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  • Question 1 - Given that John, an 18-year-old rugby player, has suffered a complete tear in...

    Correct

    • Given that John, an 18-year-old rugby player, has suffered a complete tear in his anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) after being tackled sideways, what would be the most effective course of treatment for him? He experienced a popping sound and now has a swollen, unstable and painful knee that cannot bear weight. MRI results confirmed the injury.

      Your Answer: Operative repair with anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction

      Explanation:

      Managing Anterior Cruciate Ligament Tears: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears are common injuries among athletes and active individuals. The best management option for a fit and active sportsman or sportswoman is an ACL reconstruction, which reduces the risk of further injury to the cartilage and meniscus and may prevent future osteoarthritis. Reconstruction can be performed using various grafts, such as bone-patella-bone autograft, quadruple hamstring autograft, quadriceps tendon autograft, or allograft. Physical therapy and avoidance of contact sports may be an option for patients with low physical demand, but not for those who wish to return to their previous level of activity. Rest, ice, compression, and elevation (RICE) can provide symptomatic relief but do not address the underlying issue. Knee bracing with an immobilizer, analgesia, and physiotherapy may be an option for incomplete tears of the medial and lateral collateral ligament. Ligament repair has a high failure rate and is rarely used. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the severity of the injury, the patient’s goals and expectations, and the potential risks and benefits of each option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      24.7
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  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old woman experiences severe lumbar back pain that radiates around to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman experiences severe lumbar back pain that radiates around to the waist after a coughing fit. She is not taking any medications and her clinical observations are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mechanical back pain

      Correct Answer: Osteoporotic wedge fracture

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Back Pain in a 72-Year-Old Woman

      Back pain is a common complaint in primary care, and its differential diagnosis can be challenging. In this case, a 72-year-old woman presents with back pain after a coughing fit. The following conditions are considered and ruled out based on the available information:

      – Osteoporotic wedge fracture: postmenopausal women are at increased risk of osteoporosis, which can lead to vertebral fractures from minor trauma. This possibility should be considered in any older patient with back pain, especially if there is a history of osteoporosis or low-trauma injury.
      – Herniated lumbar disc prolapse: This condition typically causes sciatica, which is pain that radiates down the leg to the ankle. The absence of this symptom makes it less likely.
      – Mechanical back pain: This is a common cause of back pain, especially in older adults. It is usually aggravated by heavy lifting and prolonged standing or sitting, but not necessarily by coughing.
      – Osteoarthritis: This condition can cause back pain, especially in the lower back, but it is not typically associated with coughing. It tends to worsen with activity and improve with rest.
      – Osteomyelitis: This is a serious infection of the bone that can cause severe pain and fever. It is less likely in this case because the patient’s clinical observations are normal.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for back pain in a 72-year-old woman includes several possibilities, such as osteoporotic fracture, herniated disc, mechanical pain, osteoarthritis, and osteomyelitis. A thorough history and physical examination, along with appropriate imaging and laboratory tests, can help narrow down the possibilities and guide the management plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having...

    Incorrect

    • After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having difficulty raising his right arm. The weakness is found to be of abduction of the right shoulder with particular difficulty initiating the movement. The movement at the shoulder that can be elicited is not particularly painful and there is no loss of cutaneous sensation.
      Which one of the following structures is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Infraspinatus muscle

      Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The suprascapular nerve arises from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are involved in shoulder abduction and external rotation. It also supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the posterior aspect of the shoulder. Injury to this nerve often results from repetitive overhead lifting, and athletes involved in sports like tennis and volleyball are at particular risk. In the case of the patient described, the injury is likely due to repetitive compression of the nerve from his backpack while hiking. Damage to the axillary nerve would result in loss of motor and sensory function to the deltoid and teres minor muscles, while injury to the deltoid muscle would result in difficulty of shoulder abduction and pain. Damage to the subacromial bursa would not significantly impair shoulder function but would be painful. The infraspinatus muscle is not responsible for initiating shoulder abduction and a muscle lesion would likely be painful, making it an unlikely option for the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      30
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral bisphosphonates. She expresses concern about the potential side-effects of the medication.
      What is the most frequent side-effect she may encounter?

