00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - What is the term used to describe the inclination to attribute an individual's...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the inclination to attribute an individual's actions to their personality traits rather than external circumstances?

      Your Answer: Fundamental attribution error

      Explanation:

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the most appropriate term to describe the sequence of events that...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate term to describe the sequence of events that occurred when a man experienced chest pain at work, was taken to the hospital, received blood tests and an ECG, was prescribed medication, and signed off work for a month by a doctor?

      Your Answer: Malingering

      Correct Answer: Sick role

      Explanation:

      There is no indication of feigning symptoms for personal benefit.

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs during flooding therapy?

      Your Answer: Tolerance

      Correct Answer: Habituation

      Explanation:

      Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias

      Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - From which theory does the concept of reciprocal determinism originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which theory does the concept of reciprocal determinism originate?

      Your Answer: Contiguity theory

      Correct Answer: Social learning theory

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What type of memory is demonstrated when an individual can recall a phone...

    Correct

    • What type of memory is demonstrated when an individual can recall a phone number from a directory and dial it accurately without writing it down?

      Your Answer: Working

      Explanation:

      The term ‘short-term memory’ is a less advanced term compared to ‘working memory’.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A child is unable to describe the function of a microwave despite having...

    Correct

    • A child is unable to describe the function of a microwave despite having used one many times in the past. Which area of memory do you suspect is dysfunctional?

      Your Answer: Semantic

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to the patient’s comprehension of the microwave’s purpose (semantic memory), rather than their ability to operate it (procedural memory).

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      150.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention?

      Your Answer: Broadbent

      Correct Answer: Treisman

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What declaration outlines the specific factors necessary for the optimal development and wellbeing...

    Correct

    • What declaration outlines the specific factors necessary for the optimal development and wellbeing of children?

      Your Answer: Declaration of Ottawa

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      217.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Can you provide an accurate definition of social capital? ...

    Correct

    • Can you provide an accurate definition of social capital?

      Your Answer: Features of social life, networks, norms, and trust that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives

      Explanation:

      Social Capital: An Explanation for Inequalities in Morbidity and Mortality

      The concept of social capital may provide insight into the observed disparities in morbidity and mortality based on occupational social class and material standard of living (McKenzie 2002). Social capital is considered the binding force of society, and it is believed that groups lacking in social capital may be at higher risk for mental illness.

      Social capital is defined as the features of social life – networks, norms, and trust – that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives (Putnam, 1996). It is a characteristic of groups rather than individuals and can be divided into structural and cognitive components. Structural social capital includes roles, rules, behaviors, networks, and institutions that bond individuals in groups, bridge divides between societal groups, of vertically integrate groups with different levels of power and influence in a society, leading to social inclusion. Cognitive social capital refers to the values, attitudes, and beliefs that produce cooperative behavior (Colletta & Cullen, 2000).

      In summary, social capital may offer an explanation for the observed inequalities in morbidity and mortality by occupational social class and material standard of living. It is a property of groups and can be broken down into structural and cognitive components.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      163.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'sick role'? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'sick role'?

      Your Answer: Parsons

      Explanation:

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - At what level of Maslow's original hierarchy are the highest level needs addressed?...

    Correct

    • At what level of Maslow's original hierarchy are the highest level needs addressed?

      Your Answer: Self-actualisation

      Explanation:

      It is not uncommon for questions that we have written to end up on the exam. This has been a frequent occurrence throughout the years.

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Who is recognized as the originator of the Cognitive Neoassociation Theory of Aggression?...

    Incorrect

    • Who is recognized as the originator of the Cognitive Neoassociation Theory of Aggression?

      Your Answer: Anderson

      Correct Answer: Berkowitz

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the term used in classical conditioning to describe an unlearned, inborn...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used in classical conditioning to describe an unlearned, inborn reaction to an unconditioned stimulus?

      Your Answer: A conditioned stimulus

      Correct Answer: An unconditioned response

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry movement, and is recognized for his statement that 'Madness does not necessarily have to be a complete breakdown, but can also be a breakthrough'?

      Your Answer: Szasz

      Correct Answer: Laing

      Explanation:

      Apart from Bleuler who is Swiss, all the other psychiatrists in the list of options are German – Kraepelin and…

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The author of the book 'Asylums' is... ...

    Incorrect

    • The author of the book 'Asylums' is...

      Your Answer: Moreno

      Correct Answer: Goffman

      Explanation:

      Erving Goffman was a prominent sociologist who made significant contributions to the field. He is well-known for his works such as The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life, Asylums, and Stigma. In fact, he is credited with introducing the term stigma into the sociological lexicon. Goffman’s ideas and theories have had a lasting impact on the study of sociology and continue to be studied and applied today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A parent punishes their toddler for throwing a tantrum, the toddler never throws...

    Incorrect

    • A parent punishes their toddler for throwing a tantrum, the toddler never throws a tantrum again. The change in behaviour results from which of the following?

      Your Answer: Negative reinforcement

      Correct Answer: Punishment

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the definition of the Hawthorne effect? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of the Hawthorne effect?

