes of Le Fort fractures vary depending on the type of fracture. Common mechanisms include motor vehicle accidents, sports injuries, assaults, and falls from significant heights. Patients with Le Fort fractures often have concurrent head and cervical spine injuries. Additionally, they frequently experience other facial fractures, as well as neuromuscular injuries and dental avulsions.
The specific type of fracture sustained is determined by the direction of the force applied to the face. Le Fort type I fractures typically occur when a force is directed downward against the upper teeth. Le Fort type II fractures are usually the result of a force applied to the lower or mid maxilla. Lastly, Le Fort type III fractures are typically caused by a force applied to the nasal bridge and upper part of the maxilla.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old medical student has experienced a needlestick injury while working in the Emergency Department.
Select from the list of options below the single correct seroconversion rate for the specified pathogen.Your Answer: 0.3% for percutaneous exposure of a non-immune person to an HBeAg positive contact
Correct Answer: 0.3% for percutaneous exposure to HIV-infected blood
Explanation:The estimated rates of seroconversion are provided below:
– Percutaneous exposure of a non-immune individual to an HBeAg positive contact results in a seroconversion rate of approximately 30%.
– When exposed to HCV-infected blood with detectable RNA through percutaneous means, the seroconversion rate ranges from 0.5% to 1.8%.
– Mucocutaneous exposure to HIV-infected blood leads to a seroconversion rate of 0.1%.
– Lastly, percutaneous exposure to HIV-infected blood results in a seroconversion rate of 0.3%.
Please note that these rates are estimates and may vary depending on individual circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 54
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and persistent back pain a few days after spinal surgery. She has a temperature of 38.4°C and is highly sensitive over the area where the surgery was performed. During examination, she exhibits weakness in right knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
What is the preferred investigation to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: MRI spine
Explanation:Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.
The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.
When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.
Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.
A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
-
-
Question 55
Correct
-
You evaluate a patient who has developed Nelson's syndrome after undergoing a bilateral adrenalectomy 15 years ago.
Which ONE statement is NOT TRUE regarding this diagnosis?Your Answer: ACTH levels will be low
Explanation:Nelson’s syndrome is a rare condition that occurs many years after a bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome. It is believed to develop due to the loss of the normal negative feedback control that suppresses high cortisol levels. As a result, the hypothalamus starts producing CRH again, which stimulates the growth of a pituitary adenoma that produces adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
Only 15-20% of patients who undergo bilateral adrenalectomy will develop this condition, and it is now rarely seen as the procedure is no longer commonly performed.
The symptoms and signs of Nelson’s syndrome are related to the growth of the pituitary adenoma and the increased production of ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) from the adenoma. These may include headaches, visual field defects (up to 50% of cases), increased skin pigmentation, and the possibility of hypopituitarism.
ACTH levels will be significantly elevated (usually >500 ng/L). Thyroxine, TSH, gonadotrophin, and sex hormone levels may be low. Prolactin levels may be high, but not as high as with a prolactin-producing tumor. MRI or CT scanning can be helpful in identifying the presence of an expanding pituitary mass.
The treatment of choice for Nelson’s syndrome is trans-sphenoidal surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 56
Correct
-
A 40 year old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing difficulty swallowing a food bolus. However, the patient successfully swallows the bolus while being evaluated by the triage nurse. During the examination, you observe an enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most appropriate test for evaluating thyroid function?
Your Answer: TSH
Explanation:The best single test to evaluate thyroid function is TSH. Goitres can be associated with either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism, although hypothyroidism is more common. According to NICE guidelines, when there is suspicion of hypothyroidism, it is recommended to first check the TSH level. If the TSH level is above the normal range, then the free thyroxine (FT4) should be checked on the same sample. Similarly, in cases of suspected hyperthyroidism, it is advised to first check the TSH level. If the TSH level is below the normal range, then the free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) should be checked on the same sample.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 57
Correct
-
A 32 year old male attends the emergency department following a fall in which he sustained a minor head injury. You observe that the patient is a Ukrainian refugee and has recently arrived in the UK. During the assessment, you notice a significant goitre. Upon checking his thyroid function, it confirms hypothyroidism. What is the most probable reason for his hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Iodine deficiency
Explanation:Iodine deficiency is a widespread issue globally and is the leading cause of hypothyroidism worldwide. It is particularly prevalent in numerous African countries, as well as in developed nations such as Norway, Germany, Russia, and Ukraine. In the UK, however, autoimmune thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 58
Correct
-
A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
Select from the options below the one condition that is NOT currently a reportable illness.Your Answer: Leptospirosis
Explanation:The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations currently require the reporting of certain diseases. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 59
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left flank and extending to the groin. You suspect she may have ureteric colic.
What are the two types of drugs that can be used for conservative treatment as medical expulsive therapy?Your Answer: Alpha-blocker and calcium-channel blocker
Explanation:Conservative management of ureteric stones may involve the use of medical expulsive therapy (MET), which can be achieved through the administration of either an alpha-blocker or a calcium-channel blocker. This treatment aims to facilitate the natural passage of the stone during the observation period.
Research has shown that in adults, both alpha-blockers and calcium channel blockers have been effective in improving the passage of distal ureteric stones that are less than 10 mm in size, when compared to no treatment. Additionally, alpha-blockers have shown to be more effective than placebo in promoting stone passage. Alpha-blockers have also demonstrated more benefits than calcium channel blockers in terms of stone passage, as well as some advantages in terms of hospital stay and pain management. However, there was no significant difference in the time it took for the stone to pass or the overall quality of life.
Currently, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends alpha-blockers as the preferred choice for medical expulsive therapy. For more detailed information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 60
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man with a known history of Alzheimer's disease and a previous heart attack experiences urinary incontinence and a sudden decline in his cognitive function. He denies experiencing any abdominal pain or discomfort while urinating.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Explanation:Symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI) can be difficult to detect in elderly patients, especially those with dementia. Common signs like painful urination and abdominal discomfort may be absent. Instead, these patients often experience increased confusion, restlessness, and a decline in cognitive abilities. Therefore, if an elderly patient suddenly develops urinary incontinence and experiences a rapid deterioration in cognitive function, it is highly likely that they have a UTI.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 61
Correct
-
You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. As part of your treatment, a dose of adrenaline is given.
