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  • Question 1 - A 35 year old male intravenous drug user who frequently visits the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male intravenous drug user who frequently visits the emergency department presents with abdominal pain. Upon examination, the patient exhibits clinical signs of jaundice. The patient reveals that he was diagnosed with hepatitis B approximately 10 months ago but did not follow up on the recommended treatment. You decide to repeat his hepatitis serology.

      What findings would be anticipated in a patient with chronic hepatitis B infection?

      Your Answer: Anti-HBc positive and HBsAg positive

      Explanation:

      In a patient with chronic hepatitis B, the typical serology results would show positive anti-HBc and positive HBsAg. This indicates that the patient has a long-term infection with hepatitis B. The presence of IgG anti-HBc indicates that the infection will persist for life, while IgM anti-HBc will only be present for about 6 months.

      If a patient has positive anti-HBs but all other serological markers are negative, it suggests that they have been previously immunized against hepatitis B. On the other hand, if a patient has positive anti-HBs along with positive anti-HBc, it indicates that they have developed immunity following a past infection.

      In the case of an acute hepatitis B infection that has been cleared more than 6 months ago, the serology results would typically show positive anti-HBc but negative HBsAg. This indicates that the infection has been successfully cleared by the immune system.

      Further Reading:

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.

      Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.

      Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.

      In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.

      Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A middle-aged homeless individual with a history of intravenous drug use complains of...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged homeless individual with a history of intravenous drug use complains of extremely intense back pain, accompanied by a fever and weakness in the left leg. The pain has been disrupting his sleep and hindering his ability to walk. During the examination, tenderness is observed in the lower lumbar spine, along with weakness in left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.

      What is the MOST probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Discitis

      Explanation:

      Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in intravenous drug users and those with weakened immune systems. Gram-negative organisms such as Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in 1-2% of cases post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.

      The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, refusal to walk may also be a symptom.

      When diagnosing discitis, MRI is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. CT scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.

      Treatment for discitis involves admission to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is important to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a CRP, to the lab. The choice of antibiotics depends on the specific situation. A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis may include IV flucloxacillin as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy, IV vancomycin if the infection was acquired in the hospital or there is a high risk of MRSA, and possibly IV gentamicin if there is a possibility of a Gram-negative infection. In cases where there is acute kidney injury and Gram-negative cover is required, IV piperacillin-tazobactam alone may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      206.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 2-year-old girl presents with a barking cough. You suspect croup as the...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl presents with a barking cough. You suspect croup as the diagnosis. She has noticeable stridor at rest and mild chest wall retractions. Her chest examination is normal with good air entry throughout. Her SaO2 is 96% on air at rest but falls to 92% when agitated. Her conscious level is normal.
      What is this child’s Westley croup score?

      Your Answer: 4 points

      Correct Answer: 8 points

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually peak within 1-3 days, with the cough being more severe at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      A barking cough is a characteristic symptom of croup, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly used. Nebulized budesonide can be an alternative if the child is experiencing vomiting. However, it’s important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      Hospitalization for croup is rare and typically reserved for children who are experiencing increasing respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness/agitation. The Westley croup score is a useful tool for assessing the child’s condition and making appropriate management decisions. Children with moderate (score 2-7) or severe croup (score >7) may require hospital admission. On the other hand, many children with mild croup (score 0-1) can be safely discharged and treated at home.

      The Westley croup score is determined based on the following criteria: the presence of stridor at rest, the severity of retractions, air entry, SaO2 levels below 92% when agitated, and the conscious level of the child. In this particular case, the child’s Westley croup score is 8 points, indicating severe croup.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has severe bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. A chest X-ray reveals a significantly widened mediastinum, deviation of the trachea to the left, and fractures of the third and fourth ribs. Her vital signs are HR 88, BP 130/78, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen.

      At which anatomical site is an injury MOST likely to have occurred in this case?

      Your Answer: Near the point of origin of the left subclavian artery

      Correct Answer: Near the ligamentum arteriosum

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture is a relatively common cause of sudden death following major trauma, especially high-speed road traffic accidents (RTAs). It is estimated that 15-20% of deaths from RTAs are due to this injury. If the aortic rupture is promptly recognized and treated, patients who survive the initial injury can fully recover.

