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  • Question 1 - A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring. Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?

      Your Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.

      The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.

      The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to...

    Correct

    • A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to aspirin after a myocardial infraction. The recorded results give us the percentage of patients that reported myocardial infraction within a three month period. The percentage was 4% and 3% for aspirin and the combination of drugs respectively. How many further patients needed to be treated in order for one patient to avoid any more heart attacks during 3 months?

      Your Answer: 100

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (0.04-0.03)

      ARR= 0.01

      NNT= 1/0.01

      NNT=100

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to...

    Correct

    • A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart. How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?

      Your Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts?

      Your Answer: Emulsification of lipids

      Explanation:

      The emulsification and absorption of fats requires Bile salts.

      Absorption of fats is associated with the activation of lipases in the intestine.

      Bile salts are involved in fat soluble vitamin absorption and are reabsorbed in the terminal ileum (B12 is NOT fat soluble).

      Although Vitamin B12 is also absorbed in the terminal ileum, it is a water soluble vitamin (as are B1, nicotinic acid, folic acid and vitamin C) .

      The gastric parietal cells secretes Intrinsic factor that is essential for the absorption of B12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An older woman has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • An older woman has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of a stroke. A CT angiogram is performed for diagnosis, which displays narrowing in the artery that supplies the right common carotid. Which of the following artery is the cause of stroke in this patient?

      Your Answer: Brachiocephalic artery

      Explanation:

      The arch of aorta gives rise to three main branches:
      1. Brachiocephalic artery
      2. Left common carotid artery
      3. Left subclavian artery

      The brachiocephalic artery then gives rise to the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery.

      The right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk posterior to the sternoclavicular joint.

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the abdominal aorta.
      The ascending aorta supplies the coronary arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g of amitriptyline. On clinical examination: Glasgow coma score: 10, Pulse rate: 140 beats per minute, Blood pressure: 80/50 mmHg. ECG showed a QRS duration of 233 Ms. Which of the following statement describes the most important initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Give fluid boluses

      Explanation:

      The first line of treatment in case of hypotension is fluid resuscitation.

      Activated charcoal can be used within one hour of tricyclic antidepressant ingestion but an intact and secure airway must be checked before intervention. The risk of aspiration should be assessed.

      Vasopressors are indicated for the treatment of hypotension following (Tricyclic Antidepressant) TCA overdose when patients fail to respond to fluids and bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla? ...

    Correct

    • Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The adrenal medulla comprises chromaffin cells (pheochromocytes), which are functionally equivalent to postganglionic sympathetic neurons. They synthesize, store and release the catecholamines noradrenaline (norepinephrine) and adrenaline (epinephrine) into the venous sinusoids.
      The majority of the chromaffin cells synthesize adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open...

    Correct

    • A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours. Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results: Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L), Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%). The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea. What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?

      Your Answer: S (silent)

      Explanation:

      Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.

      Other BChE phenotypes are the following:

      Usual (U)
      Atypical (A)
      Fluoride-resistant (F).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for...

    Correct

    • A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs. How the data would be analysed?

      Your Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set

      Explanation:

      Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.

      ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.

      In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery disease. He is recovering well post-surgery. However, on follow-up in the ward, he has hoarseness of his voice. Which of the following explains the hoarseness?

      Your Answer: Damage to the vagus

      Explanation:

      During carotid endarterectomy, injury to the vagus nerve or its branches can cause hoarseness. Injury to the vagus nerve can result in adductor vocal cord paralysis. It can also cause other symptoms like dysphagia or even vocal cord immobility.

      Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. Because of the internal carotid artery relations, there is a risk of cranial nerve injury during the procedure involving one or more of the following nerves: CN IX, CN X (or its branch, the superior laryngeal nerve), CN XI, or CN XII.

      However, only damage to the vagus would account for speech difficulties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70...

    Correct

    • A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored. The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows: Time (hours): 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, Concentration (mcg/mL) 100, 71, 50, 35.5, 25. From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?

      Your Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:

      C = C0·e-kt

      Where:

      C = drug concentration
      C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
      k = Rate constant
      t = Time

      Enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.

      Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Seven days after undergoing an inguinal hernia repair, a 24-year old male presents...

    Correct

    • Seven days after undergoing an inguinal hernia repair, a 24-year old male presents with a wound that is erythematous, tender and has a purulent discharge. The most likely cause of this is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:

      Your Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose

      Explanation:

      The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.

      Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.

      CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.

      The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.

      The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Of the following, which of these oxygen carrying molecules causes the greatest shift...

    Correct

    • Of the following, which of these oxygen carrying molecules causes the greatest shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve to the left?

      Your Answer: Myoglobin (Mb)

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a haemoglobin-like, iron-containing pigment that is found in muscle fibres. It has a high affinity for oxygen and it consists of a single alpha polypeptide chain. It binds only one oxygen molecule, unlike haemoglobin, which binds 4 oxygen molecules.

      The myoglobin ODC is a rectangular hyperbola. There is a very low P50 0.37 kPa (2.75 mmHg). This means that it needs a lower P50 to facilitate oxygen offloading from haemoglobin. It is low enough to be able to offload oxygen onto myoglobin where it is stored. Myoglobin releases its oxygen at the very low PO2 values found inside the mitochondria.

      P50 is defined as the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: It is the PO2 at which the haemoglobin becomes 50% saturated with oxygen. Normally, the P50 of adult haemoglobin is 3.47 kPa(26 mmHg).

      Foetal haemoglobin has 2 α and 2 γchains. The ODC is left shifted – this means that P50 lies between 2.34-2.67 kPa [18-20 mmHg]) compared with the adult curve and it has a higher affinity for oxygen. Foetal haemoglobin has no β chains so this means that there is less binding of 2.3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG).

      Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin with an affinity more than 200-fold higher than that of oxygen. This therefore decreases the amount of haemoglobin that is available for oxygen transport. Carbon monoxide binding also increases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, which shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left and thus impedes oxygen unloading in the tissues.

      In sickle cell disease, (HbSS) has a P50 of 4.53 kPa(34 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?

      Your Answer: Right vagus nerve

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.

      The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.

      The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.

      No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2€“1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed into the emergency department. She has an increased heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/65. She has a history of taking Naproxen for her Achilles tendinopathy. On urgent endoscopy, she is diagnosed with a bleeding peptic ulcer. The immediate treatment is to permanently stop the bleeding by performing embolization of the left gastric artery via an angiogram. What level of the vertebra will be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery that supplies the left gastric artery during the angiogram?

      Your Answer: T10

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The left gastric artery is the smallest branch that originates from the coeliac trunk€”the coeliac trunk branches of the abdominal aorta at the vertebral level of T12.

      The left gastric artery runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. A peptic ulcer that is serious enough to erode through the stomach mucosa into a branch of the left gastric artery can cause massive blood loss in the stomach, leading to hematemesis. The patient also takes Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is a common cause for peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients.

      The left gastric artery is responsible for 85% of upper GI bleeds. In cases refractory to initial treatment, angiography is sometimes needed to embolise the vessel at its origin and stop bleeding. During an angiogram, the radiologist will enter the aorta via the femoral artery, ascend to the level of the 12th vertebrae and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old female is diagnosed with acute mesenteric ischemia. On CT angiogram, the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female is diagnosed with acute mesenteric ischemia. On CT angiogram, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery is stenosed. At which vertebra level does the superior mesenteric artery branch from the aorta?

      Your Answer: L2

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      The superior mesenteric artery branches from the abdominal aorta just 1-2 cm below the origin of the celiac trunk. It lies posterior to the body of the pancreas and splenic vein and is separated from the aorta by the left renal vein. It passes forwards and inferiorly, anterior to the uncinate process of the pancreas and the third part of the duodenum, to enter the root of the small bowel mesentery and supply the midgut.

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T10 – oesophageal opening in the diaphragm

      T12 – Coeliac trunk, aortic hiatus in the diaphragm

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 21-year-old female was brought to the Emergency department with a ruptured ectopic...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female was brought to the Emergency department with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. On clinical examination, the following were the findings: Pulse: 120 beats per minute, BP: 120/95 mmHg, Respiratory rate: 22 breaths per minute, Capillary refill time: three seconds, Cool peripheries. Which of the following best describes the cause for this clinical finding?

      Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 0-15%

      Correct Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%

      Explanation:

      Classification of hemorrhagic shock according to Advanced Trauma Life Support is as follows:

      – Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%) in which there is no change in blood pressure, RR, or pulse pressure.

      – Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss) where there is tachycardia, tachypnoea, and a decrease in pulse pressure.

      – Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss) where clinical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state, and measurable fall in systolic pressure is seen. It almost always requires a blood transfusion.

      – Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss) in which marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure, and markedly depressed mental state with cold and pale skin are seen.

      Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse, and blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the first time in the emergency department with acute abdominal pain in the epigastric region. On examination, the man is sweating and has a high-grade fever. His heart rate is 140/min and a BP of 92/59 mmHg. The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a complication you are most likely to see in this patient?

      Your Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions

      Explanation:

      Bulky, greasy stools are associated with improper digestion that can be expected if the pancreas loses its exocrine function. This is common in long-term chronic pancreatitis but since this is the patient’s first presentation with such symptoms, this complication is unlikely.

      Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of chronic diabetes but has been reported with cases of chronic pancreatitis too.

      Abdominal distention with shifting dullness is a classic symptom of underlying ascites. Ascites is a complication of many diseases but it is not common with the acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis.

      Option E: This points towards abdominal obstruction but in the absence of the more common symptoms, nausea and bilious vomiting, this is unlikely.

      Option A: Grey Turner’s sign is the pooling of blood in the retroperitoneal space between the last rib and the top of the hip. The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ and inflammation of the pancreas can cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage. The sign takes 24-48 hours to develop and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis. The patient has presented with acute pancreatitis due to his history of high alcohol intake, and acute on chronic is unlikely as this is his first presentation. He also has low blood pressure and an increased heart rate, which suggest blood loss with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression?

      Your Answer: Correlation is concerned with demonstrating difference between variables

      Correct Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable

      Explanation:

      Linear regression, using a technique called curve fitting, allows us to make predictions regarding a certain variable.

      Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: Sevoflurane

      Explanation:

      Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 58-year-old man, visits his general practitioner complaining of a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man, visits his general practitioner complaining of a lump in his groin. He explains he is otherwise well and reports no other symptoms. The lump is examined and is found to be soft, and can be reduced without causing the patient pain. The GP diagnoses an inguinal hernia. To determine the nature of the hernia, the GP reduced the lump and applies pressure on the deep inguinal ring. The deep inguinal ring has what anatomical landmark?

      Your Answer: Superior to the mid inguinal point

      Correct Answer: Superior to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring lies approximately 1.5-2cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle, next to the epigastric vessels.

      It is an important point in determining the nature of an inguinal hernia (direct or indirect). The patient is asked to cough after the hernia is reduced, with pressure applied to the deep inguinal ring. The hernia reappearing indicates it is direct, moving through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      Inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle is the normal anatomical position of the neck of a femoral hernia.

      Superior and medial to the pubic tubercle is the site of the superficial inguinal ring, and the normal anatomical position of the neck of an inguinal hernia.

      The mid-inguinal point is located halways between the pubic symphysis and the anterior superior iliac spine. It is the surface marking for taking the femoral pulse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In North America, there have been reports of paediatric patients dying after undergoing...

    Correct

    • In North America, there have been reports of paediatric patients dying after undergoing adenotonsillectomy for obstructive sleep apnoea. Respiratory depression/obstruction is thought to be the cause of death. The codeine dose was 0.5-1 mg/kg, given every 4-6 hours. In this group of patients, which of the following is the most likely cause of respiratory depression and obstruction?

      Your Answer: Exaggerated metabolism of codeine

      Explanation:

      Codeine is easily absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and converted to morphine and norcodeine in the liver via O- and N-demethylation. Morphine and norcodeine are excreted almost entirely by the kidney, primarily as conjugates with glucuronic acid.

