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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits the Elderly Care Clinic with his wife. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, which has been under control with various medications. However, his wife is concerned as he has been exhibiting abnormal behavior lately, such as spending a considerable amount of their savings on a car and making inappropriate sexual advances towards his elderly neighbor. Which medication is the probable cause of this man's change in behavior?
Your Answer: Levodopa
Correct Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Parkinson’s Disease Medications and Their Association with Impulsive Behaviours
Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and can lead to tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. There are several medications available to manage the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including dopamine agonists, anticholinergics, NMDA receptor antagonists, levodopa, and monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors.
Dopamine agonists, such as Ropinirole, are often prescribed alongside levodopa to manage motor complications. However, they are known to be associated with compulsive behaviours, including impulsive spending and sexual disinhibition.
Anticholinergics, like Procyclidine, are sometimes used to manage significant tremor in Parkinson’s disease. However, they are linked to a host of side-effects, including postural hypotension, and are not generally first line. There is no known link to impulsive behaviours.
Amantadine is a weak NMDA receptor antagonist and should be considered if patients develop dyskinesia which is not managed by modifying existing therapy. It is not known to be associated with impulsive behaviours.
Levodopa, the most effective symptomatic treatment for Parkinson’s disease, may be provided in preparations such as Sinemet or Madopar. It is known to feature a weaning-off period and administration should be timed very regularly. However, it is only very rarely associated with abnormal or compulsive behaviours.
Selegiline is a monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitor and can delay the need for levodopa therapy in some patients. However, it is not linked to compulsive behaviours such as sexual inhibition or gambling.
In summary, while some Parkinson’s disease medications are associated with impulsive behaviours, others are not. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential side-effects of each medication and monitor patients for any changes in behaviour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman complains of numbness and ‘pins and needles’ in her left leg that has been present for 48 h after a long flight. On examination, there is reduced sensation to light touch at the lateral aspect of her left thigh, extending from the iliac crest to the knee. There is no distal sensory loss. There is preserved motor function through all muscle groups of the affected limb. There is no weakness or sensory change in the opposite limb.
What is the most likely anatomical source for this woman’s presentation?Your Answer: Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries and Their Symptoms
Nerve injuries can cause a variety of symptoms depending on the affected nerve. Here are some common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:
Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve: A mononeuropathy of this nerve causes numbness in a narrow strip of the lateral thigh. It is often associated with rapid weight gain, such as in pregnancy.
Sciatic Nerve: A sciatic neuropathy can cause weakness in hip extension, knee flexion, ankle plantar flexion/dorsiflexion, and toe plantar flexion/dorsiflexion, as well as inversion and eversion of the foot. It is commonly caused by pelvic trauma, neoplasia, or surgery.
Femoral Nerve: A femoral neuropathy can cause numbness in the medial thigh, medial leg, and medial aspect of the ankle, as well as weakness in hip flexion and knee extension. It is often caused by motor compression, such as in femoral fracture or childbirth.
Obturator Nerve: An obturator neuropathy can cause weakness in internal rotation and adduction at the hip, as well as sensory disturbance over the medial thigh.
L5 Nerve Root: Involvement of the L5 nerve root can cause weakness in ankle and toe dorsiflexion (causing a foot drop) and weakness in ankle inversion. There is also sensory disturbance along the lateral aspect of the leg (below the knee). It can be similar to an anterior tibial neuropathy, but can be distinguished by the weakness in ankle eversion instead of inversion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old motorcyclist was brought to the Emergency Department after being in a road traffic accident and found alone on the road. Upon examination, he seems drowsy and is making grunting sounds, his pupils are equal and reactive to light, his eyes open to pain, and he withdraws his hand when the nurses attempt to insert a cannula. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
Your Answer: 9
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used by clinicians to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state, particularly in cases of head injury. It provides a common language for healthcare professionals to discuss a patient’s condition. The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s best eye, verbal, and motor responses, with a maximum score of 15/15 for a fully conscious and alert patient.