What is one alpha-adrenergic effect of adrenaline?Your Answer: Increased cerebral perfusion pressures
Explanation:The effects of adrenaline on alpha-adrenergic receptors result in the narrowing of blood vessels throughout the body, leading to increased pressure in the coronary and cerebral arteries. On the other hand, the effects of adrenaline on beta-adrenergic receptors enhance the strength of the heart’s contractions and increase the heart rate, which can potentially improve blood flow to the coronary and cerebral arteries. However, it is important to note that these positive effects may be counteracted by the simultaneous increase in oxygen consumption by the heart, the occurrence of abnormal heart rhythms, reduced oxygen levels due to abnormal blood flow patterns, impaired small blood vessel function, and worsened heart function following a cardiac arrest.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 62
Correct
-
A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department after a SCUBA dive. The patient complains of weakness and numbness in both legs. The symptoms initially began as pins and needles below the belly button on the left side, followed by weakness in the left leg shortly after surfacing from the dive. Within a few hours, the same symptoms developed on the right side, and now the patient is unable to walk due to extreme weakness. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. On examination, there is reduced sensation from 2 cm below the belly button, affecting both lower limbs entirely, and the patient has 0-1/5 MRC grade power in all lower limb movements bilaterally.
The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Heart rate: 84 bpm
Blood pressure: 126/82 mmHg
Respiratory rate: 16 bpm
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
Temperature: 36.7°C
What is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?Your Answer: High flow oxygen 15 L/min via non rebreather
Explanation:Decompression sickness often presents with symptoms such as paraplegia, tetraplegia, or hemiplegia. In the emergency department, the most crucial intervention is providing high flow oxygen at a rate of 15 L/min through a non-rebreather mask. This should be administered to all patients, regardless of their oxygen saturations. The definitive treatment for decompression sickness involves recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged promptly.
Further Reading:
Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.
Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.
Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.
Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.
Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.
Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
-
-
Question 63
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man comes in with a chief complaint of sudden vision loss in his right eye over the past couple of hours. During fundoscopic examination, you observe engorgement of the retinal veins and notice multiple flame-shaped hemorrhages and cotton wool spots scattered throughout the entire retina.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a condition that usually leads to painless, one-sided vision loss. When examining the retina, it may appear similar to a ‘pizza thrown against a wall’, with swollen retinal veins, swelling of the optic disc, numerous flame-shaped hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots. Hypertension is present in about 65% of CRVO cases and is more common in individuals aged 65 and above.
On the other hand, branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) typically affects only one section of the retina, resulting in visual field deficits in that specific quadrant rather than complete vision loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 64
Correct
-
A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being attacked by a snake while hiking in the mountains. The patient arrives in the emergency department appearing pale and sickly about 15 minutes after the attack and experiences vomiting during the initial assessment. You suspect the presence of systemic envenomation. What is the recommended minimum period of monitoring for individuals with suspected snake bite envenoming?
Your Answer: 24 hours
Explanation:Patients who have been bitten by a venomous snake, such as the adder in the UK, should be admitted to the hospital for a minimum of 24 hours. While most snake bites only cause localized symptoms, there is a small chance of life-threatening reactions to the venom. When patients arrive at the emergency department after a snake bite, they should undergo a quick assessment to determine the severity of the envenoming and receive resuscitation if necessary. If indicated, anti-venom should be administered. Following this, patients should be closely monitored for changes in blood pressure and the progression of envenoming for at least 24 hours.
Further Reading:
Snake bites in the UK are primarily caused by the adder, which is the only venomous snake species native to the country. While most adder bites result in minor symptoms such as pain, swelling, and inflammation, there have been cases of life-threatening illness and fatalities. Additionally, there are instances where venomous snakes that are kept legally or illegally also cause bites in the UK.
Adder bites typically occur from early spring to late autumn, with the hand being the most common site of the bite. Symptoms can be local or systemic, with local symptoms including sharp pain, tingling or numbness, and swelling that spreads proximally. Systemic symptoms may include spreading pain, tenderness, inflammation, regional lymph node enlargement, and bruising. In severe cases, anaphylaxis can occur, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and shock.
It is important for clinicians to be aware of the potential complications and complications associated with adder bites. These can include acute renal failure, pulmonary and cerebral edema, acute gastric dilatation, paralytic ileus, acute pancreatitis, and coma and seizures. Anaphylaxis symptoms can appear within minutes or be delayed for hours, and hypotension is a critical sign to monitor.
Initial investigations for adder bites include blood tests, ECG, and vital sign monitoring. Further investigations such as chest X-ray may be necessary based on clinical signs. Blood tests may reveal abnormalities such as leukocytosis, raised hematocrit, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and abnormal clotting profile. ECG changes may include tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, and ST segment changes.
First aid measures at the scene include immobilizing the patient and the bitten limb, avoiding aspirin and ibuprofen, and cleaning the wound site in the hospital. Tetanus prophylaxis should be considered. In cases of anaphylaxis, prompt administration of IM adrenaline is necessary. In the hospital, rapid assessment and appropriate resuscitation with intravenous fluids are required.
Antivenom may be indicated in cases of hypotension, systemic envenoming, ECG abnormalities, peripheral neutrophil leucocytosis, elevated serum creatine kinase or metabolic acidosis, and extensive or rapidly spreading local swelling. Zagreb antivenom is commonly used in the UK, with an initial dose of 8 mL
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 65
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman has a history of unstable relationships, excessive anger, fluctuating moods, uncertainty about her personal identity, self-harm, and impulsive behavior that causes harm.
Which of the following is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a range of clinical features. These include having unstable relationships, experiencing undue anger, and having variable moods. Individuals with this disorder often struggle with chronic boredom and may have doubts about their personal identity. They also tend to have an intolerance of being left alone and may engage in self-injury. Additionally, they exhibit impulsive behavior that can be damaging to themselves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 66
Correct
-
A 40 year old male has been brought into the ED during the late hours of the evening after being discovered unresponsive lying on the sidewalk. The paramedics initiated Cardiopulmonary resuscitation which has been ongoing since the patient's arrival in the ED. The patient's core temperature is documented at 28ºC. How frequently would you administer adrenaline to a patient with this core temperature during CPR?
Your Answer: Withhold adrenaline
Explanation:During CPR of a hypothermic patient, it is important to follow specific guidelines. If the patient’s core temperature is below 30ºC, resuscitation drugs, such as adrenaline, should be withheld. Once the core temperature rises above 30ºC, cardiac arrest drugs can be administered. However, if the patient’s temperature is between 30-35ºC, the interval for administering cardiac arrest drugs should be doubled. For example, adrenaline should be given every 6-10 minutes instead of the usual 3-5 minutes for a normothermic patient.
Further Reading:
Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.
ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.
Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.
Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
-
-
Question 67
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing for the past 6 months. Her dysphagia affects both solids and liquids and has been getting worse over time. Additionally, she has noticed that her fingers turn purple when exposed to cold temperatures. On examination, her fingers appear swollen and the skin over them is thickened. There are also visible telangiectasias.