      Surviving patients often have an incomplete laceration near the ligamentum arteriosum of the aorta. The continuity is maintained by either an intact adventitial layer or a contained mediastinal hematoma, which prevents immediate exsanguination and death.

      Detecting traumatic aortic rupture can be challenging as many patients do not exhibit specific symptoms, and other injuries may also be present, making the diagnosis unclear.

      Chest X-ray findings can aid in the diagnosis and include fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, a grossly widened mediastinum, a hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus (or NG tube) to the right.

      Helical contrast-enhanced CT scanning is highly sensitive and specific for detecting aortic rupture, but it should only be performed on hemodynamically stable patients.

      Treatment options include primary repair or resection of the torn segment with replacement using an interposition graft. Endovascular repair is also now considered an acceptable alternative approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman is given trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection while in...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is given trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection while in her second trimester of pregnancy. As a result of this medication, the baby develops a birth defect.
      What is the most probable abnormality that will occur as a result of using this drug during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Neural tube defect

      Explanation:

      During the first trimester of pregnancy, the use of trimethoprim is linked to an increased risk of neural tube defects because it antagonizes folate. If it is not possible to use an alternative antibiotic, it is recommended that pregnant women taking trimethoprim also take high-dose folic acid. However, the use of trimethoprim in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is considered safe.

      Below is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimesters, they can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): They can cause ototoxicity and deafness.

      Aspirin: High doses can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, they can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, they can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: It can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: It can cause grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, they may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, it can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, it may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: It can cause maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid: It can lead to maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a high temperature, shivering, aching head, cough,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a high temperature, shivering, aching head, cough, and difficulty breathing. He also complains of a sore throat and occasional nosebleeds. He works at a nearby zoo in the birdhouse. During the examination, a red rash is noticed on his face, along with significant crackling sounds in both lower lobes of his lungs and an enlarged spleen.
      What is the BEST antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis is a type of infection that can be transmitted from animals to humans, known as a zoonotic infection. It is caused by a bacterium called Chlamydia psittaci. This infection is most commonly seen in people who own domestic birds, but it can also affect those who work in pet shops or zoos.

      The typical presentation of psittacosis includes symptoms similar to those of pneumonia that is acquired within the community. People may experience flu-like symptoms along with severe headaches and sensitivity to light. In about two-thirds of patients, an enlargement of the spleen, known as splenomegaly, can be observed.

      Infected individuals often develop a reddish rash with flat spots on their face, known as Horder’s spots. Additionally, they may experience skin conditions such as erythema nodosum or erythema multiforme.

      The recommended treatment for psittacosis is a course of tetracycline or doxycycline, which should be taken for a period of 2-3 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      95
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to assess the patient and initiate her treatment.
      What condition will she develop if she goes untreated?

      Your Answer: Korsakoff psychosis

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional features may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.

      The condition is caused by capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These changes can be visualized using MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

      Patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy should receive parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Oral thiamine should be administered after the parenteral therapy.

      It is important to note that in patients with chronic thiamine deficiency, the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine can trigger the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A middle-aged man is brought to the hospital with slurred speech and unusual...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man is brought to the hospital with slurred speech and unusual behavior. He has been experiencing urinary incontinence and has also noticed weakness in his right arm. A CT scan is conducted, which confirms the diagnosis of a stroke.
      Which of the following blood vessels is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:

      Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.

      Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.

      Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.

      It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated with IBD.
      Which of the following conditions is NOT linked to Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and blockage over time. This leads to recurrent episodes of cholangitis and progressive scarring of the bile ducts. Ultimately, PSC can result in liver cirrhosis, liver failure, and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It is commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, with more than 80% of PSC patients also having ulcerative colitis. However, there is no association between PSC and Crohn’s disease.

      On the other hand, Crohn’s disease has its own set of recognized associations. For instance, there is an increased incidence of Crohn’s disease among smokers, with approximately 50-60% of Crohn’s patients being smokers. Other associations include the presence of aphthous ulcers, uveitis and episcleritis (eye inflammation), seronegative spondyloarthropathies (inflammatory joint diseases), erythema nodosum (painful skin nodules), pyoderma gangrenosum (skin ulceration), finger clubbing, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, cholelithiasis (gallstones), and osteoporosis.