      Your Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent bone loss and treat conditions such as Paget’s disease, hypercalcaemia, and metastatic bone disease. However, they can cause side-effects such as oesophagitis, gastritis, and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Patients are advised to take bisphosphonates with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30-60 minutes after ingestion to reduce the risk of upper gastrointestinal symptoms. Other side-effects include fever, myalgias, and arthralgias, which are more common with intravenous bisphosphonate therapy. Hypercalcaemia is not a common side-effect, and bisphosphonates can actually help treat it. Atrial fibrillation and femoral shaft fractures are not commonly associated with bisphosphonate use, but osteonecrosis of the jaw is a rare but well-known side-effect that can be reduced with antibiotic prophylaxis before dental interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A healthy 28-year-old woman wants to start preparing for an upcoming sports event....

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 28-year-old woman wants to start preparing for an upcoming sports event. She undergoes exercise stress testing.
      What is the most probable occurrence in this woman's skeletal muscles during exercise?

      Your Answer: Increased oxygen concentration

      Correct Answer: Increased arteriolar diameter

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Blood Flow in Exercising Muscles

      During exercise, several factors affect blood flow in the muscles. One of these factors is the diameter of the arterioles, which can increase due to vasodilation of muscle arterioles. Another factor is the concentration of metabolites, such as adenosine, carbon dioxide, and lactic acid, which accumulate in the tissues due to oxygen deficiency and cause vasodilation.

      As a result of these factors, blood flow to the muscles can increase up to 20-fold during exercise, which is the greatest increase in any tissue in the body. This increase in blood flow is mainly due to the actions of local vasodilator substances on the muscle arterioles.

      However, the increased demand for oxygen during exercise can also lead to a decrease in oxygen concentration in the tissues. This, in turn, can cause an increase in vascular resistance, which can further affect blood flow to the muscles.

      Overall, understanding the factors that affect blood flow in exercising muscles is important for optimizing exercise performance and preventing injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      14.7
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman was assaulted with a cricket bat during a domestic altercation....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman was assaulted with a cricket bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
      Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Upper Arm: Course and Vulnerability to Injury

      The upper arm is innervated by several nerves, each with a distinct course and function. The radial nerve, formed from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, runs deep with the brachial artery and is at risk for injury during midshaft humeral fractures. It has both sensory and motor components, which can be tested separately. The axillary nerve, intimately related to the surgical neck of the humerus, is at risk in fractures of this area but not in midshaft humeral fractures. The ulnar nerve passes medially to the radial nerve and is not at risk in midshaft humeral fractures. The median nerve, more superficial than the radial nerve, has a distinct course and is less likely to be injured in midshaft humeral fractures. The musculocutaneous nerve, also more superficial than the radial nerve, has a distinct course and is less likely to be injured in midshaft humeral fractures. Understanding the course and vulnerability of these nerves is important in diagnosing and treating upper arm injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      7.8
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman injures her left hand and seeks medical attention at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman injures her left hand and seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left anatomical snuffbox. Specialized scaphoid views (X-rays) are taken, but no abnormality is detected. However, there is still clinical suspicion of a fracture. What should be the next most suitable step?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) wrist after 3 days

      Correct Answer: Repeat scaphoid views in 10-14 days

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Repeat Scaphoid Views in Suspected Fractures

      When a scaphoid fracture is suspected but not visible on initial X-rays, it is recommended to repeat the radiographs in 10-14 days. During this time, bone resorption around the fracture occurs, making the diagnosis easier. However, proceeding without treatment is not advised due to the risk of avascular necrosis. Requesting another lateral view or a bone scan would not be appropriate. Instead, a cast is usually applied after the acute injury and remains in place until the fracture is diagnosed. MRI wrist imaging after only 3 days is not necessary in this setting. Repeat scaphoid views are crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      29.1
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  • Question 8 - A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The patient notes that she also has symptoms of numbness and tingling of her right hand and wrist, which seem to be worse at night, but improve when she hangs her arm down by the side of the bed. She has also had some difficulty gripping objects and finds it increasingly difficult opening bottles and jars. The clinician suspects that she may have carpal tunnel syndrome.
      These clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome are due to compression of which structure?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Related Nerves and Arteries

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, a canal located on the anterior side of the wrist. The tunnel is composed of carpal bones, with the flexor retinaculum forming its roof. The median nerve and tendons of flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus pass through this tunnel. Inflammation of the ulnar bursa sheath can compress the median nerve, leading to pain and weakness in the hand. However, the radial and ulnar arteries and nerves do not pass through the carpal tunnel. Compression of the radial or ulnar artery can result in ischaemic symptoms, while the ulnar nerve may become entrapped in the cubital tunnel, causing cubital tunnel syndrome. Understanding the anatomy and related conditions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of wrist and hand pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      82.3
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old man has a high thoracic spine injury at T2 sustained from...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man has a high thoracic spine injury at T2 sustained from a motorbike accident. He is now 10 days post injury and has had a spinal fixation. He is paraplegic with a sensory level at T2. He has had a normal blood pressure today requiring no haemodynamic support. You are called to see him on the trauma ward as he has a tachycardia at about 150/beat per minute and very high blood pressure, up to 230/110 mmHg. The nurses have just changed his catheter. He says he feels slightly strange, sweaty and flushed in his face.
      What would explain this?