The calculation for the GCS score is as follows: for eyes, the score ranges from 1 to 4 depending on whether the patient’s eyes open spontaneously, in response to speech, in response to pain, or not at all. For verbal response, the score ranges from 1 to 5 depending on whether the patient is oriented, confused, uses inappropriate words or sounds, or has no verbal response. For motor response, the score ranges from 1 to 6 depending on whether the patient obeys commands, localizes pain, withdraws from pain, exhibits abnormal flexion or extension, or has no response.
If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to accurately calculate the GCS score and take appropriate action based on the score.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following combinations of age and percentage of hearing loss is incorrect for the overall population?
Your Answer: Aged 50-59: approximately 10% affected
Correct Answer: Aged 80-89: approximately 50% affected
Explanation:Age and Hearing Loss
As people age, the likelihood of experiencing hearing loss increases. In fact, the percentage of the population with a significant hearing loss rises with each passing decade. For those in the 80-89-year-old age group, it is estimated that between 70-80% of them will have a degree of hearing loss greater than 25 dB. This means that the majority of individuals in this age range will have difficulty hearing and may require hearing aids or other assistive devices to communicate effectively. It is important for individuals of all ages to take steps to protect their hearing, such as avoiding loud noises and wearing ear protection when necessary, in order to minimize the risk of hearing loss as they age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old retired teacher complains of headache and scalp tenderness. She reports experiencing blurred vision for the past three days. What signs suggest a possible diagnosis of giant cell arthritis?
Your Answer: Increased pulsation of the temporal artery
Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy demonstrating mononuclear cell infiltration
Explanation:Diagnosis of Giant Cell arthritis
Giant cell arthritis is a condition that affects the arteries, particularly those in the head and neck. To diagnose this condition, the American College of Rheumatology has developed criteria that require the fulfillment of at least three out of five criteria. These criteria have a 93% sensitivity of diagnosis.
The first criterion is age over 50, as this condition is more common in older individuals. The second criterion is the onset of a new type of localized headache, which is often severe and persistent. The third criterion is an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of over 50 mm/hr by the Westergreen method, which indicates inflammation in the body. The fourth criterion is temporal artery tenderness to palpation or decreased pulsation, which can be felt by a doctor during a physical exam. The fifth criterion is an arterial biopsy showing granulomatous inflammation or mononuclear cell infiltration, usually with multinucleated giant cells.
Overall, the diagnosis of giant cell arthritis requires a combination of clinical and laboratory findings. If a patient meets at least three of these criteria, further testing and treatment may be necessary to manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 22-year-old student is admitted to hospital with symptoms of fever, headache, photophobia and vomiting. The general practitioner administers 1.2 g of intramuscular benzylpenicillin before transferring the patient to the hospital. On examination, the patient's temperature is 38.0 °C, pulse 100 bpm and blood pressure 150/80 mmHg. No rash is visible, but there is mild neck stiffness. A CT scan of the brain is performed and shows no abnormalities. A lumbar puncture is also performed, and the results are as follows:
- Opening pressure: 20 cm H2O
- Appearance: Clear
- Red cell count: 25/mcl
- Lymphocytes: 125/mcl
- Polymorphs: 5/mcl
- Glucose: 4.5 mmol/l (blood glucose 5.5 mmol/l)
- Protein: 0.5 g/l
- Gram stain: No organisms seen
- Culture: No growth
What diagnosis is consistent with these findings?Your Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:Viral meningitis is a serious condition that should be treated as such if a patient presents with a headache, sensitivity to light, and stiffness in the neck. It is important to correctly interpret the results of a lumbar puncture to ensure that the appropriate treatment is administered. The appearance, cell count, protein level, and glucose level of the cerebrospinal fluid can help distinguish between bacterial, viral, and tuberculous meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is characterized by cloudy or purulent fluid with high levels of polymorphs and low levels of lymphocytes, while tuberculous meningitis may have a clear or slightly turbid appearance with a spider web clot and high levels of lymphocytes. Viral meningitis typically has clear or slightly hazy fluid with high levels of lymphocytes and normal protein and glucose levels. A subarachnoid hemorrhage may present with similar symptoms but would not have signs of infection and would show a large number of red blood cells and a color change in the cerebrospinal fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old man has been experiencing severe periorbital headaches on the right side for the past two weeks. These headaches occur at least once a day, often at night, and last for about an hour. He has also noticed tearing from his right eye and blockage of his right nostril during the headaches. However, at the time of examination, he was not experiencing any headache and there were no physical abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster Headaches
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is more common in men, with a ratio of 10:1 compared to women. These headaches usually occur at night, particularly in the early morning. They are characterized by paroxysmal episodes, which means they occur in clusters. One of the distinguishing features of cluster headaches is the presence of autonomic symptoms, such as lacrimation, ptosis, pupil constriction, nasal congestion, redness of the eye, and swelling of the eyelid.