Which of the following autoantibodies is most specific for the underlying condition in this case?Your Answer: Anti-centromere
Explanation:Scleroderma disorders are a group of connective tissue disorders that affect multiple systems in the body. These disorders are characterized by damage to endothelial cells, oxidative stress, inflammation around blood vessels, and the activation of fibroblasts leading to fibrosis. Autoantibodies also play a significant role in the development of these conditions.
Scleroderma, which refers to thickened skin, can also involve internal organs, resulting in a condition called systemic sclerosis. Systemic sclerosis can be further classified into two types: limited cutaneous involvement and diffuse involvement.
The cardinal features of limited cutaneous involvement, such as in CREST syndrome, include subcutaneous calcifications (calcinosis), Raynaud’s phenomenon leading to ischemia in the fingers or organs, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) or painful swallowing (odynophagia) due to oesophageal dysmotility, localized thickening and tightness of the skin in the fingers and toes (sclerodactyly), and abnormal dilatation of small blood vessels (telangiectasia).
In the case of the patient mentioned in this question, they present with progressive dysphagia and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Physical examination reveals sclerodactyly and telangiectasia. These findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis with limited cutaneous involvement. The most specific autoantibody associated with this condition is anti-centromere.
It is important to note that anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith antibodies are typically seen in systemic lupus erythematosus, while anti-Jo1 is associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis. Anti-SS-B (also known as anti-La antibody) is commonly found in Sjogren’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 68
Correct
-
A 45-year-old woman comes in with a painful sore on the bottom of her right foot. She has a history of diabetes and high blood pressure and takes metformin, ramipril, and aspirin. She has no known allergies to medications. The sore is located on the front part of the foot, next to the big toe.
Which nerve provides sensory innervation to the area where the sore is located?Your Answer: Medial plantar nerve
Explanation:The tibial nerve has three main sensory branches that provide sensory function. These branches include the medial plantar nerve, which supplies the skin on the medial sole and the medial three and a half toes. The lateral plantar nerve supplies the skin on the lateral sole and the lateral one and a half toes. Lastly, the medial calcaneal branches of the tibial nerve supply the skin over the heel. Overall, these branches play a crucial role in providing sensory supply to the sole of the foot.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 69
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman presents with right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. Her ROSIER score is 3.
According to the current NICE guidelines, what is the maximum time frame from the start of symptoms within which thrombolysis can be administered?Your Answer: 4.5 hours
Explanation:Alteplase (rt-pA) is a recommended treatment for acute ischaemic stroke in adults if it is initiated within 4.5 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms. It is crucial to exclude intracranial haemorrhage through appropriate imaging techniques before starting the treatment. The initial dose of alteplase is 0.9 mg/kg, with a maximum of 90 mg. This dose is administered intravenously over a period of 60 minutes. The first 10% of the dose is given through intravenous injection, while the remaining amount is administered through intravenous infusion. For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals aged 16 and above.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 70
Correct
-
A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to sudden confusion, severe headache, and problems with coordination. Upon initial assessment at triage, the patient's blood pressure is found to be significantly elevated at 224/126 mmHg. You suspect the presence of hypertensive encephalopathy. What is the primary treatment option for this condition?
Your Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:The primary treatment option for hypertensive encephalopathy, a condition characterized by sudden confusion, severe headache, and coordination problems due to significantly elevated blood pressure, is labetalol.
Further Reading:
A hypertensive emergency is characterized by a significant increase in blood pressure accompanied by acute or progressive damage to organs. While there is no specific blood pressure value that defines a hypertensive emergency, systolic blood pressure is typically above 180 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure is above 120 mmHg. The most common presentations of hypertensive emergencies include cerebral infarction, pulmonary edema, encephalopathy, and congestive cardiac failure. Less common presentations include intracranial hemorrhage, aortic dissection, and pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
The signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergencies can vary widely due to the potential dysfunction of every physiological system. Some common signs and symptoms include headache, nausea and/or vomiting, chest pain, arrhythmia, proteinuria, signs of acute kidney failure, epistaxis, dyspnea, dizziness, anxiety, confusion, paraesthesia or anesthesia, and blurred vision. Clinical assessment focuses on detecting acute or progressive damage to the cardiovascular, renal, and central nervous systems.
Investigations that are essential in evaluating hypertensive emergencies include U&Es (electrolyte levels), urinalysis, ECG, and CXR. Additional investigations may be considered depending on the suspected underlying cause, such as a CT head for encephalopathy or new onset confusion, CT thorax for suspected aortic dissection, and CT abdomen for suspected phaeochromocytoma. Plasma free metanephrines, urine total catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrine may be tested if phaeochromocytoma is suspected. Urine screening for cocaine and/or amphetamines may be appropriate in certain cases, as well as an endocrine screen for Cushing’s syndrome.
The management of hypertensive emergencies involves cautious reduction of blood pressure to avoid precipitating renal, cerebral, or coronary ischemia. Staged blood pressure reduction is typically the goal, with an initial reduction in mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 25% in the first hour. Further gradual reduction to a systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg over the next 2 to 6 hours is recommended. Initial management involves treatment with intravenous antihypertensive agents in an intensive care setting with appropriate monitoring.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 71
Correct
-
A 65 year old type 2 diabetic with recently diagnosed dementia is brought into the emergency department by the caregiver from her assisted living facility due to concern that her foot ulcer is worsening. The doctor had started antibiotics a week earlier as an ulcer to the big toe appeared infected. An X-ray reveals bone erosion and reactive bone sclerosis consistent with osteomyelitis. You refer the patient to the orthopedic resident on-call. You overhear the resident discussing toe amputation and requesting the patient sign a consent form. You are worried because you are unsure if the patient has the capacity to give consent. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria a patient must meet to be considered to have capacity?
Your Answer: Patient must be adequately informed about the proposed treatment
Explanation:In order for a patient to be considered to have capacity, they must meet four criteria. Firstly, they must be able to comprehend the decision that needs to be made and understand the information that has been provided to them. Secondly, they should be able to retain the information in order to make an informed decision. Thirdly, they must demonstrate the ability to evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of the decision at hand. Lastly, they should be able to effectively communicate their decision.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
-
-
Question 72
Correct
-
A 65 year old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of central back pain. After evaluation, you order an X-ray which reveals anterior wedging of the L2 vertebra. You suspect the patient may have undiagnosed osteoporosis. Which of the following statements about osteoporosis is correct?