      It is important to note the distinct associations and characteristics of these two conditions, as they have different implications for diagnosis, treatment, and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man is brought in to the Emergency Department by his wife....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is brought in to the Emergency Department by his wife. He is experiencing multiple episodes of vertigo, each lasting almost all day, before resolving spontaneously. He usually vomits during the attacks and complains of a sensation of fullness in his ears. He also states that his hearing has been worse than usual recently, and he is also experiencing symptoms of tinnitus.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniere’s disease

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear due to changes in fluid volume within the vestibular labyrinth. This leads to the progressive distension of the labyrinth, known as endolymphatic hydrops, which causes damage to the vestibular system and the cochlea. The classic symptoms associated with Meniere’s disease are vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus.

      The main clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that typically last for 2-3 hours. These episodes are usually shorter than 24 hours in duration. Hearing loss, which is often gradual and affects only one ear, is also a common symptom. Tinnitus, a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears, is frequently associated with Meniere’s disease. Other symptoms may include a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ears, as well as nausea and vomiting. Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, may occur away from the side of the lesion. Meniere’s disease is more prevalent in individuals who suffer from migraines.

      The management of Meniere’s disease aims to alleviate acute attacks, reduce their severity and frequency, and improve hearing while minimizing the impact of tinnitus. If Meniere’s disease is suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist.

      During acute attacks, medications such as prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, and cyclizine can help reduce nausea and vertigo symptoms. If vomiting is present, buccal or intramuscular administration of these medications may be necessary. In severe cases, hospital admission may be required to prevent dehydration.

      For long-term prevention, lifestyle measures can be beneficial. Avoiding caffeine, chocolate, alcohol, and tobacco is recommended. Excessive fatigue should also be avoided. Following a low-salt diet may be helpful. Betahistine, a medication that initially starts at a dose of 16 mg three times a day, can be used for prophylaxis to reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. Diuretics may also be beneficial, but they are typically not recommended for primary care use.

      Overall, the management of Meniere’s disease involves a combination of lifestyle changes and medication to control symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his partner due to increasing drowsiness. The patient's partner informs you that the patient was involved in a physical altercation approximately 40 minutes ago. The patient was struck in the temple and experienced a brief loss of consciousness for around 20 seconds. Initially, the patient appeared to be fine, but after about 20 minutes, he started becoming progressively more drowsy. A CT scan reveals the presence of an extradural hematoma. Which cranial nerve palsy is most commonly observed in this condition?

      Your Answer: Optic nerve

      Correct Answer: Abducens nerve

      Explanation:

      Abducens nerve palsy is often linked to extradural hematoma. When there is a mass effect, downward brain herniation can occur, leading to the involvement of the 6th cranial nerve (abducens nerve, CN VI). This nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for eye abduction. When the abducens nerve is affected, the lateral rectus muscle is unable to function properly, resulting in an inward turning of the affected eye towards the nose (esotropia).

      Further Reading:

      Extradural haematoma (EDH) is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and the outer layer of the dura, the dura mater. It is typically caused by head trauma and is often associated with a skull fracture, with the pterion being the most common site of injury. The middle meningeal artery is the most common source of bleeding in EDH.

      Clinical features of EDH include a history of head injury with transient loss of consciousness, followed by a lucid interval and gradual loss of consciousness. Other symptoms may include severe headache, sixth cranial nerve palsies, nausea and vomiting, seizures, signs of raised intracranial pressure, and focal neurological deficits.

      Imaging of EDH typically shows a biconvex shape and may cause mass effect with brain herniation. It can be differentiated from subdural haematoma by its appearance on imaging.