      Your Answer: Autonomic dysreflexia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autonomic Dysreflexia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differentiation from Other Conditions

      Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition characterized by hypertension, sweating, and flushing, with bradycardia being a common feature. It occurs due to excessive sympathetic activity in the absence of parasympathetic supply in a high spinal lesion, typically above the level of T6. The exact physiology of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed to be a reaction to a stimulus below the level of the spinal lesion. Simple stimuli such as urinary tract infection, a full bladder, or bladder or rectal instrumentation can trigger autonomic dysreflexia. It usually occurs at least 10 days after the injury and after the initial spinal shock has resolved.

      Differentiating autonomic dysreflexia from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Pulmonary embolus, for instance, is associated with sinus tachycardia but rarely causes hypertension. Neurogenic shock, on the other hand, causes hypotension and occurs at the acute onset of the injury. Stress cardiomyopathy is typically associated with head injury and causes heart failure and hypotension. Anxiety and depression are unlikely to cause such a swift and marked rise in blood pressure and heart rate and would typically be associated with hyperventilation. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and differentiation of autonomic dysreflexia is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      19.7
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman suffered a severe crushing injury to her left upper leg...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman suffered a severe crushing injury to her left upper leg in a motor vehicle accident. She sustained a severe contusion around the neck and head of the fibula.
      Which nerve is susceptible to compression at the lateral head and neck of the fibula?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Anatomy of the Leg: Common Peroneal, Deep Peroneal, Superficial Peroneal, Saphenous, and Tibial Nerves

      The leg is innervated by several nerves, each with its own specific functions. One of these nerves is the common peroneal nerve, which descends through the popliteal fossa and runs parallel to the biceps femoris insertion tendon. It then curves around the fibular head and neck before dividing into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve innervates the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. On the other hand, the superficial peroneal nerve supplies the peroneus longus and brevis before providing cutaneous innervation to the dorsal skin of the foot.

      Another nerve that supplies cutaneous innervation to the leg is the saphenous nerve. It passes superficial to the femoral triangle and is not likely to be damaged in injuries involving the fibula.

      Finally, the tibial nerve arises in the distal third of the thigh and passes deep through the popliteal fossa. It does not pass close to the fibula but instead leaves the fossa, passing through the two heads of the gastrocnemius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      37.9
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his right foot is ‘dropping’ as he walks. Upon examination, you observe that he is unable to dorsiflex his foot, although plantar flexion is normal. Additionally, he exhibits weakness of ankle eversion and some loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of his calf. After conducting a full systemic examination, you find no other abnormalities. The patient has no significant past medical history, except for a distal tibial fracture, which was in a plaster cast until 3 days ago. He works as a builder and consumes approximately 40 units of alcohol per week. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy: Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Explanation: The patient in question is experiencing a foot drop, which is a classic symptom of common peroneal nerve palsy in the right foot. This nerve is responsible for the sensory aspect of the lateral calf and dorsal aspect of the foot, as well as the muscles that evert and dorsiflex the foot and dorsiflexion the toes. Patients with this condition are unable to walk on their heels.

      Common causes of common peroneal nerve palsy include compression of the nerve at the head of the fibula, which is often superficial. In this case, the patient’s plaster cast following a fracture may have caused the compression.

      Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are unlikely causes, as the patient has no joint pain. Peripheral neuropathy, which typically presents with numbness and tingling in a glove and stocking distribution, is also unlikely as the patient’s symptoms are localized to the common peroneal nerve.