It is important to note that individuals with cluster headaches typically have normal examination results between attacks. This means that there are no visible signs of the headache during periods of remission. the symptoms and characteristics of cluster headaches can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month history of changed behaviour. He has been hoarding newspapers and magazines around the house and refuses to change his clothes for weeks on end. His wife has noticed that he tells the same stories repeatedly, often just minutes apart. He has a new taste for potato crisps and has gained 4 kg in weight. On examination, his mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is 27/30.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Diogenes syndrome
Correct Answer: Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)
Explanation:Different Types of Dementia and Their Characteristics
Dementia is a term used to describe a group of symptoms that affect memory, thinking, and social abilities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of dementia and their features:
1. Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)
FTD is characterized by a lack of attention to personal hygiene, repetitive behavior, hoarding/criminal behavior, and new eating habits. Patients with FTD tend to perform well on cognitive tests, but may experience loss of fluency, lack of empathy, ignoring social etiquette, and loss of abstraction.2. Diogenes syndrome
Diogenes syndrome, also known as senile squalor syndrome, is characterized by self-neglect, apathy, social withdrawal, and compulsive hoarding.3. Lewy body dementia
Lewy body dementia is characterized by parkinsonism and visual hallucinations.4. Alzheimer’s dementia
Alzheimer’s dementia shows progressive cognitive decline, including memory loss, difficulty with language, disorientation, and mood swings.5. Vascular dementia
Vascular dementia is characterized by stepwise cognitive decline, usually with a history of vascular disease.Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristics can help with early detection and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes wakes up with weakness in his right leg. Upon examination, there is weakness in ankle eversion and inversion and loss of dorsiflexion in the big toe. Knee reflexes are normal, and ankle jerks are present with reinforcement. He has also experienced a loss of sensation in his first toe. Where is the lesion located?
Your Answer: Right common peroneal nerve
Correct Answer: Right L5 root
Explanation:Nerve Lesions and Their Effects on Motor and Sensory Function in the Lower Limb
The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles that work together to allow movement and sensation. When a nerve is damaged or compressed, it can lead to a variety of symptoms depending on the location and severity of the lesion. In the lower limb, there are several nerves that can be affected, each with its own unique pattern of motor and sensory deficits.
Right L5 Root Lesion
A lesion at the L5 nerve root will cause weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, and inversion, as well as loss of sensation over the medial border of the right foot. This specific pattern of motor and sensory pathology is only possible with an L5 nerve root lesion.
Right Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy
Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in weakness of ankle dorsiflexors, foot evertor (but not invertor) and extensor hallucis longus, and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot, the medial border of the foot, and the anterolateral side of the lower leg. The ankle reflex will be preserved.
Right Femoral Nerve Lesion
A lesion at the femoral nerve, which incorporates roots L2, L3, and L4, will cause weakness of the hip flexors and knee extensors, as well as loss of the knee reflex.
Right Sciatic Nerve Lesion
The sciatic nerve, the largest nerve in the human body, is made from roots L4 to S2. Damage to this nerve will result in weakness in all muscles below the knee, loss of the ankle reflex, and sensory loss over the foot and the posterolateral aspect of the lower leg.
Right Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh Lesion
The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh has no motor supply and causes sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the thigh.