      Your Answer: Alterations in behaviour due to subjective awareness of being observed

      Explanation:

      The Hawthorne Effect and Its Impact on Research

      The Hawthorne effect is a type of observer bias that occurs when individuals modify their behavior because they believe they are being observed. This phenomenon can have a significant impact on research outcomes, as subjects may alter their actions of responses in an attempt to please the observer of researcher. For instance, if a person knows they are being watched while performing a task, they may complete it more quickly of with greater accuracy than they would otherwise. As a result, researchers must be aware of the Hawthorne effect and take steps to minimize its influence on their studies. Failure to do so can lead to inaccurate of misleading results, which can have serious consequences for the validity of the research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      144.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy?

      Your Answer: HLA testing

      Explanation:

      In addition to conducting a thorough medical history and physical examination, healthcare providers typically order a series of tests to aid in the diagnosis of narcolepsy. These tests may include a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) and a polysomnogram (PSG). The MSLT measures the time it takes for a person to fall asleep during the day, while the PSG records various physiological parameters during sleep, such as brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity. These tests can help confirm the presence of narcolepsy and rule out other sleep disorders.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics?

      Your Answer: Basic assumption groups reflect a subconscious process that operates within the group

      Explanation:

      The underlying process of basic assumption groups operates at a subconscious level within the group, serving to shield the group as a whole from distressing anxiety rather than focusing on individual members. In contrast, work groups prioritize productivity and shared responsibility for achieving goals, distinguishing them from basic assumption groups. Work groups are primarily focused on accomplishing the task at hand.

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      96.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'? ...

    Correct

    • Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'?

      Your Answer: Donald Winnicott

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Durkheim proposed models of suicide that were based on which of the following?...

    Correct

    • Durkheim proposed models of suicide that were based on which of the following?

      Your Answer: The influence of the relationship between and individual and the society

      Explanation:

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Who proposed the six fundamental emotions that are believed to be universally present...

    Correct

    • Who proposed the six fundamental emotions that are believed to be universally present in all humans?

      Your Answer: Paul Ekman

      Explanation:

      Primary Emotions

      Paul Ekman, a renowned psychologist, identified six basic emotions that he believed were universally present in all humans. These primary emotions are happiness, fear, disgust, sadness, anger, and surprise. Ekman suggested that these emotions were biologically innate and could be recognized across different cultures and languages. Although he later added more emotions to this list, the original six remain the most commonly referenced. Understanding these primary emotions can help individuals better recognize and manage their own emotions, as well as empathize with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse assumes that a patient is lazy because of their weight?

      Your Answer: Halo effect

      Explanation:

      The Halo Effect: How One Perception Influences Another

      The halo effect is a cognitive bias that occurs when our perception of one characteristic of a person of object is influenced by our perception of another. This means that if we perceive someone as attractive, we may also assume that they are intelligent of kind, even if we have no evidence to support these assumptions. The halo effect can have a significant impact on our judgments and decisions, as it can lead us to make assumptions based on limited information. It is important to be aware of this bias and to try to make judgments based on objective criteria rather than subjective perceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a...

    Correct

    • What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a simple case of depression as a rare mental health condition they recently read about?

      Your Answer: Availability

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A teacher is eager to teach her middle school student better study habits....

    Correct

    • A teacher is eager to teach her middle school student better study habits. She starts by praising the student for simply sitting down at their desk to do homework. She then gives praise when the student opens their textbook and begins reading. She waits until the student has read a few pages and takes notes before issuing more praise. How would you describe the teacher's approach?

      Your Answer: Shaping

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      99
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which processes involve the activation of incentive salience? ...

    Correct

    • Which processes involve the activation of incentive salience?

      Your Answer: Grief

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incentive Salience and its Role in Addiction and Grief

      Incentive salience is a process that drives the brain to desire certain things, such as drugs, and is mediated by mesolimbic dopamine systems. This process is separate from the experience of pleasure, and a person can want something they don’t necessarily like. Desire is amplified by brain states that heighten dopamine reactivity, such as stress, emotional excitement, relevant appetites, of intoxication. This state-dependent amplification of incentive salience is one reason why many addicts find it difficult to stop at just one hit.

      Interestingly, grief has been hypothesized to be underpinned by a very similar process as drug addiction, referred to as the ‘incentive salience theory of grief’. Understanding the distinction between liking and wanting can help us better understand addiction and grief, and how the brain processes these experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - To encourage their children to do their chores, a family offers a reward...

    Correct

    • To encourage their children to do their chores, a family offers a reward system. Each child receives a reward after completing a certain number of chores. The number of chores they need to complete varies, but each child knows that the more chores they complete, the more likely they are to receive the reward. The family sets the number of chores needed for a reward between 3 to 8 chores, and this changes every week. What type of reinforcement schedule does the family use?

      Your Answer: Variable ratio

      Explanation:

      The appropriate reinforcement schedule for the given scenario is variable ratio. This is because there is a certain pattern to the reinforcement, which is dependent on the number of sales made by the staff. It cannot be a random schedule as there is a specific criterion for receiving the bonus. Additionally, it cannot be an interval schedule as the staff must make a certain number of sales to receive the bonus. If the number of sales required was fixed, it would be a fixed ratio schedule.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the condition being described by a woman who experiences sudden falls...

    Incorrect

    • What is the condition being described by a woman who experiences sudden falls upon hearing a loud noise?

      Your Answer: Catalepsy

      Correct Answer: Cataplexy

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, hypnagogic hallucinations, sleep paralysis, and cataplexy. Cataplexy is a brief and sudden weakening of muscle control, typically brought on by emotional triggers, and is frequently observed in individuals with narcolepsy.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      281.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which category does utilitarianism belong to? ...