      A lateral ligament complex injury of the ankle may cause difficulty in eversion, but it would be preceded by an ankle injury and would be very painful, without any neurological symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
      Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and runs alongside the deep brachial artery in the spiral groove of the humeral shaft. It is susceptible to damage during midshaft humeral fractures, resulting in loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the hand and weakness in wrist extension. The ulnar nerve is located medially to the radial nerve and is not typically affected by midshaft humeral fractures. However, it can be injured by a fracture of the medial epicondyle, resulting in weakness in wrist flexion and loss of adduction and sensation in the medial aspect of the hand. The axillary nerve branches closer to the shoulder and is prone to injury with shoulder dislocation, causing weakness in the deltoid muscle. The median nerve is not located near the midshaft of the humerus but can be injured in various ways, resulting in sensory and motor deficits. The musculocutaneous nerve passes over the brachialis muscle and can be affected by entrapment or upper brachial plexus injury, causing weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination and sensory loss on the radial aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      8.3
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman visits the Menopause clinic seeking guidance on hormone replacement therapy...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits the Menopause clinic seeking guidance on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). She is worried about her chances of developing osteoporosis, as her mother and sister experienced pelvic fractures due to osteoporosis after menopause. What is the most effective test to determine her likelihood of developing osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a common condition among postmenopausal women, with a high risk of fractures. Genetic predisposition, lack of exercise, and immobility are some of the contributing factors. To diagnose osteoporosis, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is a commonly used test to measure bone density. It compares the patient’s bone density with that of their peer group to estimate the risk of fractures. The T-score and Z-score are used to interpret the results. A T-score higher than −1 is normal, between −1 and −2.5 is osteopenia, and below −2.5 is osteoporotic. A Z-score compares the patient’s bone density with that of individuals of the same sex, age, weight, and ethnicity.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis may suggest osteopenia, but a DEXA scan is needed for a diagnosis. Pelvic X-ray is used to detect pelvic fractures. Serum alkaline phosphatase is normal in osteoporosis patients, while serum calcium is useful in ruling out alternative diagnoses.

      In conclusion, early diagnosis of osteoporosis is crucial to prevent fractures and improve quality of life. DEXA scan is the gold standard for measuring bone density, while other tests may be used to rule out alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      9.5
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  • Question 14 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain, swelling, and bruising after an inversion injury while playing football. What clinical signs would indicate the need for an ankle X-ray?

      Your Answer: Pain in the mid foot, with bony tenderness at the base of the first metatarsal

      Correct Answer: Inability to weight-bear and pain over the lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules for X-rays in Ankle and Foot Injuries

      The Ottawa ankle rules are used to determine whether an X-ray is necessary for ankle and foot injuries. If there is pain in the malleolar zone plus bony tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or inability to weight-bear immediately post-injury and in the ED, an ankle X-ray is required. However, inability to weight-bear alone is not an indication for an X-ray, but a thorough assessment is necessary to rule out a bony injury. For foot X-rays, pain in the midfoot and bony tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal or navicular bone, or inability to weight-bear, are indications. Pain alone is not an indication for an ankle X-ray, and bony tenderness at the base of the first metatarsal does not warrant an X-ray. Understanding these rules can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about X-rays for ankle and foot injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      10.9
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  • Question 15 - What advice would you give Mrs Rose regarding her 3-year-old toddler who she...

    Correct

    • What advice would you give Mrs Rose regarding her 3-year-old toddler who she is concerned has 'flat feet'? She is anxious and distressed and has been advised that her child needs an early operation and expensive orthotics to reverse the condition. However, upon examination, you observe that the toddler is a happy child with full mobility and no pain. The foot only appears flat when standing, but the arch reconstitutes when the child is toe walking or hanging their foot.

      Your Answer: Reassure her that in asymptomatic patients, the arch will normally develop with age and resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Pes Planovalgus

      Pes planovalgus, also known as flat foot, is a common condition characterized by a decrease in the medial longitudinal arch with a valgus hindfoot and forefoot abduction with weight-bearing. While most cases resolve spontaneously, some individuals may experience arch or pretibial pain. However, asymptomatic patients can be reassured that the arch will normally develop with age.

      Non-operative management is typically recommended, with symptomatic patients finding relief with athletic heels or orthotics such as heel cups. Surgical intervention, such as Achilles tendon or gastrocnemius fascia lengthening or calcaneal lengthening osteotomy, is reserved for chronic, painful cases that have failed non-operative therapy. Bed rest and partial weight-bearing are not indicated in the treatment of pes planovalgus.

      Overall, understanding and managing pes planovalgus involves proper diagnosis, reassurance for asymptomatic patients, and appropriate non-operative or surgical intervention for symptomatic cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      71.9
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  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness of pincer grip and pain and laxity on valgus stress of his thumb. What is the most probable injury?