In conclusion, understanding the effects of nerve lesions on motor and sensory function in the lower limb is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and fever. During the examination, you observe that she is wearing sunglasses due to the bright lights worsening her headache. Kernig's sign is positive, and you suspect meningitis. Which of the following statements regarding the cranial meninges is accurate?
Your Answer: The dura mater is poorly innervated
Correct Answer: A subdural haematoma lies in the plane between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
Explanation:Understanding the Layers of the Meninges and Intracranial Hemorrhage
The meninges are the three layers of protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. The outermost layer is the dura mater, followed by the arachnoid mater, and the innermost layer is the pia mater. Each layer serves a specific function in protecting the central nervous system.
Subdural hematomas occur between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, often as a result of venous bleeding. The pia mater is the outermost layer closest to the skull, while the dura mater consists of two layers and is richly innervated, causing pain when stretched. Extradural hematomas occur between the endosteal layer of the dura mater and the skull, often due to trauma and bleeding from the middle meningeal artery.
Subarachnoid hematomas form on the outside of the dura mater and are caused by arterial bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Intracerebral bleeds occur within the brain parenchyma itself and are unrelated to the meninges.
Understanding the various meningeal layers is crucial in identifying and treating different types of intracranial hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Correct
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You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical students about the different types of dementia and how they may present.
Which of the following is characteristic of frontotemporal dementia?Your Answer: Confabulation and repetition
Explanation:Understanding Fronto-Temporal Dementia: Symptoms and Features
Fronto-temporal dementia is a complex disorder that affects both the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. Its diagnosis can be challenging, especially in the early stages of the disease. To better understand this condition, it is helpful to examine its symptoms and features based on the affected brain regions.
Frontal lobe dysfunction is characterized by changes in personality and behavior, such as loss of tact and concern for others, disinhibition, emotional instability, distractibility, impulsivity, and fixed attitudes. However, some patients may exhibit opposite behaviors and become increasingly withdrawn.
Temporal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, affects speech and language abilities, leading to dysphasia, confabulation, repetition, and difficulty finding words and names (semantic dementia).
Other features of fronto-temporal dementia include earlier onset (typically between 40-60 years old), slow and insidious progression, relatively preserved memory in the early stages, and loss of executive function as the disease advances. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, hallucinations, paranoia, and delusions are rare, and personality and mood remain largely unaffected.
It is important to note that fronto-temporal dementia can present differently in late onset cases (70-80 years old) and does not typically involve bradykinesia, a hallmark symptom of Parkinson’s disease. Rapid progressive loss of memory and cognitive abilities is also not typical of fronto-temporal dementia, as the disease tends to progress slowly over time.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and features of fronto-temporal dementia can aid in its early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 68-year-old retired electrical engineer had a gradual decline in initiating and performing voluntary movements. His face was expressionless and he had tremors, which were particularly obvious when he was sat idle watching tv. He also showed a marked decrease in blinking frequency but had no evidence of dementia.
What is the most probable diagnosis associated with these symptoms?Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:Movement Disorders and Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Brief Overview
Movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases are conditions that affect the nervous system and can lead to a range of symptoms, including tremors, rigidity, and difficulty with voluntary movements. Parkinson’s disease is a common neurodegenerative disease that primarily affects the elderly and is characterized by hypokinesia, bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, lack of facial expression, and decreased blinking frequency. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, current treatment strategies involve the administration of L-dopa, which is metabolized to dopamine within the brain and can help stimulate the initiation of voluntary movements.
Huntington’s disease is another neurodegenerative disease that typically presents in middle-aged patients and is characterized by movement disorders, seizures, dementia, and ultimately death. Alzheimer’s disease is a degenerative disorder that can also lead to dementia, but it is not typically associated with movement disorders like Parkinson’s or Huntington’s disease.
In rare cases, damage to the subthalamic nucleus can cause movement disorders like ballism and hemiballism, which are characterized by uncontrolled movements of the limbs on the contralateral side of the body. While these conditions are rare, they highlight the complex interplay between different regions of the brain and the importance of understanding the underlying mechanisms of movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is seen in a specialist clinic with his mother. She asks the doctor if there is a treatment to slow the progression of the disease.