    Correct

    • Which category does utilitarianism belong to?

      Your Answer: Teleology

      Explanation:

      Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      1216.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective in treating borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Alfred Adler

      Correct Answer: Otto Kernberg

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      509.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - As a therapist, you are working with a child and attempting to understand...

    Correct

    • As a therapist, you are working with a child and attempting to understand their attribution model when they say, My teacher always makes me do things I don't want to do. To establish the consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness of their conceptual framework, you ask further questions. Which attribution theory are you utilizing in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Kelley's Theory of Causal Attributions

      Explanation:

      Kelley’s Theory of Causal Attributions proposes that to accurately attribute a behavior, one must consider three types of causal information: consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness. Naïve psychology emphasizes the role of intentional concepts in interpreting behavior, while theory of mind is a cognitive ability that develops around age 4 and involves understanding intentional states like beliefs and desires. Correspondent inference theory suggests that people make dispositional inferences based on others’ behaviors, focusing on those that provide the most information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      66.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What aspect of memory is typically impacted in individuals experiencing difficulties with procedural...

    Correct

    • What aspect of memory is typically impacted in individuals experiencing difficulties with procedural memory?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic class?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Class and Mental Disorder

      There is a consistent finding that shows an inverse relationship between social class and rates of mental illness. This means that individuals from lower social classes are more likely to experience mental health issues compared to those from higher social classes. However, this inverse relationship is not observed in the case of anorexia nervosa. This suggests that factors other than social class may play a more significant role in the development of this particular disorder. Overall, the relationship between social class and mental health is complex and requires further investigation to fully understand the underlying factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which ethical theory is attributed to Bentham and Mill as its main founders?...

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical theory is attributed to Bentham and Mill as its main founders?

      Your Answer: Virtue ethics

      Correct Answer: Utilitarianism

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What ethical framework are the professionals using? A physician in their mid-career states...

    Incorrect

    • What ethical framework are the professionals using? A physician in their mid-career states that they do not support legalizing euthanasia because they fear it would alter their character and desensitize their conscience. Meanwhile, another physician in their early career believes that consistently permitting patients to endure pain due to ethical of legal concerns would result in them becoming indifferent.

      Your Answer: Utilitarian

      Correct Answer: Virtue ethics

      Explanation:

      Virtue Ethics: Judging Actions Based on Moral Character

      In virtue ethics, the evaluation of an action is not based on moral principles, intended outcomes, of societal effects. Instead, it is judged by how it shapes the moral character of the actor. This means that individuals who follow virtue ethics are concerned with how their actions will affect their own sense of morality. For example, if two students are faced with a moral dilemma, they may take different positions based on how they believe it would impact their own moral character. This approach to ethics emphasizes the importance of cultivating virtuous traits such as honesty, compassion, and courage, rather than simply following rules of achieving specific outcomes. By focusing on the development of moral character, virtue ethics encourages individuals to strive for excellence in all aspects of their lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which ability is not included in Thurstone's list of primary abilities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ability is not included in Thurstone's list of primary abilities?

      Your Answer: Number facility

      Correct Answer: Working memory

      Explanation:

      The WAIS includes working memory as a component, but it is not considered a fundamental skill.

      Thurstone’s Theory of Intelligence

      Louis Leon Thurstone believed that intelligence could not be reduced to a single factor. Instead, he proposed that intelligence is composed of seven distinct abilities, which he called the primary abilities. These abilities include word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization, number facility, associative memory, reasoning, and perceptual speed. According to Thurstone, each of these abilities is independent of the others and contributes to an individual’s overall intelligence. This theory challenged the prevailing view of intelligence at the time, which held that intelligence could be measured by a single factor known as the g factor. Thurstone’s theory has had a lasting impact on the field of psychology and has influenced the development of modern intelligence tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The focus of the Tarasoff case was on which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The focus of the Tarasoff case was on which of the following?

      Your Answer: Duty to warn

      Explanation:

      The therapists in the Tarasoff case were faulted for placing greater importance on maintaining the patient’s confidentiality, thereby prioritizing the principle of beneficence over the rights of the potential victim. As a result, they were deemed to have failed in their duty to consider the principle of non-maleficence.

      Double Agentry in Psychiatry

      Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.

      The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.

      This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - What was the conditioned stimulus in Pavlov's conditioning experiments? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the conditioned stimulus in Pavlov's conditioning experiments?

      Your Answer: The presentation of food

      Correct Answer: The ringing of the bell

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved to the United States from Japan...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved to the United States from Japan presents to the local Emergency department in a state of extreme anxiety. The attending physician refers her to you as the psychiatrist on call and reports no evidence of an organic illness based on her physical examination.

      Upon meeting the patient, she expresses intense distress and reports a belief that her vagina is shrinking and that she will die as a result. She attributes this to a loss of balance in her sexual energy after engaging in sexual activity with a partner who did not align with her astrological sign.

      What would be your preferred diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Koro

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by the patient are consistent with Koro, a culture-specific disorder observed primarily in males (and occasionally in females) in China and Thailand. For more information, please refer to Edwards JW’s article Indigenous Koro, a genital retraction syndrome of insular Southeast Asia: a critical review published in Cult Med Psychiatry in 1984.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      75.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A teenager expresses frustration that when they tell their peers what their parents...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager expresses frustration that when they tell their peers what their parents do for a living, they feel judged and treated differently. What is the term for this type of stigma?