      Your Answer: Extensor pollicis longus strain

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb injury

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury, also known as skier’s/gamekeeper’s thumb. This injury occurs when the thumb is forcefully abducted, causing damage to the UCL of the metacarpophalangeal joint. Symptoms include weak pincer grip, reduced range of motion, swelling, and burning pain. Treatment involves immobilization with a thumb spica, and surgery may be necessary for complete UCL rupture.

      Another injury is a scaphoid fracture, which often occurs in older individuals who fall onto outstretched arms. Symptoms include pain and swelling in the anatomical snuff box, reduced range of motion, and pain with wrist and thumb movement. Fractures in the proximal one-third of the bone or displaced fractures may require surgery to prevent avascular necrosis.

      Extensor pollicis longus strain is another injury that can occur from repetitive thumb and wrist extension, such as in manual labor or gardening. Symptoms include pain over the thumb and dorsal wrist, worsened with palpation and extension. Treatment involves rest, ice, and pain relief.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons, which pass through the first dorsal compartment. Symptoms include pain and swelling on the lateral aspect of the wrist, and pain is reproduced with Finkelstein’s test.

      Finally, Bennett’s fracture is a less common injury that often occurs in boxing and can lead to osteoarthritis later in life. It is an intra-articular fracture of the first metacarpal bone, causing pain, bruising, swelling, and difficulty with pincer grip. Treatment may involve open reduction and fixation if there is significant displacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      128.9
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he sustained while playing basketball. Upon examination, you discover an anterior dislocation of his right shoulder. What pre- and post-relocation test must you perform?

      Your Answer: Examine axillary nerve function in the affected arm

      Explanation:

      Assessing Vascular and Nerve Injury in Anterior Shoulder Dislocation: Important Tests to Consider

      When examining a patient with anterior shoulder dislocation, it is crucial to assess for vascular and nerve injury in the affected arm. One way to test nerve function is by assessing sensation in the regimental patch area over the deltoid muscle. An X-ray before and after relocation is necessary to check for fractures and confirm successful reduction. If there is vascular injury, it will be evident from the examination of the limb, and urgent referral to surgeons is required. Checking the brachial pulse is acceptable to assess for vascular injury, and examining axillary nerve function before and after relocation is mandatory. Ultrasound of the affected limb may be helpful in identifying soft tissue injuries, but it is not as crucial as the other tests mentioned. Overall, a thorough assessment of vascular and nerve function is essential in managing anterior shoulder dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.
      Which one of the following is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), also known as skier’s thumb. This injury can cause pain and weakness in grasping or pinching movements. Another ligament that can be injured is the radial collateral ligament (RCL), which is important for pinch. RCL injuries typically occur during sports or after a fall onto the radial aspect of the thumb and hand.

      A Bennett fracture is another serious injury that can affect the thumb. This is an oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, often caused by a blow on a partially flexed first metacarpal. It can cause severe pain and swelling, and usually requires surgical intervention.

      De Quervain tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath of the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. This can cause pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, as well as difficulty gripping. Corticosteroid injections are often used to manage this condition.

      Finally, a scaphoid fracture can occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand, causing pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the wrist. Treatment typically involves a scaphoid cast to immobilize the wrist and prevent complications such as avascular necrosis, non-union, and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      14.4
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  • Question 19 - An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after she fell off a swing. She reports that she was able to brace her fall with her left hand. In the Emergency Department, the patient’s vitals are stable. Examination of the left upper extremity demonstrates tenderness above the elbow, with evidence of soft tissue swelling. A plain film demonstrates a supracondylar fracture of the left humerus.
      Which of the following structures is most at risk?

      Your Answer: Ulnar artery

      Correct Answer: Brachial artery

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Potential Vascular and Nerve Injuries in Supracondylar Fractures of the Humerus

      Supracondylar fractures of the humerus are more common in children than in adults and can result in significant vascular and nerve injuries. The brachial artery, located anteriorly to the humerus, is at significant risk for injury resulting in compartment syndrome or Volkmann’s contracture. The radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm, runs along the radial groove in the midshaft of the humerus and is more likely injured in midshaft fractures or after prolonged compression of the posterior aspect of the arm. The median nerve may also be injured in supracondylar fractures, but is less likely to be affected than the brachial artery or ulnar nerve. The ulnar artery and radial artery are distal continuations of the brachial artery and are not directly injured in supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Understanding the potential vascular and nerve injuries associated with supracondylar fractures is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
      Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand

      Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function

      Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 21 - A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an outstretched hand and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to Accident and Emergency and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture. The skin is intact and there is only minor swelling below the elbow, with normal distal pulses.
      Which of the following problems is this child most likely to experience?