Which treatment slows the progression of muscle weakness in DMD?Your Answer: Gene therapy
Correct Answer: Steroids
Explanation:Treatment Options for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic condition that causes progressive muscle weakness and wasting due to the lack of the dystrophin protein. While there is currently no cure for DMD, there are several treatment options available to manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.
Steroids are the mainstay of pharmacological treatment for DMD. They can slow the decline in muscle strength and motor function if started before substantial physical decline and if the side-effects of long-term steroid use are effectively managed.
Ataluren is a medication that restores the synthesis of dystrophin in patients with nonsense mutations. It is used in patients aged less than five years with nonsense mutations who are able to walk and slows the decline in physical function.
Immunoglobulin therapy is sometimes used for autoimmune myositis, but has no role in the treatment of DMD.
Gene therapy seeks to manipulate the expression of a gene for therapeutic use in genetic conditions. Although there are currently clinical trials underway, gene therapy is not currently available for use in DMD.
Methotrexate and other disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs may be used in the treatment of myositis, but have no role in the treatment of DMD.
Biological therapies such as rituximab are often used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis, as well as myositis, but have no role in the treatment of DMD.
Managing Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Treatment Options
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?
Your Answer: 5% Dextrose
Explanation:Management of Severe Brain Injury
Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.
On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.
Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.
A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:
Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)
CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)
CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)
CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -
CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)
Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.
What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)
Explanation:The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Through which opening is the structure transmitted that passes through the base of the skull?
Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerves
Correct Answer: Spinal accessory nerves
Explanation:The Foramen Magnum and its Contents
The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull that allows for the passage of various structures. These structures include the medulla, which is the lower part of the brainstem responsible for vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. The meninges, which are the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord, also pass through the foramen magnum.
In addition, the foramen magnum transmits the vertebral arteries, which supply blood to the brainstem and cerebellum. The anterior and posterior spinal arteries, which provide blood to the spinal cord, also pass through this opening. The spinal accessory nerves, which control certain muscles in the neck and shoulders, and the sympathetic plexus, which regulates involuntary functions such as blood pressure and digestion, also pass through the foramen magnum.
Overall, the foramen magnum plays a crucial role in allowing for the passage of important structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the brain, spinal cord, and other vital organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the most common visual field defect associated with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Correct Answer: Central scotoma
Explanation:Visual Field Defects and Their Causes
Central scotoma refers to a reduction in vision at the point of fixation, which can interfere with central vision. This condition is often caused by a lesion between the optic nerve head and the chiasm and is commonly associated with retrobulbar neuritis and optic atrophy. Tunnel vision, on the other hand, occurs in conditions such as glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, and retinal panphotocoagulation. These conditions cause a loss of peripheral vision, resulting in a narrow visual field.
Another visual field defect is an increased blind spot, which is often caused by papilloedema. This condition can lead to optic atrophy and is characterized by an enlargement of the blind spot. Finally, optic chiasma compression can cause bitemporal hemianopia, which is a loss of vision in both temporal fields. This condition is often caused by tumors or other lesions that compress the optic chiasm. these different visual field defects and their causes is important for diagnosing and treating vision problems.
Overall, it is important to note that any changes in vision should be promptly evaluated by a healthcare professional. Early detection and treatment of visual field defects can help prevent further vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential?
Your Answer: By regulating opening and closing ion channels
Explanation:The Role of Ion Channels in Regulating Membrane Potential
The membrane potential of a cell is the voltage difference between the inside and outside of the cell membrane. This potential is influenced by the movement of ions across the membrane, which is determined by their valence and concentration gradient. However, the permeability of ions also plays a crucial role in regulating membrane potential. This is achieved through the presence of ion channels that can open and close in response to various stimuli, such as action potentials.
Neurons, for example, are able to regulate their membrane potential by controlling the opening and closing of ion channels. This allows them to maintain a stable resting potential and respond to changes in their environment. The permeability of ions through these channels is carefully regulated to ensure that the membrane potential remains within a certain range. This is essential for proper neuronal function and communication.