Your Answer: Osteoporosis is defined as a T-score of less than -2.5
Explanation:Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, making them more prone to fractures. In this case, the patient’s sudden onset of central back pain and the X-ray findings of anterior wedging of the L2 vertebra suggest the possibility of undiagnosed osteoporosis.
One correct statement about osteoporosis is that it is defined as a T-score of less than -2.5. The T-score is a measure of bone density and is used to diagnose osteoporosis. A T-score of -2.5 or lower indicates a significant decrease in bone density and an increased risk of fractures.
Skeletal scintigraphy is not used to diagnose osteoporosis. Instead, it is commonly used to evaluate for other conditions such as bone infections or tumors.
The pubic rami is not the most common site for osteoporotic fractures. Osteoporotic fractures commonly occur in the spine (vertebral fractures), hip, and wrist.
Osteoporosis is not characterized by increased bone turnover in focal areas of the axial skeleton with a lytic phase followed by a rapid increase in bone formation by osteoblasts in the sclerotic phase. This description is more consistent with a condition called Paget’s disease of bone.
The prevalence of osteoporosis is not approximately 10% at 50 years of age. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, and it is estimated that around 50% of women and 25% of men over the age of 50 will experience an osteoporotic fracture in their lifetime.
Further Reading:
Fragility fractures are fractures that occur following a fall from standing height or less, and may be atraumatic. They often occur in the presence of osteoporosis, a disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue. Fragility fractures commonly affect the wrist, spine, hip, and arm.
Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) of 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak mass, as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Osteopenia, on the other hand, refers to low bone mass between normal bone mass and osteoporosis, with a T-score between -1 to -2.5.
The pathophysiology of osteoporosis involves increased osteoclast activity relative to bone production by osteoblasts. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, from approximately 2% at 50 years to almost 50% at 80 years.
There are various risk factors for fragility fractures, including endocrine diseases, GI causes of malabsorption, chronic kidney and liver diseases, menopause, immobility, low body mass index, advancing age, oral corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol consumption, previous fragility fractures, rheumatological conditions, parental history of hip fracture, certain medications, visual impairment, neuromuscular weakness, cognitive impairment, and unsafe home environment.
Assessment of a patient with a possible fragility fracture should include evaluating the risk of further falls, the risk of osteoporosis, excluding secondary causes of osteoporosis, and ruling out non-osteoporotic causes for fragility fractures such as metastatic bone disease, multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease.
Management of fragility fractures involves initial management by the emergency clinician, while treatment of low bone density is often delegated to the medical team or general practitioner. Management considerations include determining who needs formal risk assessment, who needs a DXA scan to measure BMD, providing lifestyle advice, and deciding who requires drug treatment.
Medication for osteoporosis typically includes vitamin D, calcium, and bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be considered based on individual needs, while bisphosphonates are advised for postmenopausal women and men over 50 years with confirmed osteoporosis or those taking high doses of oral corticosteroids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department and informs you that they have taken an overdose. The patient states that they are unsure of the exact number of tablets consumed but estimate it to be around 100 aspirin tablets. You are concerned about the severity of the overdose and its potential consequences. Which of the following is an indication for haemodialysis in patients with salicylate poisoning?
Your Answer: Patient requires urinary alkalinisation to correct salicylate concentration
Correct Answer: Salicylate level of 715 mg/L
Explanation:Haemodialysis is recommended for patients with salicylate poisoning if they meet any of the following criteria: plasma salicylate level exceeding 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that does not improve with treatment (plasma pH below 7.2), acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures, coma, unresolved central nervous system effects despite correcting acidosis, persistently high salicylate concentrations that do not respond to urinary alkalinisation. Severe cases of salicylate poisoning, especially in patients under 10 years old or over 70 years old, may require dialysis earlier than the listed indications.
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 74
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which she feels that other people can hear what she is thinking. She is finding the sensation very distressing.
Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she exhibiting?Your Answer: Thought broadcast
Explanation:Thought broadcast is one of the primary symptoms of schizophrenia identified by Schneider. This symptom refers to the patient’s belief that their thoughts can be perceived by others.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 75
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of depression is admitted to the emergency department following an unintentional ingestion of amitriptyline tablets. Which toxidrome is commonly associated with an overdose of amitriptyline?
Your Answer: Anticholinergic
Explanation:An overdose of Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, leads to a toxic effect known as anticholinergic toxidrome. This occurs when the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors are blocked, causing the characteristic signs and symptoms associated with this condition.
Further Reading:
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.
TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.
Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.
Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.
There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 76
Correct
-
Large numbers of casualties are observed after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) incident. It is believed that sarin gas is the responsible agent. Which combination of clinical features is most likely to be present?
Your Answer: Miosis, bronchorrhoea, salivation and muscle weakness
Explanation:The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.
The first compounds to be created are called the G agents (G stands for German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).
In the 1950s, the V agents (V stands for venomous) were synthesized and are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).
One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 died.
Nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.
The clinical features observed after exposure are a result of a combination of muscarinic, nicotinic, and central nervous system effects.
Muscarinic effects (DUMBBELS):
– Diarrhea
– Urination
– Miosis
– Bronchorrhea
– Bronchospasm
– Emesis
– Lacrimation
– Salivation
Plus bradycardia and hypotension.Nicotinic effects:
– Sweating
– Tremor
– Fasciculations
– Muscle weakness
– Flaccid paralysisCentral nervous system effects:
– Agitation and irritability
– Amnesia
– Ataxia
– Respiratory -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
-
-
Question 77
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic foul-smelling discharge from her right ear. She has undergone three rounds of antibiotic drops, but the issue persists. Additionally, she is experiencing hearing difficulties in her right ear. Her medical history includes recurrent ear infections. During the examination, a retraction pocket is observed in the attic, along with granulation tissue on the tympanic membrane and a significant amount of debris.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:This individual is diagnosed with an acquired cholesteatoma, which is an expanding growth of the stratified keratinising epithelium in the middle ear. It develops due to dysfunction of the Eustachian tube and chronic otitis media caused by the retraction of the squamous elements of the tympanic membrane into the middle ear space.
The most important method for assessing the presence of a cholesteatoma is otoscopy. A retraction pocket observed in the attic or posterosuperior quadrant of the tympanic membrane is a characteristic sign of an acquired cholesteatoma. This is often accompanied by the presence of granulation tissue and squamous debris. The presence of a granular polyp within the ear canal also strongly suggests a cholesteatoma.
If left untreated, a cholesteatoma can lead to various complications including conductive deafness, facial nerve palsy, brain abscess, meningitis, and labyrinthitis. Therefore, it is crucial to urgently refer this individual to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a CT scan and surgical removal of the lesion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 78
Correct
-
John is a 68-year-old man with a history of memory impairment and signs of cognitive decline.