      Your Answer: Linked stigma

      Correct Answer: Courtesy stigma

      Explanation:

      Courtesy stigma, also known as stigma by association, is a genuine type of stigma that targets individuals who are connected to those with mental health issues, such as family members and healthcare providers. The remaining terms are not valid.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      56.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - How would you rephrase the question to refer to an ethical approach that...

    Correct

    • How would you rephrase the question to refer to an ethical approach that focuses on weighing potential positive and negative outcomes?

      Your Answer: Utilitarian

      Explanation:

      Deontological (duty-based) ethics prioritize the actions of individuals over the observable practical consequences of those actions.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      678.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which component is not considered a key element in Link and Phelan's stigma...

    Incorrect

    • Which component is not considered a key element in Link and Phelan's stigma model?

      Your Answer: Separating

      Correct Answer: Scapegoating

      Explanation:

      Stigma Models

      Stigma refers to any attribute, trait, of disorder that marks an individual as being unacceptably different from the normal people with whom they routinely interact, and that elicits some form of community sanction. The most popular model of stigma comes from the work of Link and Phelan, which has four aspects to it.

      The first aspect is labelling, which refers to personal characteristics that mark individuals as different. These characteristics can be physical, mental, of social in nature and can include things like race, gender, sexual orientation, of mental illness.

      The second aspect is stereotyping, which involves linking labelled characteristics to undesirable characteristics. For example, people with mental illness may be stereotyped as violent of unpredictable, even though the vast majority of them are not.

      The third aspect is separating, which involves separating the labelled group and normal people by viewing them as very different. This can lead to social isolation and exclusion, which can further exacerbate the negative effects of stigma.

      The fourth and final aspect is status loss and discrimination, which refers to the devaluing, rejecting, and excluding of the labelled group. This can take many forms, including employment discrimination, housing discrimination, and social exclusion.

      Overall, the model of stigma developed by Link and Phelan provides a useful framework for understanding the complex and multifaceted nature of stigma and its effects on individuals and society as a whole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      751.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which psychologist proposed the law of effect, which suggests that the likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • Which psychologist proposed the law of effect, which suggests that the likelihood of a behavior occurring is influenced by the consequences it produces in the environment?

      Your Answer: Skinner's

      Correct Answer: Thorndike's

      Explanation:

      Thorndike’s Law of Effect

      Thorndike’s law of effect is a principle that explains how the likelihood of an action occurring is influenced by the effect it has on the environment.

      In simpler terms, this law suggests that actions that result in pleasurable outcomes are more likely to be repeated, while actions that lead to discomfort of negative consequences are less likely to be repeated.

      This law has significant implications for behavior and learning. It suggests that positive reinforcement is a powerful tool for shaping behavior, as it increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. On the other hand, punishment of negative consequences may not be as effective in changing behavior, as they may only serve to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated, rather than promoting a desired behavior.

      Overall, Thorndike’s law of effect highlights the importance of understanding the consequences of our actions and how they shape our behavior. By focusing on positive reinforcement and creating environments that promote desirable behaviors, we can increase the likelihood of success and positive outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which topic is associated with the Tarasoff case? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which topic is associated with the Tarasoff case?

      Your Answer: Consent

      Correct Answer: Confidentiality

      Explanation:

      Tarasoff Case: Mental Health Professionals’ Duty to Protect

      The Tarasoff case was brought before the Supreme Court of California, which ruled that mental health professionals have a responsibility to safeguard individuals who are at risk of physical harm from a patient. This decision has significant implications for the issue of confidentiality in mental health treatment. The court’s ruling establishes that the duty to protect supersedes the duty to maintain confidentiality in situations where a patient poses a threat to others. This case highlights the importance of mental health professionals’ obligation to balance their ethical responsibilities with the safety of their patients and the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which theory can be used to explain the process of a boy overcoming...

    Correct

    • Which theory can be used to explain the process of a boy overcoming his fear of a new dog through repeated exposure while being comforted by his mother?

      Your Answer: Reciprocal inhibition

      Explanation:

      The child’s ability to confront his fear is facilitated by his relaxation while sitting with his mother, which exemplifies the use of reciprocal inhibition in systematic desensitization.

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      111.9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Who wrote the first book on medical ethics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who wrote the first book on medical ethics?

      Your Answer: Hippocrates

      Correct Answer: Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi

      Explanation:

      Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi tackled ethical concerns in the field of medicine in his work, Adab al-Tabib (Conduct of a Physician), during the 9th century.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What factors contribute to the development of depression in relation to social background?...

    Correct

    • What factors contribute to the development of depression in relation to social background?

      Your Answer: Brown and Harris

      Explanation:

      Depression (Brown and Harris)

      In 1978, Brown and Harris conducted a study on 458 women in the inner London area of Camberwell to investigate the causes of depression. The study resulted in the development of a model that identified four vulnerability factors for depressive illness in women. These factors included having three of more children under the age of 14 at home, lacking an intimate relationship with a husband of boyfriend, lacking employment outside of the home, and experiencing the loss of a mother before the age of 11 years. The model emphasized the role of psychosocial factors in the development of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position? ...

    Correct

    • What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?

      Your Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which factor was not identified as a vulnerability for depression by Brown and...