In summary, the regulation of membrane potential is a complex process that involves the movement of ions across the membrane and the opening and closing of ion channels. This process is critical for maintaining proper cellular function and communication, particularly in neurons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving following two unprovoked seizures in 48 hours. What advice do you give the patient regarding their ability to drive their car?
Your Answer: They must inform the DVLA and will be unfit to drive for at least five years
Correct Answer: They must inform the DVLA and will be unfit to drive for at least six months
Explanation:If an individual experiences a seizure, they must inform the DVLA. Depending on the circumstances, they may be unfit to drive for six months or up to five years if they drive a bus or lorry. It is important to note that the DVLA must always be informed of any neurological event that could affect driving ability. An assessment by a DVLA medical examiner is not conducted, but a private or NHS neurologist should evaluate the individual’s fitness to drive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye and visual loss. Upon examination, the doctor observes visual loss to counting fingers on the right, right eye proptosis, conjunctival injection, and acute tenderness on palpation. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 12 mm/hour. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carotid cavernous fistula
Explanation:Differentiating Acute Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Management
Carotid Cavernous Fistula: This condition presents with sudden painful visual loss, proptosis, conjunctival injection, and a firm, tender, and pulsatile eyeball. It is caused by an abnormal communication between the carotid artery and venous system within the cavernous sinus. Endovascular surgery is the recommended management to obliterate the fistula.
Giant Cell arthritis: This is a medical emergency that is uncommon in individuals under 50 years old. Symptoms include acute visual loss, tenderness over the temporal artery, jaw claudication, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of >50 mm/hour. Diagnosis is confirmed through a temporal artery biopsy.
Optic Neuritis: This condition presents as painful visual loss but is not associated with proptosis or changes to the conjunctiva. Optic disc pallor is a common symptom.
Keratoconus: This is a degenerative disorder that causes distortion of vision, which may be painful, due to structural changes within the cornea. It does not present acutely.
Acute Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis: Symptoms include retro-orbital pain, ophthalmoplegia (often complete, with involvement of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), and loss of sensation over the ophthalmic division on the trigeminal nerve ipsilateral. Horner’s syndrome may also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy spends the night out with his buddies, drinking 7 pints of beer and a few shots of whiskey. He dozes off in his friend's kitchen with his arm hanging over the back of a chair. The next morning, he experiences tenderness in his right armpit area and is unable to straighten his fingers. What other symptom is he likely to exhibit with this injury?
Your Answer: Numbness over the dorsal aspect of the right hand between the thumb and index finger
Explanation:Understanding Hand Numbness and Weakness: A Guide to Nerve Supply
Hand numbness and weakness can be caused by nerve injuries in various locations. The radial nerve, a branch of the brachial plexus, can be injured in the axillary region, humerus, or forearm, resulting in numbness over the dorsal aspect of the hand between the thumb and index finger. The ulnar nerve supplies the little finger and adductor pollicis, while the median nerve innervates the palm and radial lumbricals. Understanding the nerve supply can aid in diagnosing and treating hand numbness and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the ionic event that occurs just before the creation of fusion pores during neurotransmitter synaptic release?
Your Answer: Depolarisation
Correct Answer: Calcium ion influx
Explanation:The Process of Synaptic Neurotransmitter Release
Synaptic neurotransmitter release is a complex process that involves the depolarization of the presynaptic membrane, opening of voltage-gated calcium channels, influx of calcium ions, and binding of vesicle-associated membrane proteins (VAMPs). This causes a conformational change that leads to the fusion of the neurotransmitter vesicle with the presynaptic membrane, forming a fusion pore. The neurotransmitter is then released into the synaptic cleft, where it can bind to target receptors on the postsynaptic cell.