Which ONE of the following signs is MOST indicative of a diagnosis of vascular dementia rather than Alzheimer's disease?Your Answer: Sudden onset
Explanation:Vascular dementia is not as common as Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for about 20% of dementia cases compared to 50% for Alzheimer’s. Most individuals with vascular dementia have a history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and/or hypertension.
There are notable differences in how these two diseases present themselves. Vascular dementia often has a sudden onset, while Alzheimer’s disease has a slower onset. The progression of vascular dementia tends to be stepwise, with periods of stability followed by sudden declines, whereas Alzheimer’s disease has a more gradual decline. The course of vascular dementia can also fluctuate, while Alzheimer’s disease shows a steady decline over time.
In terms of personality and insight, individuals with vascular dementia tend to have relatively preserved personality and insight in the early stages, whereas those with Alzheimer’s disease may experience early changes and loss in these areas. Gait is also affected differently, with individuals with vascular dementia taking small steps (known as marche a petit pas), while those with Alzheimer’s disease have a normal gait.
Sleep disturbance is less common in vascular dementia compared to Alzheimer’s disease, which commonly presents with sleep disturbances. Focal neurological signs, such as sensory and motor deficits and pseudobulbar palsy, are more common in vascular dementia, while they are uncommon in Alzheimer’s disease.
To differentiate between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia, the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can be used. This scale assigns scores based on various features, such as abrupt onset, stepwise deterioration, fluctuating course, nocturnal confusion, preservation of personality, depression, somatic complaints, emotional incontinence, history of hypertension, history of strokes, evidence of associated atherosclerosis, focal neurological symptoms, and focal neurological signs. A score of 2 or greater suggests vascular dementia.
Overall, understanding the differences in presentation and using tools like the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can help in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old boy presents with double vision. He is holding his head tilted to the left-hand side. On examination of his eye movements, you note that both eyes can look normally to the right, but on looking to the left, his left eye cannot turn outwards past the midline. The right eye is unaffected when looking to the left.
What is the SINGLE most likely nerve to be involved in this case?Your Answer: Left abducens nerve
Correct Answer: Right abducens nerve
Explanation:This patient is experiencing a condition called right-sided abducens nerve palsy, which means that their sixth cranial nerve is paralyzed. As a result, the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for moving the eye outward, is also paralyzed. This means that the patient’s right eye is unable to turn outward. This can lead to a condition called convergent strabismus, where the eyes are not aligned properly, and diplopia, which is double vision. To compensate for the double vision, patients often tilt their head towards the side of the paralyzed muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 80
Correct
-
A 32-year-old man is brought in to the department, having taken an overdose of his tricyclic antidepressants 4 hours earlier.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen on the ECG of a patient that has taken a tricyclic antidepressant overdose?Your Answer: Shortening of the PR interval
Explanation:The cardiotoxic effects of TCAs occur when they block sodium channels, leading to broadening of the QRS complex, and potassium channels, resulting in prolongation of the QT interval. The severity of adverse events is directly related to the degree of QRS broadening. If the QRS complex is greater than 100 ms, it is likely that seizures may occur. If the QRS complex exceeds 160 ms, ventricular arrhythmias may be predicted. In cases of TCA overdose, certain changes can be observed on an ECG. These include sinus tachycardia, which is very common, prolongation of the PR interval, broadening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and in severe cases, ventricular arrhythmias.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 81
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman with chronic anemia secondary to a diagnosis of sickle cell disease receives a blood transfusion. A few minutes after the blood transfusion has started, she experiences wheezing, chest discomfort, nausea, and widespread itching with a rash. Her blood pressure drops to 76/40 mmHg.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer adrenaline
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a potentially life-saving treatment that can provide great clinical benefits. However, it also carries several risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, immune dilution, and transfusion errors. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and efforts to minimize the use of transfusion, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.
One rare complication of blood transfusion is transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD). This condition typically presents with fever, rash, and diarrhea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Laboratory findings may show pancytopenia and abnormalities in liver function. Unlike GVHD after marrow transplantation, TA-GVHD leads to severe marrow aplasia with a mortality rate exceeding 90%. Unfortunately, there are currently no effective treatments available for this condition, and survival is rare, with death usually occurring within 1-3 weeks of the first symptoms.
During a blood transfusion, viable T lymphocytes from the donor are transfused into the recipient’s body. In TA-GVHD, these lymphocytes engraft and react against the recipient’s tissues. However, the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes due to factors such as immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens. Supportive management is the only option for TA-GVHD.
The following summarizes the main complications and reactions that can occur during a blood transfusion:
Complication Features Management
Febrile transfusion reaction
– Presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise.
– Most common reaction, occurring in 1 out of 8 transfusions.
– Usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.
– Supportive management, with the use of paracetamol for symptom relief.Acute haemolytic reaction
– Symptoms include fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine.
– Often accompanied by a feeling of ‘impending doom’.
– Most serious type of reaction, often due to ABO incompatibility caused by administration errors.
– Immediate action required: stop the transfusion, administer IV fluids, and consider diuretics if necessary.Delayed haemolytic reaction
– Typically occurs 4-8 days after a blood transfusion.
– Symptoms include fever, anemia and/or hyperbilirubinemia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 82
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant comes in with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, her cervix is found to be open. A local early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU) performs an ultrasound scan. The scan is unable to detect a fetal heartbeat but does show the presence of retained products of conception.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Incomplete miscarriage
Explanation:An incomplete miscarriage occurs when a miscarriage occurs, but the products of conception have not been fully expelled from the uterus. This commonly happens between weeks 8 and 14 of pregnancy.
Symptoms of an incomplete miscarriage include pain and bleeding, and the cervix is usually open. A diagnosis can be confirmed through an ultrasound scan, which will show the absence of a fetal heartbeat and retained products.
Treatment for an incomplete miscarriage can be done medically, such as using misoprostol, or surgically, like undergoing an ERPC procedure.
There are potential complications that can arise from an incomplete miscarriage, including endometritis, myometritis, septic shock, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
-
-
Question 83
Correct
-
A 68-year-old individual presents with rest tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. A diagnosis of Parkinson's disease is determined.
Parkinson's disease primarily occurs due to a loss of dopaminergic cells in which anatomical regions?Your Answer: Midbrain
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease is primarily characterized by the degeneration of cells in the substantia nigra, a region located in the midbrain. The most severely affected part is the pars compacta, which plays a crucial role in motor control. As a result, there is a significant decrease in the activity of cells that secrete dopamine.
