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Question 1
Incorrect
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During the afternoon surgery the receptionist calls for guidance. She has just checked the patient's age and found that it is 19 years old. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: No action needed - appropriate temperature
Correct Answer: Discard all the vaccines
Explanation:The temperature range for a vaccination refrigerator should be between +2ºC and +8ºC.
Other Aspects of Immunisation
Consent is an important aspect of immunisation, and the Greenbook provides useful information on this topic. Written consent is not required, and a person with parental responsibility may give consent on behalf of a child who is not competent to give or withhold consent. Parental responsibility is defined by the Children Act 1989, and unmarried fathers can acquire it if they are named on the child’s birth certificate. If parents disagree, immunisation cannot go ahead without specific court approval. A person with parental responsibility doesn’t need to be present at the time of immunisation, but the healthcare provider must be satisfied that consent has been given in advance.
Vaccine storage is also crucial to ensure the effectiveness of immunisation. Vaccines should be stored in a fridge at +2ºC to +8ºC and kept in their original packaging to protect them from UV light. The temperature of the refrigerator should be monitored using a maximum-minimum thermometer and recorded daily. Ordinary domestic refrigerators should not be used, and surgeries should keep no more than 2 to 4 weeks’ supply of vaccines at any time. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that vaccines are stored properly and administered safely to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Multiple myeloma is a monoclonal gammopathy that is characterised by proliferation of a single clone of plasma cells that produce a homogeneous M protein (paraprotein).
Select from the list the single correct statement relating to M protein in individuals over the age of 60.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It produces a distinctive spike on electrophoresis
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Clonal Disorder of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a rare but serious type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin, which can be detected through serum electrophoresis. Patients with multiple myeloma often experience painful bone lesions, recurrent infections, weakness, renal failure, and hypercalcemia.
Plasma cells produce heavy and light chains separately, and an excess of free light chains can enter the bloodstream and be filtered by the kidneys. In cases of multiple myeloma, the amount of monoclonal free light chains can become too high for the kidneys to reabsorb, leading to the presence of Bence Jones protein in the urine.
While monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance can also cause a spike-like peak in the γ-globulin zone, the levels of antibody are lower and there are no other features of myeloma. Some cases of myeloma may secrete only light chains or no detectable immunoglobulin at all.
The amount of M protein present can be used to assess the amount of myeloma at diagnosis and track the disease throughout treatment. Understanding the characteristics and detection of multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You have a phone review scheduled with Mrs. Johansson, a 55-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension, which had been detected during a routine check-up. Subsequent ambulatory home blood pressure monitoring showed an average home BP of 148/84 mmHg.
You arranged an ECG, urine albumin-creatinine ratio (ACR), and some blood tests, and scheduled the appointment to discuss the findings. The ACR and blood tests are within normal limits. The ECG shows sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. You entered her cholesterol results into a cardiovascular risk calculator, which estimates a 10-year CV risk of 6.5%.
What is the appropriate management plan for her hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice, and discuss commencing a calcium-channel blocker
Explanation:Consider medication for stage 1 hypertension in patients aged 60 or under, but for those aged 55 or over, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line option. Lifestyle advice should also be given. Referral to cardiology is not necessary at this stage.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 50-year-old woman who has recently started experiencing pain in her fingers bilaterally when exposed to cold temperatures. She has also observed that her fingers change colour from white to blue and then red. Apart from blepharitis, she has no significant medical history. However, she does report some stiffness in her hands upon waking up.
What would be the optimal approach to managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to rheumatology
Explanation:Patients who are suspected to have secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon should be referred to secondary care, particularly if they exhibit joint stiffness and dry eyes. Rheumatology, not orthopaedics, is the appropriate specialty for referral.
To manage Raynaud’s symptoms, it is important to keep the hands and feet warm. If lifestyle changes are not effective, nifedipine (not amlodipine) may be considered as a treatment option.