    Incorrect

    • Which factor was not identified as a vulnerability for depression by Brown and Harris?

      Your Answer: Lack of an intimate relationship with a husband of boyfriend

      Correct Answer: Significant accumulation of debt resulting in threat of eviction

      Explanation:

      Depression (Brown and Harris)

      In 1978, Brown and Harris conducted a study on 458 women in the inner London area of Camberwell to investigate the causes of depression. The study resulted in the development of a model that identified four vulnerability factors for depressive illness in women. These factors included having three of more children under the age of 14 at home, lacking an intimate relationship with a husband of boyfriend, lacking employment outside of the home, and experiencing the loss of a mother before the age of 11 years. The model emphasized the role of psychosocial factors in the development of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      54.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - What study on hepatitis resulted in significant modifications to research ethics laws? ...

    Incorrect

    • What study on hepatitis resulted in significant modifications to research ethics laws?

      Your Answer: Tuskegee experiment

      Correct Answer: Willowbrook State School study

      Explanation:

      The Willowbrook School Study was conducted in a state-supported institution for children with learning difficulties in New York during the 1960s. The study involved inoculating healthy children with hepatitis and administering gamma globulin to assess its potential to treat the disorder.

      The Tuskegee syphilis experiment was a controversial follow-up study of people with syphilis. Many participants were not informed of their illness and did not receive available treatment, even though it became available halfway through the study. The Belmont report introduced changes to US law on research ethics as a result of this study.

      The Stanford prison experiment involved creating a simulated prison environment at Stanford University. Participants were assigned as either a prison of a guard and were given no guidelines for how to behave. Within two days, the participants began to act out their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and sometimes cruel to the prisoners. The study was terminated after only six days due to extreme emotional reactions from some of the prisoners.

      The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys hanging around public toilets where men meet to have sex in order to study the population and learn more about the types of men that did it. The method was controversial as he never disclosed his motives when he interviewed the men and instead pretended to be a ‘watch queen’, raising issues of informed consent in research.

      Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience. Participants were assigned the role of teacher and administered fake shocks to a confederate playing the learner. Despite expressing concern, 30% of participants continued to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The study raised concerns for the wellbeing of participants, but Milgram decided not to terminate it as prior participants seemed to recover relatively well.

      Beecher’s Study

      Beecher’s study revealed more than 20 instances where individuals were subjected to experimentation without being fully informed of their participation in research and the potential risks involved. One of the cases cited was the Willowbrook State School study, where children with mental disabilities were intentionally infected with hepatitis under the guise of a vaccination program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer?

      Your Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - What is meant by 'double agentry' and which parties may experience conflicts of...

    Correct

    • What is meant by 'double agentry' and which parties may experience conflicts of interests as a result?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Double Agentry in Psychiatry

      Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.

      The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.

      This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Who is recognized as the originator of trait theory? ...

    Correct

    • Who is recognized as the originator of trait theory?

      Your Answer: Allport

      Explanation:

      Trait Theory: Understanding Personality Traits

      Trait theory is a psychological approach that seeks to understand personality by identifying and categorizing specific traits. The theory was first introduced by Gordon Allport, who classified personality traits into three levels.

      At the highest level, we have cardinal traits. These are traits that are so pervasive that they dominate a person’s behavior and activities. Only a few people possess cardinal traits, but for those who do, these traits are the ruling force of their personality. Cardinal traits are usually evident to most people who know the individual.

      The second level of traits is central traits. These are easily detected characteristics within a person, traits that all people have a certain number of, usually around five to ten on average. Central traits are the building blocks of personality and help to define a person’s overall character.

      Finally, we have secondary traits. These are less evident and only manifest in select circumstances. They are not as important as central of cardinal traits, but they still play a role in shaping a person’s behavior and personality.

      Overall, trait theory provides a useful framework for understanding personality and how it develops over time. By identifying and categorizing specific traits, psychologists can gain insights into why people behave the way they do and how they can change their behavior to achieve their goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following best describes a scenario where a patient vividly remembers...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes a scenario where a patient vividly remembers their activities during the 9/11 attacks while attending an outpatient appointment?

      Your Answer: Flashbulb memory

      Explanation:

      Flashbulb Memory

      Flashbulb memories are vivid and detailed recollections of the circumstances surrounding a significant event. These memories are typically episodic, meaning they are focused on the specific details of the event rather than just the facts. One example of a flashbulb memory might be recalling where you were and what you were doing when you first heard about the death of Princess Diana in 1997. What sets flashbulb memories apart from other types of memories is the high level of emotional arousal that accompanies them. This emotional intensity helps to cement the memory in the mind, making it more vivid and long-lasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which condition is linked to a lack of hypocretin? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is linked to a lack of hypocretin?

      Your Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Hypocretin deficiency has been linked to narcolepsy, as it is a neuropeptide hormone produced in the hypothalamus that plays a crucial role in regulating sleep, arousal, appetite, and energy expenditure (also known as orexin) (Mignot, 2000).

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - In which area of memory is a patient with dementia experiencing difficulty in...

    Correct

    • In which area of memory is a patient with dementia experiencing difficulty in recalling the specifics of their wedding?

      Your Answer: Episodic

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which scientist's work is most closely linked to Lorenz's theory of aggression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which scientist's work is most closely linked to Lorenz's theory of aggression?

      Your Answer: Skinner

      Correct Answer: Darwin

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where individuals tend to...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where individuals tend to put in less effort when working in a group compared to when working individually?