The main symptoms of Parkinson’s disease include tremors that occur when the body is at rest, rigidity in the muscles, and bradykinesia, which refers to a slowness in movement. These symptoms can greatly impact a person’s ability to perform everyday tasks and can progressively worsen over time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 84
Correct
-
A 72-year-old man comes with his wife due to worries about his memory. After gathering information, you observe a gradual decrease in his cognitive abilities. The only significant medical history he has is a heart attack he had 8 years ago.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?Your Answer: Vascular dementia
Explanation:Vascular dementia is the second most common form of dementia, accounting for approximately 25% of all cases. It occurs when the brain is damaged due to various factors, such as major strokes, multiple smaller strokes that go unnoticed (known as multi-infarct), or chronic changes in smaller blood vessels (referred to as subcortical dementia). The term vascular cognitive impairment (VCI) is increasingly used to encompass this range of diseases.
Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, which has a gradual and subtle onset, vascular dementia can occur suddenly and typically shows a series of stepwise increases in symptom severity. The presentation and progression of the disease can vary significantly.
There are certain features that suggest a vascular cause of dementia. These include a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, the presence of focal neurological abnormalities, prominent memory impairment in the early stages of the disease, early onset of gait disturbance and unsteadiness, frequent unprovoked falls in the early stages, bladder symptoms (such as incontinence) without any identifiable urological condition in the early stages, and seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 85
Correct
-
You are treating an 82-year-old patient who is unable to bear weight after a fall. X-ray results confirm a fractured neck of femur. You inform the patient that they will be referred for surgery. In terms of the blood supply to the femoral neck, which artery is responsible for supplying blood to this area?
Your Answer: Deep femoral artery
Explanation:The femoral neck receives its blood supply from branches of the deep femoral artery, also known as the profunda femoris artery. The deep femoral artery gives rise to the medial and lateral circumflex branches, which form a network of blood vessels around the femoral neck.
Further Reading:
Fractured neck of femur is a common injury, especially in elderly patients who have experienced a low impact fall. Risk factors for this type of fracture include falls, osteoporosis, and other bone disorders such as metastatic cancers, hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.
There are different classification systems for hip fractures, but the most important differentiation is between intracapsular and extracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is primarily from ascending cervical branches that arise from an arterial anastomosis between the medial and lateral circumflex branches of the femoral arteries. Fractures in the intracapsular region can damage the blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis (AVN), with the risk increasing with displacement. The Garden classification can be used to classify intracapsular neck of femur fractures and determine the risk of AVN. Those at highest risk will typically require hip replacement or arthroplasty.
Fractures below or distal to the capsule are termed extracapsular and can be further described as intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric depending on their location. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is usually maintained with these fractures, making them amenable to surgery that preserves the femoral head and neck, such as dynamic hip screw fixation.
Diagnosing hip fractures can be done through radiographs, with Shenton’s line and assessing the trabecular pattern of the proximal femur being helpful techniques. X-rays should be obtained in both the AP and lateral views, and if an occult fracture is suspected, an MRI or CT scan may be necessary.
In terms of standards of care, it is important to assess the patient’s pain score within 15 minutes of arrival in the emergency department and provide appropriate analgesia within the recommended timeframes. Patients with moderate or severe pain should have their pain reassessed within 30 minutes of receiving analgesia. X-rays should be obtained within 120 minutes of arrival, and patients should be admitted within 4 hours of arrival.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 86
Correct
-
A 37 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and chest pain in the center of her chest. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that she experienced muscle pain, gastrointestinal issues, a mild fever, and fatigue for approximately three days about a week ago. She informs you that she is typically in good health and regularly runs 5-10km two to three times per week. The patient has no significant medical history, does not take any medications on a regular basis, has never smoked, and does not consume alcohol. Given the patient's symptoms, you suspect the possibility of myocarditis. Which of the following sets of blood test results would be expected in a patient with myocarditis?
Your Answer: creatine kinase: elevated, troponin I: elevated, BNP: elevated
Explanation:In cases of myocarditis, levels of cardiac muscle enzymes (CK-MB, Troponin I, and Troponin T) and B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) are usually elevated. It is important to note that CK-MB is a subtype of CK, so an increase in CK-MB will also result in an increase in total CK levels. This poses a challenge in differentiating myocarditis from coronary artery disease in the emergency department. Typically, a definitive diagnosis is not made until the patient undergoes additional tests such as angiography and possibly endomyocardial biopsy (EMB).
Further Reading:
Myocarditis is inflammation of the myocardium, the middle layer of the heart wall, that is not caused by a blockage in the coronary arteries. It can be caused by various factors, including infections (such as viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi), immune reactions, toxins, physical injury, and certain medications or vaccines. Coxsackie virus is the most common cause of myocarditis in Europe and the USA, while globally, Trypanosoma cruzi, which causes Chagas disease, is the most common cause.
The symptoms of myocarditis can vary widely and often resemble those of heart failure or coronary heart disease. Common symptoms include chest pain, palpitations, breathlessness, fatigue, and swelling. The clinical presentation can also be influenced by the underlying cause of the inflammation. Diagnosis of myocarditis is challenging as there is no specific clinical presentation, and the gold standard test, endomyocardial biopsy, is not readily available in emergency departments.
Various tests can be performed to aid in the diagnosis of myocarditis, including electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray, cardiac enzymes (such as troponin or CK-MB), brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels, and echocardiogram. These tests may show non-specific abnormalities, such as ST-segment and T-wave abnormalities on ECG, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on chest X-ray, elevated cardiac enzymes and BNP levels, and left ventricular motion abnormalities on echocardiogram.
Management of myocarditis is primarily supportive, focusing on treating cardiac failure and addressing the underlying cause. Supportive care and conventional heart failure therapy, such as ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers, vasodilators, beta-blockers, and diuretics, may be used to improve cardiac function and reduce symptoms. Treatment of the underlying cause, such as antiparasitic agents for Chagas disease or antibiotics for bacterial infections, may also be necessary. In severe cases leading to cardiogenic shock, more aggressive treatment with invasive monitoring, inotropes, vasopressors, and potentially heart transplantation may be required.
In summary, myocarditis is inflammation of the myocardium that can be caused by various factors. It presents with a wide range of symptoms and can be challenging to diagnose. Management involves supportive care, treatment of cardiac failure, and addressing the underlying cause. Severe cases may require more aggressive treatment and potentially heart transplantation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 87
Correct
-
A 40-year-old woman undergoes a blood transfusion after giving birth. Soon after starting the transfusion, she experiences hives and itching all over her body. She is in good health otherwise and shows no signs of any problems with her airway or breathing.