      By glucuronidation, phase II metabolism enzyme UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-2B7 converts morphine to morphine-3-glucuronide (M3G) and morphine-6-glucuronide (M6G) (UGT2B7).

      Approximately 60% of morphine is converted to M3G, with the remaining 6-10% converted to M6G. M3G is inactive, but M6G is said to be 4 to 650 times more potent on the MOP receptor than morphine.

      When codeine is consumed, cytochrome P450 2D6 in the liver converts it to morphine (CYP2D6).

      Some people have DNA variations that increase the activity of this enzyme, causing codeine to be converted to morphine more quickly and completely than in others. After taking codeine, these ultra-rapid metabolisers are more likely to have higher than normal levels of morphine in their blood.

      Respiratory depression/obstruction can be caused by high levels of morphine and M6G, especially in people who have a history of obstructive sleep apnoea. The estimated number of ultra-rapid metabolisers ranges from 1 to 7 per 100 people, but some ethnic groups may have as many as 28 per 100 people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are asked about the relative risk associated with a drug. You happened...

    Correct

    • You are asked about the relative risk associated with a drug. You happened to have read a report in which the same drug was compared with a placebo and your initial thoughts after reading the study were that the drug will have significant side effects. What do you expect the value of relative risk to be?

      Your Answer: Greater than 1

      Explanation:

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group.

      A relative risk of 1 suggests that there is no discernible difference in the outcome whether or not it has been exposed.

      A relative risk of less than 1 indicates that probability of occurrence of an event is less if there is exposure.

      A relative risk of greater than 1 highlights that an event is most likely to occur if it was provided exposure. Since you believe that exposure (the new drug) would have side effects, the value should be greater than 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Among the following options, which one can not be the value of Pearson's...

    Correct

    • Among the following options, which one can not be the value of Pearson's correlation coefficient?

      Your Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The correlation coefficient gives us the idea about relation between two parameters. i.e. to what extent change in parameter A could prompt a change in parameter B. The numerical value of correlation coefficient could not be greater than 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery. If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.

      FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.

      Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?...

    Correct

    • Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Mandibular artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
      1. Superior thyroid artery
      2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      3. Lingual artery
      4. Facial artery
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      7. Maxillary artery (terminal branch)
      8. Superficial temporal artery (terminal branch)

      There is no mandibular artery but the first part of the maxillary artery is called the mandibular part as it is posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle.
      The maxillary artery is divided into three portions by its relation to the lateral pterygoid muscle:
      first (mandibular) part: posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle
      second (pterygoid or muscular) part: within the lateral pterygoid muscle
      third (pterygopalatine) part: anterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - One of the following sets of arterial blood gases best demonstrates compensated respiratory...

    Correct

    • One of the following sets of arterial blood gases best demonstrates compensated respiratory acidosis?

      Your Answer: pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L

      Explanation:

      pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L is the correct answer.

      Since the pH is the lower limit of normal, it is compensated despite a raised PaCO2. Retention of bicarbonate ions by the renal system suggests this process is chronic.

      pH=7.24, PaCO2=3.5kPa, PaO2=8.5kPa, HCO3- =18mmol/L represents an acute uncompensated metabolic acidosis

      The remaining stems are degrees of uncompensated respiratory acidosis and therefore incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer: The tube size refers to the external diameter which is marked on the outside of the tube in millimetres

      Correct Answer: Uncuffed RAE tubes have two Murphy eyes

      Explanation:

      Tracheal tubes are made of either disposable plastic or reusable red rubber.

      The tube size refers to the internal diameter (ID) in mm which is marked on the outside of the tube (some manufacturers mark the external diameter on the outside).

      Plastic tubes have a radiopaque line spanning the entire length of the tube, which allows their position to be identified on x-rays. The bevel located at the end of the tube is left-facing and oval in shape, which improves the view of the vocal cords during intubation.

      Oxford tubes are L-shaped and have a bevel that faces posteriorly. They have thick walls that increase the external diameter, making for a wider internal diameter.