      Your Answer: Social loafing

      Explanation:

      Understanding Social Loafing

      Social loafing is a common phenomenon that occurs when people work in groups. It refers to the tendency of individuals to exert less effort when working in a group than when working alone. This can be attributed to the diffusion of responsibility, where individuals feel less accountable for their actions when working in a group. As a result, they may not put in as much effort as they would if they were working alone. Social loafing can have negative consequences for group performance, as it can lead to a lack of motivation and a decrease in productivity. Therefore, it is important to understand the causes of social loafing and take steps to prevent it from occurring in group settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - To which category of memory does procedural memory belong? ...

    Incorrect

    • To which category of memory does procedural memory belong?

      Your Answer: Episodic

      Correct Answer: Implicit

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - The defining characteristic of virtue theory is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The defining characteristic of virtue theory is:

      Your Answer: The beliefs of an individual

      Correct Answer: The character of the person

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test? ...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test?

      Your Answer: Theory of mind

      Explanation:

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which model of the mind is composed of the fundamental elements of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which model of the mind is composed of the fundamental elements of the Id, ego, and Superego?

      Your Answer: Topographical

      Correct Answer: Structural

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - What is the term used to describe the disciplinary action of taking away...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the disciplinary action of taking away a child's train set for hitting their friend?

      Your Answer: Negative punishment

      Explanation:

      The objective is to decrease the occurrence of the conduct through punishment, which involves taking away a pleasurable stimulus (the train set).

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - What kind of memory is necessary to recall the details of when and...

    Correct

    • What kind of memory is necessary to recall the details of when and where you observed an incident?

      Your Answer: Episodic

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      247.1
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - In the OPCS classification, which social class does semi-skilled work fall under? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the OPCS classification, which social class does semi-skilled work fall under?

      Your Answer: Social class V

      Correct Answer: Social class IV

      Explanation:

      Occupational Classification:

      The Office of Population Censuses and Surveys has developed a social and occupational classification system that categorizes individuals based on their employment status and level of skill. The system includes six social classes, ranging from unemployed of student (social class 0) to professional (social class I).

      Social class I includes individuals who hold professional positions, such as doctors, lawyers, and engineers. These individuals typically have advanced degrees and specialized training in their field.

      Social class II includes intermediate positions, such as managers, supervisors, and technicians. These individuals may have some level of specialized training of education, but not to the same extent as those in social class I.

      Social class III includes skilled, manual, of clerical positions, such as electricians, mechanics, and administrative assistants. These individuals have a high level of skill in their field and may require some level of training of certification.

      Social class IV includes semi-skilled positions, such as factory workers, machine operators, and retail salespeople. These individuals may have some level of training of experience, but not to the same extent as those in social class III.

      Social class V includes unskilled positions, such as laborers, cleaners, and agricultural workers. These individuals typically do not require any specialized training of education and may perform manual labor of basic tasks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - What statement accurately describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs model? ...

    Correct

    • What statement accurately describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs model?

      Your Answer: B needs can only be met once D needs are satisfied

      Explanation:

      Maslow differentiated between two types of needs: deficiency needs (D-needs) and being needs (B-needs). While B-needs enable us to achieve our highest potential, they can only be met once the D-needs have been fulfilled. The lower four levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs correspond to D-needs.

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      71.5
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - What is the synonym for consequentialism? ...

    Correct

    • What is the synonym for consequentialism?

      Your Answer: Teleology

      Explanation:

      Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which concept is linked to the term 'eudaimonia'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which concept is linked to the term 'eudaimonia'?

      Your Answer: Deontology

      Correct Answer: Virtue ethics

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - How would you define a term that refers to a mark of shame...

    Correct

    • How would you define a term that refers to a mark of shame of dishonor that distinguishes an individual from their peers?

      Your Answer: Stigma

      Explanation:

      Stigma refers to a characteristic of behavior that is deemed shameful by society and causes an individual to be viewed as different from others.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - In what type of conditioning does a GP advise a patient to view...

    Correct

    • In what type of conditioning does a GP advise a patient to view a picture of lung cancer every time they smoke a cigarette to help them quit smoking?

      Your Answer: Aversive conditioning

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories?

      Your Answer: The rightness or wrongness of an act depends upon why it was done

      Correct Answer: The moral status of an act is determined by its outcomes

      Explanation:

      The exam will require you to differentiate between the three main ethical principles: consequentialism, virtue theory, and deontology. Consequentialism prioritizes outcomes over intentions, while virtue theory emphasizes character, and deontology focuses on motives. A deep understanding of ethics is not necessary, but a basic comprehension of these principles is required.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      301.4
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - What is a true statement about flashbulb memory? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about flashbulb memory?

      Your Answer: It occurs at times of increased emotional arousal

      Explanation:

      Flashbulb Memory

      Flashbulb memories are vivid and detailed recollections of the circumstances surrounding a significant event. These memories are typically episodic, meaning they are focused on the specific details of the event rather than just the facts. One example of a flashbulb memory might be recalling where you were and what you were doing when you first heard about the death of Princess Diana in 1997. What sets flashbulb memories apart from other types of memories is the high level of emotional arousal that accompanies them. This emotional intensity helps to cement the memory in the mind, making it more vivid and long-lasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?...

    Correct

    • How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?