The postsynaptic density, which is an accumulation of specialized proteins, ensures that the postsynaptic receptors are in place to bind the released neurotransmitters. The only correct answer from the given options is calcium ion influx, as it is essential for the process of synaptic neurotransmitter release. this process is crucial for how neurons communicate with each other and how neurotransmitters affect behavior and cognition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic with sudden onset of left foot drop. Upon examination, it is found that she has weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and eversion. There is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of her foot. All reflexes are present and plantars flexor. Which nerve is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Peroneal Neuropathy
Peroneal neuropathy is a condition that typically manifests as sudden foot drop. When a patient is examined, the weakness in the foot and ankle is limited to dorsiflexion of the ankle and toes, as well as eversion of the ankle. However, the ankle reflex (which is mediated by the tibial nerve) and the knee reflex (which is mediated by the femoral nerve) remain intact. In terms of sensory involvement, the lower two-thirds of the lateral leg and the dorsum of the foot may be affected.
It is important to note that peroneal neuropathy is distinct from other nerve issues that may affect the lower leg and foot. For example, sciatic nerve problems may result in impaired knee flexion, while tibial nerve lesions may lead to weakness in foot flexion and pain on the plantar surface. By the specific symptoms and signs of peroneal neuropathy, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to your GP Surgery with worry about an incident that occurred earlier in the day. He vaguely describes experiencing epigastric discomfort, followed by a tingling sensation down his arms and the scent of cooking bacon. Additionally, he reports feeling generally unwell. He did not lose consciousness during the episode. Upon further questioning, he mentions having experienced similar symptoms before. You observe that he has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and had a stroke four months ago.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Focal aware seizure
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Focal Aware Seizures
Focal aware seizures, also known as simple focal seizures or auras, are a type of seizure that do not result in loss of awareness. Patients may experience vague discomfort, unusual smells or tastes, tingling, or twitching in an arm or leg. It is important to note that these seizures can be a sign of another type of seizure to come. Risk factors include head trauma and previous stroke.
Malingering, or feigning symptoms for secondary gain, should be considered but is a diagnosis of exclusion. It is important to thoroughly investigate the patient’s symptoms before making this diagnosis.
Focal impaired awareness seizures, previously known as complex focal seizures, result in memory loss, loss of awareness, and automatic bodily movements. This is not the case for a patient with focal aware seizures.
Gastritis may be a differential due to the patient’s epigastric pain, but it does not fit with the other neurological symptoms.
Psychotic hallucinations should be considered but are less likely given the patient’s coherent description of events and lack of history or risk factors for mental illness.
In summary, when presented with a patient experiencing focal aware seizures, it is important to consider other neurological conditions before making a diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the outpatient clinic. She has no facial weakness, and examination of the eyes reveals a full range of movement. She reports no difficulties with vision, smell, taste, hearing or balance, and facial and pharyngeal sensation is normal. Her gag reflex is present and normal, and she can shrug her shoulders equally on both sides. Her speech is slurred and indistinct, and on protruding her tongue, it deviates to the right side and there is notable fasciculation and atrophy of the musculature on the right.
With what are these findings most likely to be associated?Your Answer: Lower motor neurone lesion of the right glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Lower motor neurone lesion of the right cranial nerve XII
Explanation:Differentiating Lesions of Cranial Nerves Involved in Tongue Movement and Sensation
Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
Fasciculation and atrophy indicate a lower motor neurone lesion. In this case, the tongue deviates to the side of the damage due to unopposed action of the genioglossus of the opposite side. The cranial nerve involved in motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is the hypoglossal cranial nerve (XII).Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage, in this case to the left.Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage. Even though the tongue does deviate to the right in this case, the presence of atrophy is seen in LMN and not in UMN.Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
This would cause lower motor neurone symptoms (weakness and flaccidity) on the left side.Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Glossopharyngeal Nerve:
The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) provides the posterior third of the tongue with taste and somatic sensation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and feeling generally unwell for the past two days. She denies having a rash, neck stiffness, photophobia, or vomiting. Her vital signs are within normal limits. The medical team suspects she may have viral encephalitis and orders a computed tomography head scan and lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.