      RAE (Ring, Adair, and Elwyn) tubes are preformed and can either be north or south facing and cuffed or uncuffed. The cuffed RAE tubes have one Murphy eye, whereas the uncuffed has two Murphy eyes. Uncuffed tubes are primarily used in paediatric anaesthesia and the two Murphy eyes ensure adequate ventilation- should the tube be too long.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?

      Your Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous...

    Correct

    • If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous technique with target-controlled infusions of propofol and remifentanil, what safety precaution is the most vital in this a scenario?

      Your Answer: Cannula access site clearly visible and regularly checked

      Explanation:

      According to the Safe Anaesthesia Liaison Group, the most important factor to consider the cannula access, and if the patient is properly receiving the total intravenous anaesthesia. The cannula access must be regularly checked for kinks, leaks and disconnections.

      Below are the safety precautions and policies to be followed for total intravenous anaesthesia among children and adults:

      When administering TIVA, a non-return valve must be used on any intravenous fluid line;
      When using equipment, it is essential that clinical staff know its limitations and uses;
      Sites of intravenous infusions should be visible so they may be monitored for disconnection, leaks or perivenous infusion into the subcutaneous tissues; and,
      Organisations must give preference to clearly labelled intravenous connectors and valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to treat claudication and foot ulceration. The anterior tibial artery will be the target for distal arterial anastomosis. Which structure is NOT closely related to the anterior tibial artery?

      Your Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The anterior tibial artery originates from the distal border of the popliteus. In the posterior compartment, it passes between the heads of the tibialis posterior and the oval aperture of the interosseous membrane to reach the anterior compartment.

      On entry into the anterior compartment, it runs medially along the deep peroneal nerve.
      The upper third of the artery courses between the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus muscles, while the middle third runs between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles.

      At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery is located approximately midway between the malleoli. It continues on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to extensor hallucis longus, as the dorsalis pedis artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting...

    Correct

    • Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting a chest tube drain?

      Your Answer: External circumference (mm)

      Explanation:

      Selection of a chest drain will depend on the external circumference.

      A cannula, whether intravenous or intra-arterial, are classified according to standard wire gauge, which refers to the number of wires that can fit into the same hole. If a cannula is labelled 22G, then 22 wires will fit into the standard size hole.

      A more popular measurement than SWG nowadays is cross sectional area.

      When the concern for selecting equipment is the rate of flow, then it is important to consider the diameter and the radius of a parallel sided tube. These, however, are not routinely considered when comparing sizes of a cannula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A new study is being carried out on the measurement of a new...

    Correct

    • A new study is being carried out on the measurement of a new cardiovascular disease biomarker, and its applications in preoperative screening. The data for this study is expected to be normally distributed. Which of the following statements is true about normal distributions?

      Your Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the mean, median and mode of normally distributed data are the same value. This is as a result of the bell shaped curve which is equal on both sides.

      The bell-shape indicates that values around the mean are more frequent in occurrence than the values farther away.

      In a normal distribution:
      1) +/- one standard deviation of the mean accounts for 68% of the data.
      2) +/- two standard deviations of the mean accounts for 95% of the data.
      3) +/- three standard deviations of the mean accounts for 99.7% of the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per...

    Incorrect

    • If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?

      Your Answer: 1.5 millimetres

      Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre

      Explanation:

      Wavelength can be computed as follows:

      Wavelength = velocity/frequency

      In the given problem, the values stated are:

      Frequency = 10 x 10^6
      Velocity = 1540 meters per second

      Wavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
      Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
      Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      57.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit....

    Correct

    • Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit. Your consultant has requested that you prescribe maintenance fluids for the next 12 hours. The child is 21 kg in weight. What is the most suitable fluid volume to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: 732 ml

      Explanation:

      After a paediatric case, you’ll frequently have to calculate and prescribe maintenance fluids. The ‘4-2-1 rule’ should be used as a guideline:

      1st 10 kg – 4 ml/kg/hr
      2nd 10 kg – 2 ml/kg/hr
      Subsequent kg – 1 ml/kg/hr

      Hence

      1st 10 kg = 4 × 10 = 40 ml
      2nd 10 kg = 2 × 10 = 20 ml
      Subsequent kg = 1 × 1 = 1 ml
      Total = 61 ml/hr

      61 × 12 = 732 ml over 12 hrs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following statements is true about the in-hospital management of ventricular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about the in-hospital management of ventricular fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Calcium gluconate has a role in the management of hyperkalaemia.

