00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What is a true statement about full trisomy 21? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about full trisomy 21?

      Your Answer: It accounts for 60% of all cases of Down syndrome

      Correct Answer: It results from a nondisjunction

      Explanation:

      Down Syndrome: Causes and Risk Factors

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of extra genetic material from chromosome 21. There are three different types of Down syndrome, each with its own cause and inheritance pattern. The most common form, full trisomy 21, is not inherited and accounts for 95% of cases. It occurs when there is a failure of chromosome 21 to separate properly during cell division, resulting in an extra copy of the chromosome. This can happen randomly, with the extra chromosome coming from the mother 88% of the time and from the father 12% of the time.

      The second type, translocation Down syndrome, is inherited and accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 breaks off and attaches to another chromosome, resulting in extra genetic material. This type of Down syndrome is caused by a balanced translocation, which means that the parent carrying the translocation has no signs of symptoms of the disorder.

      The third type, mosaic Down syndrome, is not inherited and also accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs as a random event during cell division early in fetal development, resulting in some cells having an extra copy of chromosome 21 while others do not.

      The risk of having a child with Down syndrome increases as a mother gets older. At age 35, the risk is 1 in 385; at age 40, the risk is 1 in 106; and at age 45, the risk is 1 in 30. It is important for women to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss them with their healthcare provider if they are planning to have a child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is a framework that can be used for ethical discussions, regardless of...

    Incorrect

    • What is a framework that can be used for ethical discussions, regardless of the ethical theory held by the participants?

      Your Answer: Deontology

      Correct Answer: The four principles

      Explanation:

      The four principles serve as a framework for ethical discussions, rather than being an ethical theory themselves. They provide guidelines that can be used regardless of the ethical theory that the participants may hold.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old male patient when asked by the psychiatrist to sit down in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient when asked by the psychiatrist to sit down in the consultation room takes three steps back from the chair. He eventually sits down when the psychiatrist insists.
      Which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia is he displaying?

      Your Answer: Ambitendency

      Correct Answer: Negativism

      Explanation:

      Motor and Behavioural Disturbances in Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is often characterized by a range of motor and behavioural disturbances, which can be difficult to distinguish from one another. These disturbances can manifest in various ways, and may be arbitrary in nature.

      One common behavioural motor disorder seen in schizophrenia is negativism, which involves actively resisting attempts to make contact with the patient. This can make it challenging to communicate with and treat individuals with this condition.

      Another disturbance is in advertence, where the patient may turn towards the examiner in a bizarre, exaggerated, and inflexible manner when addressed. This can make it difficult to establish a rapport with the patient and understand their needs.

      Ambitendency is another common disturbance, where the patient alternates between cooperation and opposition, leading to unpredictable and diffident behaviour. This can make it challenging to establish a consistent treatment plan and maintain progress.

      Finally, satyriasis is a specific type of motor and behavioural disturbance seen in males with schizophrenia, characterized by excessive sexual activity. This can be a challenging symptom to manage and may require specialized treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A pediatrician sees a young patient with complaints of anxiety in the office....

    Incorrect

    • A pediatrician sees a young patient with complaints of anxiety in the office. Which scale would be the most suitable to assess the intensity of their anxiety?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Hamilton anxiety rating scale

      Explanation:

      The Hamilton anxiety rating scale (HAM-A) is a clinician-rated scale that measures the severity of anxiety symptoms in adults, adolescents, and children. It takes about 10-15 minutes to administer and consists of 14 items that measure both mental and physical symptoms of anxiety. Each item is scored on a scale of 0-4, with a total score range of 0-56. The impact of events scale is used to measure stress reactions after traumatic events, while the state-trait anxiety inventory (STAI) is a self-report inventory that measures both state and trait anxiety. The Zung self-rated anxiety scale is a patient-rated scale that measures anxiety levels based on cognitive, autonomic, motor, and central nervous system symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - During which stage of clinical trials are drugs evaluated against existing market options...

    Incorrect

    • During which stage of clinical trials are drugs evaluated against existing market options with the goal of obtaining a license?