      Management of EDH involves prompt referral to neurosurgery for evacuation of the haematoma. In some cases with a small EDH, conservative management may be considered. With prompt evacuation, the prognosis for EDH is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You evaluate a 68-year-old woman diagnosed with small-cell lung cancer.
    Which ONE paraneoplastic syndrome...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 68-year-old woman diagnosed with small-cell lung cancer.
      Which ONE paraneoplastic syndrome is most frequently linked to this form of lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      Ectopic production of ACTH is linked to small-cell lung cancer and can lead to Cushing’s syndrome. It can also be observed in cases of pancreatic cancer and thymoma.

      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) is characterized by the presence of periostitis, arthritis, and finger clubbing. On plain X-ray, subperiosteal new bone formation can be detected. This condition primarily affects the long bones and often causes pain. It is most commonly associated with squamous cell lung cancer and pulmonary adenocarcinoma.

      Gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of breast tissue in males, can occur as a result of squamous cell lung cancer. In these cases, it tends to be accompanied by pain.

      Rarely, squamous cell lung cancer can cause ectopic production of TSH, leading to hyperthyroidism.

      Carcinoid syndrome is a condition that arises from carcinoid tumors, which secrete serotonin and kallikreins. This syndrome manifests as episodes of flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm. Additionally, 50% of patients develop a secondary restrictive cardiomyopathy. Carcinoid tumors can occur in various locations, with the small intestine being the most common site. Other locations include the lungs (bronchial adenoma), rectum, appendix, and stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A young hiker who got stranded while hiking in freezing temperatures is brought...

    Correct

    • A young hiker who got stranded while hiking in freezing temperatures is brought to the emergency department with severe hypothermia and experiences cardiac arrest during transportation. You are working in a hospital equipped with Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) facilities. The patient is transferred to undergo CPB treatment. What is the likelihood of survival in cases of hypothermic cardiac-respiratory arrest?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.

      ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.

      Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.

      Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest reveals a traumatic aortic injury.

      Where is her injury most likely to have occurred anatomically?

      Your Answer: Aortic arch

      Correct Answer: Proximal descending aorta

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.

      The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.

      Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.

      A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.

      Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and nausea following a recent viral illness....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and nausea following a recent viral illness. She experienced flu-like symptoms for four days and had difficulty eating during that time. She visited the Emergency Department with these symptoms but was discharged with instructions to rest in bed and take regular paracetamol. Her blood tests today reveal the following results:
      - Bilirubin: 50 mmol (3-20)
      - ALT: 34 IU/L (5-40)
      - ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
      - LDH: 150 IU/L (100-330)

      How is the condition typically inherited in this patient?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is the most common hereditary cause of elevated bilirubin levels and can be found in up to 5% of the population. It is characterized by an isolated increase in unconjugated bilirubin without any detectable liver disease. In most cases, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there have been some instances of autosomal dominant inheritance, particularly in Asian populations.

      The elevated bilirubin levels in Gilbert’s syndrome do not have any serious consequences and typically occur during times of stress, physical exertion, fasting, or infection. While it is often asymptomatic, some individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, decreased appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain.

      The underlying cause of the elevated bilirubin levels is a decrease in the activity of the enzyme glucuronyltransferase, which is responsible for conjugating bilirubin. In Gilbert’s syndrome, the bilirubin levels are generally less than three times the upper limit of normal, with more than 70% of the bilirubin being unconjugated. Liver function tests and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) levels are typically within the normal range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Correct

    • A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is requesting admission for ‘inpatient detox’ and states he would like some ‘medication to alleviate his symptoms’.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason for admitting this patient?

      Your Answer: Previous successful inpatient detox

      Explanation:

      NICE provides a list of reasons for admitting patients with acute alcohol withdrawal. These include individuals who are deemed to be at risk of experiencing withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Additionally, young people under the age of 16 who are going through acute alcohol withdrawal may also require admission. Furthermore, vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties, may also benefit from being admitted for acute alcohol withdrawal. For more information, please refer to the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You requested an evaluation of a 50-year-old individual who has come in with...

    Correct

    • You requested an evaluation of a 50-year-old individual who has come in with a two-day history of dizziness. The medical student has examined the patient and provided a tentative diagnosis of vestibular neuritis. What characteristics would typically be observed in a patient with vestibular neuritis?