      Your Answer: A symbolic image in the collective unconscious

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - In what area of human behavior did Lorenz develop his ideas based on...

    Correct

    • In what area of human behavior did Lorenz develop his ideas based on his research with birds?

      Your Answer: Aggression

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following characteristics would be associated with an individual possessing referent...

    Correct

    • Which of the following characteristics would be associated with an individual possessing referent power?

      Your Answer: Charismatic

      Explanation:

      Referent power is the capacity of a leader to sway a follower’s actions based on the follower’s allegiance, esteem, camaraderie, adoration, fondness, of aspiration for validation. Typically, these leaders possess charisma.

      Power Theory

      French and Raven (1959) developed the 5 base theory of power, which identifies five types of power. These include legitimate power, which is held by an individual in an organization, referent power, which is held by a person with charisma who people gravitate towards, expert power, which is held by a person with specialist skills of knowledge, reward power, which is held by a person in a position to provide rewards, and coercive power, which is held by a person who has the ability to apply negative influences such as demotion. Other terms to be aware of include outcome power, which is the power of a person to bring about outcomes, social power, which is the power of a person to influence others so that they will bring about outcomes, and counterpower, which is the power of the oppressed to counterbalance the elite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and...

    Correct

    • The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and to maintain a social life was first examined in which theory?

      Your Answer: The sick role

      Explanation:

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - What is the theory that suggests emotions are a result of physical sensations...

    Incorrect

    • What is the theory that suggests emotions are a result of physical sensations in the body?

      Your Answer: Cannon-Bard theory

      Correct Answer: James-Lange theory

      Explanation:

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test? ...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test?

      Your Answer: Theory of mind

      Explanation:

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - What is the term used to describe the approach of an Asian immigrant...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the approach of an Asian immigrant in England who practices his religion and cultural traditions at home but adapts well to the English language and culture at work?

      Your Answer: Assimilation

      Correct Answer: Integration

      Explanation:

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is:

      Your Answer: Cohesiveness

      Correct Answer: Pairing

      Explanation:

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - What is the underlying cause of disease according to the diathesis-stress model? ...

    Correct

    • What is the underlying cause of disease according to the diathesis-stress model?

      Your Answer: A predisposition for a disease and a triggering event

      Explanation:

      Diathesis-Stress Model

      The Diathesis-Stress Model acknowledges that a person’s behavior is influenced by both their experiences and genetics. This model proposes that some individuals have a pre-existing vulnerability (diathesis) towards a particular illness, and that certain environmental stressors can trigger the onset of the illness. The model emphasizes the interplay between nature and nurture in shaping a person’s mental health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - What is another term for non-declarative memory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is another term for non-declarative memory?

      Your Answer: Explicit

      Correct Answer: Implicit

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which researcher conducted experiments with a team of accomplices to study how individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which researcher conducted experiments with a team of accomplices to study how individuals conform to group opinions on the length of a string, even if it is clearly incorrect?

      Your Answer: Milgram

      Correct Answer: Asch

      Explanation:

      Psychology Experiments and Theories

      Asch conducted experiments on conformity, where participants tended to agree with group estimates even when they were clearly wrong. Heider introduced attribution theory and the fundamental attribution error. Milgram studied obedience by instructing participants to administer electric shocks to actors who were struggling in a learning task. Janis described groupthink, which is the tendency to pursue consensus in group decisions. On a different note, James Osterberg, who is more commonly known as Iggy Pop, performed with the rock band The Stooges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which condition is characterized by experiencing hypnagogic hallucinations and excessive daytime sleepiness? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is characterized by experiencing hypnagogic hallucinations and excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer: Cataplexy

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - What are the professional standards that doctors in the UK are expected to...

    Correct

    • What are the professional standards that doctors in the UK are expected to adhere to?

      Your Answer: The GMC permits doctors to accept gifts from patients

      Explanation:

      Professionalism and UK Regulation

      Oaths and declarations are important in establishing trust and credibility for professions. The Hippocratic Oath, dating back to 425 BC, is a part of the Western medical tradition and emphasizes the teaching of medicine, patient’s best interests, confidentiality, and abstinence from harmful practices. However, it does not mention concepts such as autonomy of justice and forbids surgery. The Declaration of Geneva (1948) and the Declaration of Helsinki (1964) are modern-day versions of the Hippocratic Oath, emphasizing the patient’s health and interests over science and society. These declarations arose from the concern of the medical community’s complicity with the Nazi party during World War II.

      In the UK, doctors must register with the General Medical Council (GMC), which sets professional standards and maintains a register of licensed doctors. It is illegal to practice medicine without a license in the UK. The GMC’s Good Medical Practice and the Good Medical Practice: Framework for Appraisal and Revalidation document emphasizes the duty of doctors to be honest and trustworthy, with dishonesty viewed harshly. Confidentiality is an important legal and ethical duty, but it is not absolute. Breaches of confidentiality may occur in emergencies, in the interests of others, when required by statute of the courts, of when required by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). Sexualized relationships with current patients are prohibited, and accepting unsolicited gifts from patients is allowed but must not affect the way doctors prescribe, advise, treat, refer, of commission services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played a significant role in establishing the four principles of medical ethics?

      Your Answer: Ross

      Explanation:

      Ross proposed the idea of prima facie duties, which were later modified by Beauchamp and Childress to form the four principles approach to medical ethics. The prima facie duties identified by Ross encompassed fidelity, reparation, gratitude, non-injury, harm-prevention, beneficence, self-improvement, and justice.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - As part of a cognitive evaluation, can you tell me the name of...