      Your Answer: Volkmann’s contracture (flexion contracture of the hand and wrist)

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Supracondylar Humeral Fractures

      Supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, depending on the location and severity of the fracture. The following are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:

      1. Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion: This is most likely due to damage to the median nerve, which innervates these fingers and the flexors in the forearm.

      2. Loss of cutaneous sensation over the area over the shoulder: This is unlikely to be caused by a closed supracondylar fracture, as the cutaneous innervation in that area is a branch of the axillary nerve.

      3. Atrophy of the extensor muscles of the forearm: This is a result of damage to the radial nerve, which is responsible for the extensor mechanisms of the arm.

      4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is most likely due to an ulnar nerve injury, which could occur due to an injury of the medial humeral epicondyle.

      5. Volkmann’s contracture (flexion contracture of the hand and wrist): This is caused by lack of circulation in the forearm due to brachial artery damage, leading to tissue death and fibrosis of the muscles. However, this diagnosis can be ruled out if there are distal pulses and lack of excessive swelling.

      In summary, supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, and it is important to identify and manage them appropriately to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 22 - A 21-year-old woman involved in a motorbike accident is brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman involved in a motorbike accident is brought to the Emergency Department at 10 pm. Her airway is patent; the respiratory rate is 20/minute with normal pulse oximetry and a clear chest; she is slightly tachycardic but is well perfused with a normal blood pressure. She is found to have a tibial fracture on the right side. The broken bone is visible through a break in the skin.
      Which of the following is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Stabilise, give IV abx and take to theatre on the earliest scheduled trauma list

      Explanation:

      Management of Open Fractures

      Open fractures are a medical emergency that require urgent surgical intervention to reduce the risk of deep space infection and osteomyelitis. The management of these fractures should adhere to the principles of ATLS and undergo a full ABCDE assessment. After ensuring the patient is stable, the fracture can be assessed, including neurovascular status distal to the fracture.

      If the fracture is open, it is contaminated, and early surgery is required to allow thorough cleaning of the wound. Additional management whilst awaiting surgery includes adequate analgesia, documentation of the injury (including photographs), dressing the wound with sterile saline soaked gauze, IV antibiotics, and tetanus cover.

      All fractures require reduction and fixation, but open fractures require urgent washout and debridement to prevent deep space infection and osteomyelitis. This should not be delayed any longer than necessary. If the patient is stable, listing them for the trauma list the next day is appropriate, and they would likely be first on the list. If there is neurovascular compromise or the patient’s condition deteriorates, taking them to theatre overnight would be appropriate.

      Conservative management is not appropriate for open fractures. The injury necessitates surgical washout to reduce the risk of deep space infection and osteomyelitis.

      In conclusion, open fractures require urgent surgical intervention to reduce the risk of infection. Adequate analgesia, documentation, dressing, IV antibiotics, and tetanus cover are required whilst awaiting surgery. Conservative management is not appropriate, and surgical washout is necessary to prevent deep space infection and osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 23 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever. His father informs the admitting doctor that the child has had a temperature for three days, has been irritable, and is quite inactive. The child has also mentioned that his right leg has been sore, and has been reluctant to walk, although there has been no history of injury.
      On examination, the child has a temperature of 39 oC, and the doctor notes an area of swelling and redness over the right shin. Following investigation, a diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis is made.
      Which one of the following is true about acute osteomyelitis in children?

      Your Answer: Spread from local cellulitis is the most common

      Correct Answer: The most common site is metaphysis of the femur

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Common Sites, Risk Factors, and Causative Organisms

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria spreading through the bloodstream, local cellulitis, or penetrating trauma. The most common site of infection in children is the metaphysis of the long bones, while in adults, it is the vertebrae, followed by the humerus, maxilla, and mandibular bones. X-rays may not show abnormalities in the early stages, but bone scans can provide more detailed imaging. Intravenous drug usage is a significant risk factor, and Salmonella species are the most common causative organism in patients with sickle-cell anaemia, while S. aureus, group A Streptococcus species, Haemophilus influenzae, and Enterobacter species are common in adults and children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot internally or externally rotate or abduct the shoulder. The patient has a history of diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Common Shoulder Conditions and Their Symptoms

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that allows for a wide range of movements. However, it is also prone to various conditions that can cause pain and limit mobility. Here are some common shoulder conditions and their symptoms:

      1. Adhesive capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder): This condition is characterized by stiffness and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint. It can last up to 18-24 months and is more common in diabetics.