      Your Answer: Recent viral infection

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis is believed to occur when the vestibular nerve becomes inflamed, often following a viral infection like a cold. This condition causes a constant feeling of dizziness, which can worsen with head movements. On the other hand, BPPV (benign paroxysmal positional vertigo) is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo lasting around 10-20 seconds, triggered by specific head movements. To diagnose BPPV, the Dix-Hallpike test is performed, and a positive result is indicated by a specific type of eye movement called nystagmus. In contrast, vestibular neuritis typically presents with horizontal nystagmus that only occurs in one direction.

      Further Reading:

      Vestibular neuritis, also known as vestibular neuronitis, is a condition characterized by sudden and prolonged vertigo of peripheral origin. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection. It is important to note that vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis are not the same condition, as labyrinthitis involves inflammation of the labyrinth. Vestibular neuritis typically affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 60, with a 1:1 ratio of males to females. The annual incidence is approximately 3.5 per 100,000 people, making it one of the most commonly diagnosed causes of vertigo.

      Clinical features of vestibular neuritis include nystagmus, which is a rapid, involuntary eye movement, typically in a horizontal or horizontal-torsional direction away from the affected ear. The head impulse test may also be positive. Other symptoms include spontaneous onset of rotational vertigo, which is worsened by changes in head position, as well as nausea, vomiting, and unsteadiness. These severe symptoms usually last for 2-3 days, followed by a gradual recovery over a few weeks. It is important to note that hearing is not affected in vestibular neuritis, and symptoms such as tinnitus and focal neurological deficits are not present.

      Differential diagnosis for vestibular neuritis includes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), labyrinthitis, Meniere’s disease, migraine, stroke, and cerebellar lesions. Management of vestibular neuritis involves drug treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo, typically through short courses of medication such as prochlorperazine or cyclizine. If symptoms are severe and fluids cannot be tolerated, admission and administration of IV fluids may be necessary. General advice should also be given, including avoiding driving while symptomatic, considering the suitability to work based on occupation and duties, and the increased risk of falls. Follow-up is required, and referral is necessary if there are atypical symptoms, symptoms do not improve after a week of treatment, or symptoms persist for more than 6 weeks.

      The prognosis for vestibular neuritis is generally good, with the majority of individuals fully recovering within 6 weeks. Recurrence is thought to occur in 2-11% of cases, and approximately 10% of individuals may develop BPPV following an episode of vestibular neuritis. A very rare complication of vestibular neuritis is ph

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with a frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with a frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She has engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a new partner within the past few months. During speculum examination, you observe a cervix that appears strawberry-colored.

      What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas vaginalis (TV) is a highly prevalent sexually transmitted disease that affects individuals worldwide. This disease is caused by a parasitic protozoan organism that can survive without the presence of mitochondria or peroxisomes. The risk of contracting TV increases with the number of sexual partners one has. It is important to note that men can also be affected by this disease, experiencing conditions such as prostatitis or urethritis.

      The clinical features of TV can vary. Surprisingly, up to 70% of patients may not exhibit any symptoms at all. However, for those who do experience symptoms, they may notice a frothy or green-yellow discharge with a strong odor. Other symptoms may include vaginitis and inflammation of the cervix, which can give it a distinctive strawberry appearance. In pregnant individuals, TV can lead to complications such as premature labor and low birth weight.

      Diagnosing TV can sometimes occur incidentally during routine smear tests. However, if a patient is symptomatic, the diagnosis is typically made through vaginal swabs for women or penile swabs for men. Treatment for TV usually involves taking metronidazole, either as a 400 mg dose twice a day for 5-7 days or as a single 2 g dose. It is worth noting that the single dose may have more gastrointestinal side effects. Another antibiotic option is tinidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man visits the emergency department 2 days after experiencing a head...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the emergency department 2 days after experiencing a head injury. The patient is worried about his excessive urination and fatigue since the injury. You suspect that he may have diabetes insipidus (DI). What is a characteristic symptom of diabetes insipidus?