      Your Answer: Phase V

      Correct Answer: Phase III

      Explanation:

      Clinical Trials: Phases and Objectives

      Clinical trials are conducted in four phases to evaluate the safety and efficacy of drugs of treatments. In Phase I, a small group of healthy individuals (15-20) is given the drug to determine its safety, dosage range, and side effects. Phase II involves a larger group (100-300) to assess the drug’s effectiveness and safety. In Phase III, the drug is given to a larger population (1,000-3,000) to confirm its efficacy, compare it with existing treatments, and collect data for safe use. Phase IV, also known as post-marketing trials, is conducted after the drug is licensed to gather additional information on safety and potential uses. These trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of drugs and treatments before they are made available to the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the structure that divides which parts of the brain? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the structure that divides which parts of the brain?

      Your Answer: The pons from the medulla oblongata

      Correct Answer: The lateral ventricles

      Explanation:

      The septum pellucidum is a thin layer that divides the front sections of the left and right lateral ventricles in the brain. It extends as a flat structure from the corpus callosum to the fornix.

      Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma

      Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.

      Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.

      Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.

      While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A teacher approaches you about a student who has been struggling with mild...

    Incorrect

    • A teacher approaches you about a student who has been struggling with mild depressive symptoms and has not shown improvement with initial interventions. Which intervention would you be least likely to suggest?

      Your Answer: IPT

      Correct Answer: A structured group physical activity programme

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE guidelines on Depression in adults (CG90), if a patient with persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild to moderate depression does not benefit from a low-intensity psychosocial intervention, healthcare professionals should discuss different interventions with them and provide either an antidepressant (usually an SSRI) of a high-intensity psychological intervention. A high-intensity psychological intervention typically involves CBT, IPT, of behavioural activation (although the evidence for the latter is less robust than for CBT of IPT). For patients who have a regular partner and where the relationship may contribute to the development of maintenance of depression, of where involving the partner is considered to be of potential therapeutic benefit, behavioural couples therapy may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Treatments
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the defence mechanism that the man is using when he goes...

    Correct

    • What is the defence mechanism that the man is using when he goes for a 10 mile run after being shouted at by his boss at work and still feeling angry about it when he gets home?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the accurate statement about the impact of antidepressants on the heart?...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate statement about the impact of antidepressants on the heart?

      Your Answer: The arrhythmogenic potential of antidepressants is dose-related

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      75.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the minimum number of half-lives needed to achieve steady state plasma...

    Correct

    • What is the minimum number of half-lives needed to achieve steady state plasma concentrations of a drug without a loading dose?

      Your Answer: 4.5

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played a significant role in establishing the four principles of medical ethics?

      Your Answer: Rawls

      Correct Answer: Ross

      Explanation:

      Ross proposed the idea of prima facie duties, which were later modified by Beauchamp and Childress to form the four principles approach to medical ethics. The prima facie duties identified by Ross encompassed fidelity, reparation, gratitude, non-injury, harm-prevention, beneficence, self-improvement, and justice.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following lists 11 therapeutic of 'healing' factors that are unique...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following lists 11 therapeutic of 'healing' factors that are unique to group therapy?

      Your Answer: Bion

      Correct Answer: Yalom

      Explanation:

      Irvin Yalom identified 11 therapeutic factors that are unique to group therapy, including universality, altruism, instillation of hope, imparting of information, corrective recapitulation of the primary family group, development of socializing techniques, imitative behavior, group cohesiveness, existential factors, catharsis, and interpersonal learning. Group therapy has been practiced by various pioneers in the field, such as Bion at the Tavistock Clinic, Foulkes who developed group analysis, Moreno who is associated with psychodrama, and Pratt who was an early advocate of group therapy in the United States.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following conditions is an example of the principle of locus...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is an example of the principle of locus heterogeneity?

      Your Answer: Angelman Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's

      Explanation:

      Understanding Locus Heterogeneity in Genetic Disorders

      Locus heterogeneity is a term used to describe a genetic disorder of trait that is caused by mutations in genes located at different chromosomal loci. This means that multiple genes can contribute to the development of the same disorder of trait. For instance, Alzheimer’s disease is a classic example of locus heterogeneity. The condition can be caused by mutations in three different genes: presenilin 1, presenilin 2, and APP.