      2. Rotator cuff tendonitis: This condition causes pain and tenderness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the arm. However, some degree of abduction (up to 120 degrees) is still possible.

      3. Subacromial impingement: This condition causes pain and discomfort when lifting the arm, especially during abduction. However, some degree of movement is still possible.

      4. Medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow): This condition affects the elbow and causes pain and tenderness on the inner side of the elbow.

      5. Shoulder dislocation: This is an acute condition that causes severe pain and requires emergency medical attention.

      Treatment for these conditions may include painkillers, anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroid injections, physiotherapy, and gentle exercise. It is important to seek medical advice if you experience any shoulder pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 25 - How does teriparatide, a derivative of parathyroid hormone (PTH), help in treating severe...

    Incorrect

    • How does teriparatide, a derivative of parathyroid hormone (PTH), help in treating severe osteoporosis despite the fact that primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism are associated with loss of bone mass?

      Your Answer: By helping in calcium resorption from bone

      Correct Answer: By having a direct anabolic effect on bone

      Explanation:

      The Mechanisms of Parathyroid Hormone in Osteoporosis Treatment

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a complex role in the treatment of osteoporosis. While chronic elevation of PTH can lead to bone loss, mild elevations can help maintain trabecular bone mass. Teriparatide, a medication that mimics PTH, has been shown to increase bone mass and improve skeletal structure. However, PTH’s ability to increase bone remodelling is not beneficial in osteoporosis treatment, and chronic elevation can worsen the condition by increasing calcium resorption. PTH can activate the enzyme needed for activating vitamin D, but this is not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Additionally, PTH can decrease calcium excretion from the kidneys, but this is also not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Overall, PTH’s direct anabolic effect on bone is the most significant mechanism for its use in osteoporosis treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 26 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and swollen knee joint. The issue began approximately 24 hours ago. His temperature is currently 38.2°C and blood cultures have been collected and sent for testing. During the examination, the knee is extremely sensitive, and the pain is causing limited mobility. This patient has no significant medical history and this is his first occurrence of this type of problem.
      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Aspirate knee joint and send for cell count, microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Management of Acutely Hot and Swollen Knee Joint: Aspiration, Antibiotics, and Arthroscopy

      Any patient presenting with an acutely hot and swollen joint should be treated as septic arthritis until proven otherwise. To diagnose and treat this condition early, the knee joint should be aspirated and the aspirate should be analyzed for white cells and microorganisms. IV antibiotics are necessary after the knee joint has been aspirated to increase the yield of the knee aspiration. Blood cultures have already been taken and further cultures are not required at this stage. An ultrasound scan of the knee may reveal increased joint fluid and swelling suggestive of infection or inflammation, but it will not confirm any infection. After the knee aspiration, if there was any pus, an arthroscopy and washout of the joint should be done to clear the joint of the infective fluid and protect the articular junction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of right shoulder pain over the past few months. He reports that the pain increases with overhead movement of the shoulder. Upon examination, the patient displays weakness and pain during abduction and forward flexion of the shoulder. Which rotator cuff muscle is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles: Functions and Injuries

      The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. Among these muscles are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, deltoid, and teres minor. Each muscle has a specific function and can be affected by different types of injuries.

      The supraspinatus muscle is commonly affected in rotator cuff syndrome, which is caused by repetitive use of the shoulder joint. This muscle is responsible for abduction of the shoulder and is vulnerable to chronic repetitive trauma due to its location between the humeral head and the acromioclavicular joint.

      The infraspinatus muscle, which is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder, is the second most common rotator cuff muscle to be involved in a tear after the supraspinatus.

      The subscapularis muscle, which is mainly involved in internal rotation of the shoulder, is also a rotator cuff muscle but is seldom involved in rotator cuff tears.

      The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is not a rotator cuff muscle but is responsible for abduction of the shoulder in the frontal plane. Deltoid tears are unusual and are related to traumatic shoulder dislocation or can be associated with large rotator cuff injuries.

      Finally, the teres minor muscle, which is mainly involved in external rotation of the shoulder, can tear alongside other rotator cuff muscles in injury.