The initial CSF results confirm the suspected diagnosis, showing a normal opening pressure and CSF glucose level, with a slightly elevated white cell count, mostly lymphocytes, and a protein level of 0.6 g/l (normal value < 0.45 g/l). While waiting for the CSF culture results, what is the most appropriate management for this 20-year-old woman?Your Answer: acyclovir
Explanation:Treatment Options for Suspected Encephalitis or Meningitis
Encephalitis is a condition where the brain parenchyma is infected, while meningitis is characterized by inflammation of the meninges. A patient with symptoms of fever, headache, and altered mental state may have viral encephalitis, which is commonly caused by herpes simplex virus type I. In such cases, acyclovir should be started immediately, as it has been proven to improve morbidity and mortality. On the other hand, empirical ceftriaxone is often used for suspected bacterial meningitis, while benzylpenicillin is recommended for patients with a non-blanching rash. Dexamethasone is used to reduce inflammation in certain cases of bacterial meningitis. However, supportive management alone with analgesia is not appropriate for suspected encephalitis or meningitis. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and initial CSF results before deciding on the appropriate treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 28-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness of the arms and legs over 1 week. Three weeks earlier, she had an episode of diarrhoea lasting 5 days. Examination confirms distal weakness and ‘glove-and-stocking’ sensory loss.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ascending Paralysis and Glove-and-Stocking Weakness
The patient presents with acute progressive ascending paralysis and glove-and-stocking weakness, which is typical of Guillain–Barré syndrome. However, cranial nerve palsies can also occur. It is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as multiple sclerosis, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, diabetic neuropathy, and acute intermittent porphyria. MS is characterised by lesions separated in both space and time, while subacute combined degeneration of the cord is secondary to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and presents with progressive limb weakness, paraesthesiae, and visual disturbances. Diabetic neuropathy usually causes sensory impairment, not motor impairment, and acute intermittent porphyria manifests with a constellation of symptoms, including abdominal pain, peripheral and autonomic neuropathies, and proximal motor weakness. A thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and homonymous superior quadrantanopia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe tumour
Explanation:Homonymous Superior Quadrantanopia
Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is a condition that affects the upper, outer half of one side of the visual field in both eyes. This deficit is typically caused by the interruption of Meyer’s loop of the optic radiation. It can be an early indication of temporal lobe disease or a residual effect of a temporal lobectomy. To remember the different types of quandrantanopias, the mnemonic PITS can be used, which stands for Parietal Inferior Temporal Superior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned pregnancy. She has a history of grand mal epilepsy for two years and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has not had any seizures for the past six months and wishes to continue with the pregnancy if it is safe for her and the baby. She is concerned about the effects of her anticonvulsant therapy on the fetus and seeks advice on how to proceed. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Stop carbamazepine until the second trimester
Correct Answer: Continue with carbamazepine
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants tend to fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Vitamin K should be given to the mother prior to delivery. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 60-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife due to sudden onset of incoherent speech. Upon physical examination, he exhibits right-sided weakness in the upper and lower extremities, a right facial droop, and a loss of sensation in the upper and lower extremities. An initial CT scan of the head reveals no acute changes, and treatment with tissue plasminogen activator is initiated. Which arterial territory is most likely affected by this neurological event?
Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Explanation:Cerebral Arteries and Their Effects on the Brain
The brain is supplied with blood by several arteries, each with its own specific distribution and function. The middle cerebral artery (MCA) is the largest and most commonly affected by stroke. It supplies the outer surface of the brain, including the parietal lobe and basal ganglia. Infarctions in this area can result in paralysis and sensory loss on the opposite side of the body, as well as aphasia or hemineglect.
The posterior cerebral artery supplies the thalamus and inferior temporal gyrus, and infarctions here can cause contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing. The anterior cerebral artery supplies the front part of the corpus callosum and superior frontal gyrus, and infarctions can result in paralysis and sensory loss of the lower limb.
The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) supplies the posterior inferior cerebellum, inferior cerebellar vermis, and lateral medulla. Occlusion of the PICA can cause vertigo, nausea, and truncal ataxia. Finally, the basilar artery supplies the brainstem and thalamus, and acute occlusion can result in sudden and severe neurological impairment.
Understanding the specific functions and distributions of these cerebral arteries can help in diagnosing and treating stroke and other cerebrovascular accidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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