      The concept of locus heterogeneity is important in genetics because it highlights the complexity of genetic disorders. It means that a single genetic test may not be sufficient to diagnose a particular condition, as mutations in different genes can produce similar symptoms. Therefore, a comprehensive genetic analysis that examines multiple genes and loci may be necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a patient.

      In summary, locus heterogeneity is a common phenomenon in genetic disorders, where mutations in different genes can lead to the same condition. Understanding this concept is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of genetic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - At what stage of moral development is a teenager who feels guilty for...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of moral development is a teenager who feels guilty for not participating in a school fundraiser? No one knows he was not allowed to sell raffle tickets door to door by his mother and was given money instead.

      Your Answer: Punishment and obedience orientation

      Correct Answer: Maintaining the social order

      Explanation:

      If Peter had reached the stage of post-conventional morality, he would have evaluated whether purchasing sports equipment was a cause that aligned with his personal values and beliefs, rather than simply fulfilling a duty because his class was participating in it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the description of the name-calling experienced by a 14-year-old girl at...

    Incorrect

    • What is the description of the name-calling experienced by a 14-year-old girl at school after her father is admitted to a mental health unit?

      Your Answer: NIMBY opposition

      Correct Answer: Courtesy stigma

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Fear of Disease: Nosophobia

      Nosophobia is a condition characterized by an excessive and irrational fear of contracting a disease. People with nosophobia may avoid situations of places that they perceive as risky, such as hospitals of crowded public spaces. They may also engage in compulsive behaviors, such as excessive hand washing of checking their body for signs of illness. Nosophobia can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, causing them to feel anxious, isolated, and depressed. It is important for individuals with nosophobia to seek professional help to manage their symptoms and improve their overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which statement regarding the volume of distribution is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding the volume of distribution is not true?

      Your Answer: It can be helpful in the treatment of overdoses

      Correct Answer: It is calculated by dividing the drug concentration in the plasma by the amount in the body

      Explanation:

      Which of the following is NOT true regarding the equation Vd = amount in body / plasma concentration?

      Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology

      The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.

      The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.

      The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old male with newly diagnosed schizophrenia experiences fever, confusion, and stiffness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male with newly diagnosed schizophrenia experiences fever, confusion, and stiffness in his limbs after starting medication. Which antipsychotic is most likely responsible for these side effects?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs such as chlorpromazine have an antidopaminergic effect, which can lead to hyperprolactinemia and hypogonadism. Additionally, they can cause a serious condition called neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which is characterized by hyperthermia, muscular rigidity, and altered consciousness. This syndrome is caused by the blocking of dopamine receptors and is more commonly associated with typical antipsychotics like chlorpromazine, haloperidol, and trifluoperazine. However, cases have also been reported with most atypical antipsychotic agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia?

      Your Answer: Galantamine is an NMDA antagonist

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - From which theory does the concept of reciprocal determinism originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which theory does the concept of reciprocal determinism originate?

      Your Answer: Operant conditioning theory

      Correct Answer: Social learning theory

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which renowned French doctor is attributed with implementing kinder care for patients in...

    Incorrect

    • Which renowned French doctor is attributed with implementing kinder care for patients in mental institutions in Paris during the year 1793?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pinel

      Explanation:

      In 1793, Philippe Pinel was entrusted with the care of inmates at the BicĂȘtre Hospital in Paris, where he is renowned for his efforts in liberating patients from their chains and introducing a new approach to treatment known as ‘moral treatment’. This progressive method had already been adopted by a handful of other reformers in Britain and other countries. Bleuler, a Swiss psychiatrist, is credited with coining the term ‘schizophrenia’, while de ClĂ©rambault’s name is associated with a syndrome characterized by delusions of love (erotomania). Esquirol, on the other hand, was a student of Pinel, and Mesmer was a German physician who gained notoriety for his belief in ‘animal magnetism’ of ‘mesmerism’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychological Development (0/2) 0%
Social Psychology (0/2) 0%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Classification And Assessment (1/2) 50%
Neurosciences (0/1) 0%
Basic Psychological Treatments (0/1) 0%
Psychopharmacology (3/5) 60%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Stigma And Culture (1/1) 100%
History Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Passmed