      Understanding the functions and potential injuries of each rotator cuff muscle can help in the diagnosis and treatment of shoulder pain and dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his left tibia, which was treated with an intramedullary nail. He developed severe pain that was unresponsive to morphine during the night after his surgery. The pain worsened and was accompanied by a tingling sensation and a sensation of tightness in his leg. On examination, his left leg was swollen and tense, and he experienced pain when his toes were passively flexed. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Measure compartment pressures

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate fasciotomy

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency

      Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases, leading to ischaemic injury. The classical symptoms of compartment syndrome include increasing pain, paraesthesiae, and other signs of ischaemia. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to the loss of the affected limb.

      The diagnosis of compartment syndrome is usually a clinical one. However, if any doubt exists, compartment pressures can be measured. If the pressure is greater than 30 mmHg, immediate decompression by fasciotomy is necessary.

      Treatment should not be delayed if compartment syndrome is suspected. Delaying treatment may lead to the loss of the limb. Opioid analgesia may be prescribed to help with the patient’s pain, but it will not treat the underlying problem.

      If a patient presents with classical symptoms of acute ischaemia of the leg, they should be assessed for the six Ps: pain, pallor, pulseless, paraesthesiae, paralysis, and perishingly cold. If these symptoms are present, immediate fasciotomy is necessary.

      After treatment, the patient should be monitored for pain levels over the next 24 hours. Raising the limb and monitoring it in 2 hours can also be helpful. However, the most important thing is to recognize the signs of compartment syndrome and seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old man of African descent, who was diagnosed with lupus nephritis 5...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man of African descent, who was diagnosed with lupus nephritis 5 years ago, is admitted with complaints of pain in both groins that is radiating down to the thighs and buttocks. Movements around the hip are severely restricted and he has a limp while walking. The pain developed insidiously and has gradually worsened. There is no history of trauma. He is currently on 25 mg prednisone/day and cyclophosphamide. An X-ray of the pelvis and hips shows no abnormality.
      What is the most likely cause of this hip pain?

      Your Answer: Steroid-induced avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head can be caused by chronic corticosteroid use or excessive alcohol consumption, with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) also being a risk factor. X-rays may not show changes until weeks later, so magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred diagnostic tool. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) is a disorder of the adolescent hip that occurs when the femoral head slips off in a backward direction due to a weakness in the growth plate. Septic arthritis of the hip due to immunosuppression will present with severe pain, joint tenderness, and swelling, and is unlikely to present bilaterally. Osteomalacia, which is characterized by decreased bone mineralization, can cause pathological fractures and diffuse bone pain. Steroid-induced osteoporosis, on the other hand, is characterized by osteopenia and an increased risk of fractures, and can be treated with bisphosphonates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 30 - A 62-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a suspected hip fracture...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a suspected hip fracture after falling down the stairs at home. Upon examination, his left leg appears shortened and externally rotated. His vital signs are stable. X-rays are ordered and reveal an intracapsular neck of femur fracture. The patient is also found to have previous fractures, which he was not aware of. A bone mineral densitometry (BMD) scan is requested to determine if the patient has osteoporosis.
      What T score value on BMD indicates a diagnosis of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: < -2.5

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteoporosis: Definition, Diagnosis, and Management

      Osteoporosis is a common bone disease characterized by a loss of bone mineral density, micro-architectural deterioration of bone tissue, and increased risk of fracture. This article provides an overview of osteoporosis, including its definition, diagnosis, and management.

      Peak bone mass is achieved between the ages of 20 and 40 and falls afterwards. Women experience an acceleration of decline after menopause due to estrogen deficiency, resulting in uncoupling of bone resorption and bone formation. Osteoporosis in men is less common and often has an associated secondary cause or genetic risk factors.

      Osteoporosis is diagnosed when the T score falls to below −2.5, whereas T scores between −1.0 and −2.5 are indicative of osteopenia. Values of BMD above −1.0 are regarded as normal. Management includes lifestyle advice and drug treatments such as bisphosphonates, hormone replacement therapy, calcium and vitamin D replacement supplements, calcitonin, raloxifene, parathyroid hormone, strontium ranelate, and anabolic steroids.

      It is important to understand osteoporosis, as it is the most common reason for fractures among the elderly. Lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking are common risk factors for developing osteoporosis. Regular bone density screenings and appropriate management can help prevent fractures and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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Orthopaedics (16/30) 53%
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