    Correct

    • As part of a cognitive evaluation, can you tell me the name of the current Prime Minister? This will help assess which type of memory?

      Your Answer: Semantic

      Explanation:

      According to Gelder (2009), semantic memory pertains to knowledge of facts and concepts that can be consciously recalled. Unlike episodic memory, which is also a type of declarative memory, semantic memory is not tied to any particular personal experience.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance?

      Your Answer: Beck

      Correct Answer: Festinger

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - What guidance is provided for doctors treating individuals on hunger strike? ...

    Correct

    • What guidance is provided for doctors treating individuals on hunger strike?

      Your Answer: Declaration of Malta

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - What psychological process is referred to by the term 'cocktail party effect'? ...

    Correct

    • What psychological process is referred to by the term 'cocktail party effect'?

      Your Answer: Focussed attention in presence of multiple stimuli

      Explanation:

      The term phatic communication is used to describe casual conversation. The ‘cocktail party effect’ is the ability to concentrate on one person’s voice in any setting, such as a classroom, sports game, of coffee shop, even if there is a lot of background noise.

      The Cocktail Party Effect: Selective Attention in Noisy Environments

      The cocktail party effect is a phenomenon that allows individuals to selectively focus on a single conversation in a noisy environment, while ignoring other competing conversations. This feature of selective attention is particularly useful in social situations, such as parties, where multiple conversations are taking place simultaneously. For instance, if you are conversing with a friend at a noisy party, you can effectively tune out the surrounding noise and concentrate on your friend’s conversation. This ability to filter out irrelevant information and focus on relevant information is a crucial aspect of human cognition. It enables us to navigate complex social environments and engage in meaningful interactions with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - What is implied when the father of a teenage boy, admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is implied when the father of a teenage boy, admitted to the ward on which you work, expresses concern about his son's behavior and rejection of Islam? The father, who was born in Pakistan and raised his son there until he was 14, explains that the family are devout Muslims. However, since moving to the UK, his son has started drinking alcohol and taking drugs, dropped out of school, and appears to have no regard for the law. He also rejects invitations from other children to spend time with them at the cinema and in the local park.

      Your Answer: Separation

      Correct Answer: Marginalization

      Explanation:

      The boy seems to have disavowed his native culture and has not assimilated into the prevailing culture (as evidenced by his refusal to pursue education and interact with local peers). The concept of ‘biculturalism’ refers to the coexistence of two separate cultures.

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which option is not one of Bowlby's stages of grief? ...

    Correct

    • Which option is not one of Bowlby's stages of grief?

      Your Answer: Bargaining

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - The patient made an error in assuming that the young woman was a...

    Correct

    • The patient made an error in assuming that the young woman was a nurse and not the consultant when they approached her to discuss their treatment on the acute ward. This error can be explained by the availability of which heuristic, where the patient relied on their immediate perception of the young women's appearance and role in the ward to make a quick judgment about her identity?

      Your Answer: Representativeness

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - What is the term used to describe learning that occurs as a result...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe learning that occurs as a result of the consequences of behaviours?

      Your Answer: Operant conditioning

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What is the term for a neutral stimulus that becomes associated with an...

    Correct

    • What is the term for a neutral stimulus that becomes associated with an unconditioned stimulus?

      Your Answer: A conditioned stimulus

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Who is responsible for introducing the concept of 'Filter Theory' in the context...

    Correct

    • Who is responsible for introducing the concept of 'Filter Theory' in the context of selective attention?

      Your Answer: Broadbent

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - How can the cognitive aspect of social capital be defined? ...

    Correct

    • How can the cognitive aspect of social capital be defined?

      Your Answer: Values

      Explanation:

      Social Capital: An Explanation for Inequalities in Morbidity and Mortality

      The concept of social capital may provide insight into the observed disparities in morbidity and mortality based on occupational social class and material standard of living (McKenzie 2002). Social capital is considered the binding force of society, and it is believed that groups lacking in social capital may be at higher risk for mental illness.

      Social capital is defined as the features of social life – networks, norms, and trust – that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives (Putnam, 1996). It is a characteristic of groups rather than individuals and can be divided into structural and cognitive components. Structural social capital includes roles, rules, behaviors, networks, and institutions that bond individuals in groups, bridge divides between societal groups, of vertically integrate groups with different levels of power and influence in a society, leading to social inclusion. Cognitive social capital refers to the values, attitudes, and beliefs that produce cooperative behavior (Colletta & Cullen, 2000).

      In summary, social capital may offer an explanation for the observed inequalities in morbidity and mortality by occupational social class and material standard of living. It is a property of groups and can be broken down into structural and cognitive components.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which individual delved into the field of medical sociology regarding the concept of...

    Correct

    • Which individual delved into the field of medical sociology regarding the concept of 'the sick role'?

      Your Answer: Parson's

      Explanation:

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Who is credited with creating the term 'manic depression'? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'manic depression'?

      Your Answer: Kraepelin

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which three terms were identified by Thomas and Chess as part of their...

    Correct

    • Which three terms were identified by Thomas and Chess as part of their classification system for child temperament?

      Your Answer: Easy, difficult, slow to warm up

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Social Psychology (63/100) 63%
Passmed