What is the most probable cause of this reaction to the blood transfusion?Your Answer: Presence of foreign plasma proteins
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a crucial treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there has been an improvement in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.
Mild allergic reactions during blood transfusion are relatively common and typically occur within a few minutes of starting the transfusion. These reactions happen when patients have antibodies that react with foreign plasma proteins in the transfused blood components. Symptoms of mild allergic reactions include urticaria, Pruritus, and hives.
Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, is much rarer and occurs when an individual has previously been sensitized to an allergen present in the blood. When re-exposed to the allergen, the body releases IgE or IgG antibodies, leading to severe symptoms such as bronchospasm, laryngospasm, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, shock, and loss of consciousness. Anaphylaxis can be fatal.
Mild allergic reactions can be managed by slowing down the transfusion rate and administering antihistamines. If there is no progression after 30 minutes, the transfusion may continue. Patients who have experienced repeated allergic reactions to transfusion should be given pre-treatment with chlorpheniramine. In cases of anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped immediately, and the patient should receive oxygen, adrenaline, corticosteroids, and antihistamines following the ALS protocol.
The table below summarizes the main transfusion reactions and complications, along with their features and management:
Complication | Features | Management
Febrile transfusion reaction | 1 degree rise in temperature, chills, malaise | Supportive care, paracetamol
Acute haemolytic reaction | Fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine | STOP THE TRANSFUSION, administer IV fluids, diuretics if necessary
Delayed haemolytic reaction | Fever, anaemia, jaundice, haemoglobinuria | Monitor anaemia and renal function, treat as required
Allergic reaction | Urticaria, Pruritus, hives | Symptomatic treatment with ant -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 88
Correct
-
A 15 year old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sore throat, swollen glands, and feeling tired for the past 9 days. Glandular fever is suspected. What test should be ordered to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Monospot test
Explanation:The monospot test is the preferred method for testing for infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) when looking for heterophile antibodies. The timing and choice of investigations for glandular fever depend on factors such as the patient’s age, immune system status, and duration of symptoms. The monospot test is a latex agglutination test that uses equine erythrocytes as the primary substrate to detect specific heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to EBV infection. It is simpler and faster to use compared to the Paul Bunnell test, which uses sheep red cells. The monospot test is recommended by NICE due to its advantages. However, it has lower sensitivity and negative predictive value in young children, which is why EBV serology is preferred for those under 12 years old.
Further Reading:
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.
The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.
Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.
Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
A 25 year old female comes to the emergency department complaining of a sore throat that has been bothering her for the past 2 days. She denies having any cough or runny nose. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 37.7°C, blood pressure at 120/68 mmHg, and pulse rate at 88 bpm. The oropharynx and tonsils show signs of redness. The patient's neck is not tender and there are no palpable masses.
What is the CENTOR score for this patient?Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:The CENTOR score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a streptococcal infection, which is a common cause of sore throat. It is based on four clinical criteria: presence of tonsillar exudates, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, absence of cough, and history of fever. Each criterion is assigned one point, with a maximum score of four.
In this case, the patient has a sore throat without cough or runny nose, and her temperature is slightly elevated at 37.7°C. The examination reveals redness in the oropharynx and tonsils, but no tender neck or palpable masses. Based on this information, the patient would score one point on the CENTOR score.
Further Reading:
Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.
Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.
When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.
Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.
To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old doctor in the Emergency Department complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her hands that appeared 15 minutes after she wore a pair of latex gloves. What is the most probable cause for the development of this rash?
Your Answer: Irritant contact dermatitis
Correct Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:Type I hypersensitivity reactions, also known as allergic reactions, are triggered when a person is exposed again to a particular antigen, which is referred to as the allergen. These reactions are mediated by IgE and typically manifest within 15 to 30 minutes after exposure to the allergen. One common symptom of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is the rapid onset of a urticarial rash, which occurs shortly after coming into contact with the allergen, such as latex.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
-
-
Question 91
Correct
-
A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department with worsening cellulitis. The patient informs you that he visited the after-hours GP earlier in the week. The after-hours GP prescribed oral antibiotics, which the patient has been taking for 3 days. However, the patient notices that the red area is spreading despite the medication. The patient mentions to you that he informed the GP about his susceptibility to infections, and the GP ordered a blood test for diabetes, advising him to follow up with his regular GP. You come across an HbA1c result on the pathology system. What is the diagnostic threshold for diabetes?
Your Answer: HbA1c ≥ 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:An HBA1C result between 42-47 mmol/mol indicates a pre-diabetic condition.
Further Reading:
Diabetes Mellitus:
– Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
– Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
– Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
– Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.Hypoglycemia:
– Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
– Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
– Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
– Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
– Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
– Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
– Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
– Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
– If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 92
Correct
-
A 6-year-old boy comes in with a headache, stiffness in his neck, and sensitivity to light. He has a known allergy to penicillin and had to spend some time in the ICU because of it. He has also recently developed a rash of small red or purple spots on his arms and legs.
What is the MOST suitable next course of action in managing his condition?Your Answer: Chloramphenicol
Explanation:This girl is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. It is crucial that she receives urgent antibiotic treatment. If a patient has a penicillin allergy, but not anaphylaxis, a third-generation cephalosporin like cefotaxime may be administered. However, in this particular case, the girl has a documented history of anaphylaxis to penicillin. It is important to note that up to 10% of patients who are allergic to penicillin may experience an adverse reaction to cephalosporins. In situations where there is a true anaphylactic reaction to penicillins, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends the use of chloramphenicol as an alternative treatment option.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 93
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman comes in with a foul-smelling vaginal discharge and itching in the vulva area. She also experiences pain during urination but does not have an increased need to urinate. She has a 4-week-old baby whom she is currently nursing.
What is the most suitable treatment for her condition?Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is vaginal thrush. Vaginal thrush is characterized by symptoms such as vulval irritation and itching, vulval redness, and a discharge that is often described as cheesy. Some women may also experience dysuria, which is pain or discomfort during urination, but without an increase in frequency or urgency. The recommended treatment for vaginal thrush is the use of antifungal agents, with topical azoles like clotrimazole or miconazole being commonly prescribed. It is important to note that breastfeeding patients should avoid taking oral terbinafine as it can pass into breast milk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman presents with right-sided hemiplegia and right-sided loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense and discriminatory touch. She also complains of blurred vision, and on further examination, you notice that she is unable to move her left eye outward and is tilting her head to the left side. A CT head scan is performed, and she is found to have experienced a left-sided stroke. She is subsequently admitted under the care of the stroke team.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Medial medullary syndrome
Correct Answer: Medial pontine syndrome
Explanation:When the paramedian branches of the basilar artery are blocked, it leads to a condition known as medial pontine syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by several symptoms. Firstly, there is contralateral hemiplegia, which refers to paralysis on the opposite side of the body due to damage to the pyramidal tracts. Additionally, there is contralateral loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch, which occurs as a result of damage to the medial lemniscus. Lastly, individuals with medial pontine syndrome may experience double vision caused by paralysis of the lateral rectus muscle, which is due to damage to the sixth cranial nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 95
Correct
-
A 15 year old is brought into the emergency department with burns to the feet which she sustained whilst removing an item from a lit bonfire. The patient's father is worried she has full thickness burns. Which of the following signs is indicative of a full thickness burn?