      Your Answer: Serum osmolality > 300 mOsm/kg

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is characterized by low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality. This occurs because the kidneys are unable to properly reabsorb water and sodium, resulting in diluted urine with low osmolality. On the other hand, the loss of water and sodium leads to dehydration and concentration of the serum, causing a rise in serum osmolality. Hypernatremia is a common finding in patients with diabetes insipidus. In cases of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, hypokalemia and hypercalcemia may also be observed. Glucose levels are typically normal, unless the patient also has diabetes mellitus.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by either a decrease in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (cranial DI) or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (nephrogenic DI). Antidiuretic hormone, also known as arginine vasopressin, is produced in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary. The typical biochemical disturbances seen in DI include elevated plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality, polyuria, and hypernatraemia.

      Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, CNS infections, pituitary tumors, and pituitary surgery. Nephrogenic DI, on the other hand, can be genetic or result from electrolyte disturbances or the use of certain drugs. Symptoms of DI include polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, signs of dehydration, and in children, irritability, failure to thrive, and fatigue.

      To diagnose DI, a 24-hour urine collection is done to confirm polyuria, and U&Es will typically show hypernatraemia. High plasma osmolality with low urine osmolality is also observed. Imaging studies such as MRI of the pituitary, hypothalamus, and surrounding tissues may be done, as well as a fluid deprivation test to evaluate the response to desmopressin.

      Management of cranial DI involves supplementation with desmopressin, a synthetic form of arginine vasopressin. However, hyponatraemia is a common side effect that needs to be monitored. In nephrogenic DI, desmopressin supplementation is usually not effective, and management focuses on ensuring adequate fluid intake to offset water loss and monitoring electrolyte levels. Causative drugs need to be stopped, and there is a risk of developing complications such as hydroureteronephrosis and an overdistended bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 6-year-old girl presents with a history of a persistent cough that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents with a history of a persistent cough that has been present for the past four weeks. The cough occurs in quick bursts with a deep breath in followed by a series of forceful coughs. She occasionally vomits after coughing. Her mother reports that the cough is more severe at night.

      During the examination, her chest sounds clear, but you observe two small subconjunctival hemorrhages and some tiny red spots on her face.

      What is the MOST suitable test to perform in this case?

      Your Answer: Culture of nasopharyngeal swab

      Correct Answer: Serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels

      Explanation:

      This presentation strongly suggests a diagnosis of whooping cough, which is an infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. The disease is highly contagious and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. The incubation period is typically 7-21 days, and it is estimated that about 90% of close household contacts will become infected.

      The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage, known as the catarrhal stage, is similar to a mild respiratory infection with symptoms such as low-grade fever and a runny nose. A cough may be present, but it is usually not as severe as in the second stage. This phase typically lasts about a week.

      The second stage, called the paroxysmal stage, is characterized by the development of a distinctive cough. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound. These spasms are followed by a series of rapid, hacking coughs. Patients may also experience vomiting and develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Between spasms, patients generally feel well and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over this period. The later stages of this phase are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.

      Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.

      Public Health England (PHE) has specific recommendations for testing for whooping cough based on the age of the patient, the time since onset of illness, and the severity of the presentation.

      For infants under 12 months of age, hospitalized patients should be tested using PCR testing. Non-hospitalized patients within two weeks of onset should be investigated with culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Non-hospitalized patients presenting over two weeks after onset should be tested using serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.

      For children over 12 months of age and adults, patients within two weeks of onset should be tested using culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Patients aged 5 to 16 who have not received the vaccine within the last year and present over two weeks after onset should have oral fluid testing for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion over the past week. He normally controls his diabetes with metformin 500 mg twice a day. He recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from his GP, and his family reports that he has been excessively thirsty. He has vomited multiple times today. A urine dipstick test shows a trace of leukocytes and 2+ ketones. The results of his arterial blood gas analysis are as follows:
      pH: 7.29
      pO2: 11.1 kPa
      pCO2: 4.6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
      Na+: 154 mmol/l
      K+: 3.2 mmol/l
      Cl-: 100 mmol/l
      Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
      Glucose: 32 mmol/l
      Which investigation would be most helpful in guiding his management?