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone may be administered following a third DC shock

      Explanation:

      Ventricular fibrillation (VT) is an arrhythmia caused by a distortion in the organized contraction of the ventricles leading to an inability to pump blood out into the body.

      Amiodarone is an anti arrhythmic drug used for the treatment of ventricular and atrial fibrillations. It is the gold standard of treatment for refractory pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) and ventricular fibrillation (VF).

      Guidelines for emergency treatment state that only the rescuer carrying out chest compressions on the patient may stand near the defibrillator as it charges.

      Cardio-pulmonary resuscitation (CPR) during cardiac arrest is required for 2 minute cycles.

      Hypovolaemia is as a cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA) can be reversed using fluid resuscitation, whereas hypotension during cardiac arrest is either persistent or undetectable and is therefore irreversible.

      Hyperkalaemia and hypocalcaemia are treated using calcium salts, but calcium chloride is often preferred over calcium gluconate.

      During a pulseless VT or VF, a single precordial thump will be effective if administered within the first seconds of the occurrence of a shockable rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - The cardiac muscle will primarily utilize which metabolic substrate to produce energy when...

    Correct

    • The cardiac muscle will primarily utilize which metabolic substrate to produce energy when at rest?

      Your Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Approximately 70% of the heart’s ATP requirement is met by cardiac mitochondria through beta-oxidation of fatty acids at rest. The remaining 30% is supplied by glucose.

      Amino acids and ketones, in the presence of ketoacidosis, may supply at most 10% of the ATP requirement. And, when in high levels, lactate may also contribute to the ATP requirement of the heart, particularly during moments of high muscular activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes....

    Correct

    • Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes. The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?

      Your Answer: CYP2D6

      Explanation:

      Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.

      As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

      The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.

      Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.

      All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he requires a urethral catheter. Where does resistance first occur during the insertion of a catheter?

      Your Answer: Membranous urethra

      Explanation:

      The membranous urethra is the shortest part of the urethra and the least dilatable part of it.

      This is as a result of it being surrounded by the external urethral sphincter which is made up of striated muscle and controls voluntary urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.

      Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.

      Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between...

    Incorrect

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between two or more variables. Which of the following relationships is a linear relationship?

      Your Answer: The relationship between the pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume at a fixed temperature

      Correct Answer: The relationship between the junction potential and temperature in a thermocouple

      Explanation:

      Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).

      All of the other connections are non-linear.

      For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.

      A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.

      A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.

      The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly ...

    Correct

    • The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:

      ATP
      AMP
      Potassium
      Phosphate, and
      Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

      Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit. Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?

      Your Answer: The low oil:gas solubility of desflurane

      Correct Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane

      Explanation:

      The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:

      It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
      Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
      The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.

      The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.

      The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
      Halothane 2.3
      Desflurane 0.45
      Sevoflurane 0.6
      Nitrous oxide 0.47
      Isoflurane 1.4

      Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.

      Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.

      The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.

      In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer: Part of dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals

      Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance. Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance. Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?

      Your Answer: Pre-capillary arterioles

      Correct Answer: Small arterioles

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.

      These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.

      Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.

      Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5

      It can be calculated from the following equation:

      SVR = (mean arterial pressure ˆ’ mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?

      Your Answer: The trachea starts at the lower end of the thyroid cartilage at the level of the sixth cervical vertebra

      Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:

      Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.

      Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.

      Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.

      Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.

      The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:

      8th rib in the midclavicular line

      10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line

      T12 at its termination.

      Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.

      The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      20.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (7/12) 58%
Statistical Methods (5/6) 83%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/2) 100%
Pathophysiology (7/9) 78%
Pharmacology (7/9) 78%
Physiology (6/8) 75%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/2) 0%
Clinical Measurement (1/2) 50%
Passmed