Your Answer: Painless
Explanation:Full thickness burns are devoid of pain as they result in the complete destruction of the superficial nerve endings. These burns usually display characteristics such as a lack of sensation, a coloration of the burnt skin in shades of white, brown, or black, a texture that is waxy or leathery, and a dry appearance without any blistering.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 96
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease comes in with suspected acute limb ischemia.
What is the primary cause of acute limb ischemia?Your Answer: Thrombotic occlusion
Explanation:Acute limb ischaemia refers to a sudden decrease in blood flow to a limb, which puts the limb at risk of tissue death. This condition is most commonly caused by either a sudden blockage of a partially blocked artery or an embolus that travels from another part of the body. It is considered a surgical emergency, as without prompt surgical intervention, the limb may suffer extensive tissue damage within six hours.
The typical signs of acute limb ischaemia are often described using the 6 Ps: constant and persistent pain, absence of pulses in the ankle, paleness or discoloration of the limb, loss of power or paralysis, reduced sensation or numbness, and a sensation of coldness. The leading cause of acute limb ischaemia is a sudden blockage of a previously narrowed artery (60% of cases). The second most common cause is an embolism, such as from a blood clot in the heart or following a heart attack. It is important to differentiate between these two causes, as the treatment and prognosis differ.
Other potential causes of acute limb ischaemia include trauma, Raynaud’s syndrome, iatrogenic injury (caused by medical procedures), popliteal aneurysm, aortic dissection, and compartment syndrome. If acute limb ischaemia is suspected, it is crucial to seek immediate assessment by a vascular surgeon.
The management of acute limb ischaemia in a hospital setting depends on factors such as the type and location of the blockage, duration of ischaemia, presence of other medical conditions, type of blood vessel affected, and the viability of the limb. Treatment options may include percutaneous catheter-directed thrombolytic therapy, surgical embolectomy, or endovascular revascularisation if the limb can still be saved. The choice between surgical and endovascular techniques will depend on various factors, including the urgency of revascularisation and the severity of sensory and motor deficits.
In cases where the limb is beyond salvage, amputation may be necessary. This is because attempting to revascularise a limb with irreversible ischaemia and extensive muscle death can lead to a condition called reperfusion syndrome, which can cause inflammation and damage to multiple organs, potentially resulting in death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old patient comes in with an arthropathy affecting his right knee. After sending a joint aspirate to the laboratory, a diagnosis of pseudogout is made. What type of crystals would you anticipate observing in the presence of pseudogout?
Your Answer: Positively birefringent needle-shaped crystals
Correct Answer: Positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals
Explanation:Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.
Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
-
-
Question 98
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful swelling on the left side of her face. The pain and swelling appear to get worse before meals and then gradually improve after eating. During the examination, a solid lump can be felt in the submandibular region. There is no redness, and the patient has no fever and is in good overall health.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sialolithiasis
Explanation:Sialolithiasis is a condition in which a calcified stone (sialolith) forms inside a salivary gland. The submandibular gland (Wharton’s duct) is the most common site, accounting for about 90% of cases, while the parotid gland is the second most affected. In rare instances, sialoliths can also develop in the sublingual gland or minor salivary glands.
The presence of a sialolith obstructs the flow of saliva, leading to pain and swelling in the affected gland during eating. The pain is most intense when salivary flow is high, such as before and during meals, and gradually subsides within an hour after eating. By palpating the floor of the mouth with both hands, a stone may be detected, and sometimes it can even be seen at the opening of the duct. If there is an accompanying infection, pus may be expressed from the gland.
To assess salivary flow, acidic foods like lemon juice can be used as a simple test. X-rays of the mouth’s floor can reveal the presence of a stone. Patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist (ENT) for the removal of the stone.
Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands and can be either acute or chronic. Acute sialadenitis is most commonly caused by a bacterial infection, usually ascending from Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus viridans. It can occur as a result of sialolithiasis or poor oral hygiene. Clinically, there will be a painful swelling in the affected gland area, with redness of the overlying skin and potential swelling of the cheek and nearby regions. Patients often experience general malaise, with a low-grade fever and elevated inflammatory markers.
Parotitis, on the other hand, refers to inflammation of one or both parotid glands. This inflammation can be caused by bacteria (particularly Staphylococcus aureus), viruses (such as mumps), or tuberculosis.
Sjögren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 99
Correct
-
You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is NOT true?Your Answer: It should be administered as an infusion of 300 mg over 20-60 minutes
Explanation:Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.
In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.
Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.
Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.
It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 100
Correct
-
A 65-year-old patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease five years ago has experienced a sudden and severe deterioration in her functioning and is now reliant on a wheelchair. Her motor symptoms affect both sides of her body, and she does not exhibit any noticeable tremors. Additionally, she experiences significant fluctuations in blood pressure, urinary incontinence, and has a high-pitched voice.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Multiple System Atrophy
Explanation:The Parkinson-plus syndromes are a group of neurodegenerative disorders that share similar features with Parkinson’s disease but also have additional clinical characteristics that set them apart from idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (iPD). These syndromes include Multiple System Atrophy (MSA), Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP), Corticobasal degeneration (CBD), and Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB).
Multiple System Atrophy (MSA) is a less common condition than iPD and PSP. It is characterized by the loss of cells in multiple areas of the nervous system. MSA progresses rapidly, often leading to wheelchair dependence within 3-4 years of diagnosis. Some distinguishing features of MSA include autonomic dysfunction, bladder control problems, erectile dysfunction, blood pressure changes, early-onset balance problems, neck or facial dystonia, and a high-pitched voice.
To summarize the distinguishing features of the Parkinson-plus syndromes compared to iPD, the following table provides a comparison:
iPD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Typically starts at rest on one side of the body
– Levodopa response: Excellent response
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Late in the disease
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingMSA:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingPSP:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Less common, if present affects both sides
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Personality changes, depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1 year
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, difficulty in looking downwardsCBD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)