      Your Answer: Serum cortisol

      Correct Answer: Serum 3β-hydroxybutyrate

      Explanation:

      In an elderly patient with a history of gradual decline accompanied by symptoms of hyperglycemia, excessive thirst, recent infection, and very high blood sugar levels, the most likely diagnosis is a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). This condition can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate of approximately 50%. Common symptoms include high blood sugar levels, dehydration, altered mental status, and electrolyte imbalances. About 50% of patients with HHS also experience hypernatremia, an elevated sodium level in the blood.

      To calculate the serum osmolality, the following formula can be used: 2 (K+ + Na+) + urea + glucose. In this particular case, the calculation would be 2 (3.2 + 154) + 17.6 + 32 = 364 mmol/l. Patients with HHS typically have a serum osmolality greater than 350 mmol/l.

      In order to manage HHS, it is important to address the underlying cause and gradually and safely achieve the following goals:
      1. Normalize the osmolality
      2. Replace fluid and electrolyte losses
      3. Normalize blood glucose levels

      Given the presence of 1+ ketones in the patient’s urine, which is likely due to vomiting and a mild acidosis, it is recommended to discontinue the use of metformin due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). Additionally, an intravenous infusion of insulin should be initiated in this case.

      If significant ketonaemia is present (3β-hydroxybutyrate is more than 1 mmol/L), it indicates a relative deficiency of insulin, and insulin treatment should be started immediately. However, if significant ketonaemia is not present, insulin should not be initiated.

      Patients with HHS are at a high risk of developing thromboembolism, and therefore, routine administration of low molecular weight heparin is recommended. In cases where the serum osmolality exceeds 350 mmol/l, full heparinization should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You intend to utilize 1% lidocaine with adrenaline 1:200,000 for a peripheral nerve...

    Correct

    • You intend to utilize 1% lidocaine with adrenaline 1:200,000 for a peripheral nerve block on a 60 kg healthy young female. What is the maximum amount of lidocaine that can be administered in this scenario?

      Your Answer: 420 mg lidocaine hydrochloride

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 200 mg. However, when lidocaine is administered with adrenaline in a 1:200,000 ratio, the maximum safe dose increases to 7 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 500 mg.

      In this particular case, the patient weighs 60 kg, so the maximum safe dose of lidocaine hydrochloride would be 60 multiplied by 7 mg, resulting in a total of 420 mg.

      For more detailed information on lidocaine hydrochloride, you can refer to the BNF section dedicated to this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You evaluate a 62-year-old man with a painful swollen left big toe. The...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 62-year-old man with a painful swollen left big toe. The pain began this morning and is described as the most severe pain he has ever experienced. It has gradually worsened over the past 8 hours. He is unable to wear socks or shoes and had to come to the appointment in open-toe sandals. The skin over the affected area appears red and shiny.

      His only significant medical history is hypertension, which has been challenging to control. He is currently taking amlodipine 10 mg and ramipril 10 mg daily for this condition and is awaiting a medication review for his antihypertensive treatment. His blood pressure today measures 165/94 mmHg.
      What is the SINGLE most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Commence colchicine

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this case is clearly gout. According to the guidelines from the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR), the symptoms of acute pain, joint swelling, tenderness, and redness that worsen over a 6-12 hour period strongly suggest crystal arthropathy.

      Checking serum urate levels to confirm hyperuricemia before starting treatment for acute gout attacks has little benefit and should not delay treatment. While these levels can be useful for monitoring treatment response, they often decrease during an acute attack and can even be normal. If levels are checked and found to be normal during the attack, they should be rechecked once the attack has resolved.

      The first-line treatment for acute gout attacks is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like naproxen. However, caution should be exercised when using NSAIDs in patients with a history of hypertension. Since this patient has had difficulty controlling their blood pressure and remains hypertensive, it would be wise to avoid NSAIDs in this case.

      Colchicine is an effective alternative for treating gout, although it may take longer to take effect. It is often used in patients who cannot take NSAIDs due to contraindications such as hypertension or a history of peptic ulcer disease. Therefore, it is the most suitable choice for this patient.

      During an acute gout attack, allopurinol should not be used as it can prolong the attack and even trigger another acute episode. However, in patients already taking allopurinol, it should be continued, and the acute attack should be treated with NSAIDs or colchicine as appropriate.

      Febuxostat (Uloric) is another option for managing chronic gout, but like allopurinol, it should not be used for acute episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old man presents with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right eye. You conduct a fundoscopy and observe a sheet of sensory retina bulging towards the center of the eye. A diagnosis of retinal detachment is made.
      Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Hypermetropia is a significant risk factor

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.

      The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.

      Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.

      It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and continuous back pain a few days...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and continuous back pain a few days after spinal surgery. She has a temperature of 38.4°C and is highly sensitive over the area where the surgery was performed. On examination, she has weakness of left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism for the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.

      The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.

      When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.

      Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.

      A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You examine the X-ray of a 55-year-old male who has fallen onto his...

    Correct

    • You examine the X-ray of a 55-year-old male who has fallen onto his extended right hand. The X-ray confirms a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement. Your plan is to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). While conducting the procedure, you take note of the duration of cuff inflation. What is the maximum duration the cuff should remain inflated?

      Your Answer: 45 minutes

      Explanation:

      According to the RCEM, the minimum time for cuff inflation during Bier’s block is 20 minutes, while the maximum time is 45 minutes.

      Further Reading:

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a significant laceration on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a significant laceration on his right forearm. You suggest that this can be stitched up using local anesthesia. Bupivacaine 0.5% is accessible in the suture room. What is the maximum dosage of Bupivacaine 0.5% that can be administered?

      Your Answer: 3 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: 2 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The maximum dose of adrenaline is 2 mg/kg, regardless of its concentration or addition. However, when calculating the volume requirements, the concentration of adrenaline becomes a factor.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 75 year old man with a long-standing history of hypothyroidism presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man with a long-standing history of hypothyroidism presents to the emergency department due to worsening confusion and fatigue. On examination you note diffuse non-pitting edema and decreased deep tendon reflexes. Observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 98/66 mmHg
      Pulse 42 bpm
      Respiration rate 11 bpm
      Temperature 34.6ºC

      Bloods are sent for analysis. Which of the following laboratory abnormalities would you expect in a patient with this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcemia

      Correct Answer: Hyponatremia

      Explanation:

      Myxoedema coma is a condition characterized by severe hypothyroidism, leading to a state of metabolic decompensation and changes in mental status. Patients with myxoedema coma often experience electrolyte disturbances such as hypoglycemia and hyponatremia. In addition, laboratory findings typically show elevated levels of TSH, as well as low levels of T4 and T3. Other expected findings include hypoxemia and hypercapnia.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a three...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a three day history of nausea and vomiting. He has decreased GCS, is hypotensive and tachycardic. His roommate informs you that he was diagnosed with Addison's disease approximately six months ago and frequently neglects to take his prescribed medication. What is the most accurate description of the underlying cause of Addison's disease?

      Your Answer: Destruction of the adrenal cortex

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal cortex is destroyed. The anterior pituitary gland produces and releases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), not the posterior pituitary gland. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing cortisol, not the adrenal medulla.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department with a history of worsening dizziness, muscle cramps, fatigue, and weakness. Examination reveals the patient to have normal blood pressure, regular heart sounds, and a pulse rate of 88 beats per minute. Respiratory examination shows resonant chest sounds in all areas, normal respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations of 96% with coarse crackles heard at the right base. Neurological examination is unremarkable. You order urine and blood tests for analysis. The results are as follows:

      Na+ 122 mmol/l
      K+ 5.2 mmol/l
      Urea 7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 98 µmol/l
      Glucose 6.4 mmol/l
      Urine osmolality 410 mosmol/kg

      Which of the following actions should be included in this patient's management plan?

      Your Answer: Fluid restriction

      Explanation:

      The usual approach to managing SIADH without neurological symptoms is to restrict fluid intake. In this case, the patient has SIADH, as evidenced by low serum osmolality due to low sodium levels. It is important to note that the patient’s urine osmolality is high despite the low serum osmolality.

      Further Reading:

      Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.

      There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.

      The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.

      Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.

      It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology & Hepatology (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (3/3) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (2/3) 67%
Trauma (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Oncological Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (2/4) 50%
Pain & Sedation (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
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