If an underlying autoimmune disease is present, prednisolone may be prescribed as a treatment.
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.
If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due to his goserelin treatment.
What medication can be prescribed to alleviate this issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Explanation:Hormone Therapies for Prostate Cancer Management
Goserelin is a type of hormone therapy used to manage prostate cancer. However, it can cause side-effects such as hot flashes. To address this, medroxyprogesterone acetate can be prescribed at a 20 mg dosage per day for 10 weeks. If this is not effective or not tolerated, cyproterone acetate at 50 mg twice a day for 4 weeks can be considered.
Denosumab is another treatment option for men on androgen deprivation therapy who have osteoporosis and cannot take bisphosphonates. On the other hand, finasteride is an enzyme inhibitor that is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and androgenic alopecia.
Prednisolone, on the other hand, has no role in managing hot flashes but can be used in treatment regimens for metastatic prostate cancer. Lastly, tamoxifen is a treatment option for gynaecomastia in men undergoing long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female presents with a breast complaint. She has developed a patch of eczema on her right breast. She has no previous history of any skin conditions or anything similar.
The patch of eczema has been present for four weeks. Two weeks ago, she was seen by a doctor who prescribed her a potent topical steroid and an emollient to use. She has been using these daily as directed but has not seen any improvement in her skin.
On clinical examination, there is a unilateral patch of breast eczema affecting the right breast. There are no palpable breast lumps or nipple changes and no axillary lymphadenopathy.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her urgently to a breast specialist
Explanation:Suspected Cancer Referral for Breast Cancer
According to NICE guidance on suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12), individuals with certain symptoms should be considered for a suspected cancer pathway referral for breast cancer. These symptoms include skin changes that suggest breast cancer or an unexplained lump in the axilla for individuals aged 30 and over.
It is important to note that a suspected cancer pathway referral means that the individual should be seen by a specialist within 2 weeks of referral. This allows for prompt diagnosis and treatment, which can greatly improve outcomes for individuals with breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old Caucasian man visits his GP for a routine health check-up. During the examination, his clinic blood pressure is found to be elevated. Further ambulatory monitoring reveals a daytime average measurement of 160/96 mmHg. His blood and urine tests show the following results:
- Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Creatinine 136 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 56 ml/min/1.73 m² (>90)
- HbA1c 39 mmol/mol (<42)
- Urinary albumin: creatinine ratio 45 mg/mmol (<3)
The patient confirms that the urine sample was produced in the early morning, and his eGFR is unchanged from last year. What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence ramipril
Explanation:Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor or an ARB, regardless of age or ethnicity, to reduce the progression of kidney damage. In the case of a man with stage 2 hypertension and chronic kidney disease G3aA3, commencing ramipril is the correct choice. His blood pressure target should be less than 140/90 mmHg. Amlodipine is not recommended for patients with chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol. Dapagliflozin is not appropriate for this man as he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes. Referring him to a nephrologist is not necessary at this time as he doesn’t meet the criteria for specialist referral. While lifestyle modifications should be advised, pharmacological treatment is necessary for this man given the severity of his condition.
Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management
Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.
To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.
According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.
The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy from a traveller community family is brought to the surgery by his mother.
She informs you that he began with what appeared to be a severe catarrhal cold, but now experiences intense paroxysms of coughing, causing him to turn completely red in the face and struggle to catch his breath. Upon examination, he has no fever.
What feature on history, examination, or investigation, although not conclusive, is consistent with the presence of whooping cough?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of pyrexia
Explanation:Whooping Cough: Symptoms and Risk Factors
The incubation period for whooping cough, also known as pertussis, typically lasts seven to 10 days but can extend up to 21 days. Patients with this condition often experience a paroxysmal cough with an inspiratory whoop, and lymphocytosis is commonly observed. While extensive consolidation is uncommon, pockets of lower respiratory tract infection may occur due to atelectasis. Notably, a lack of fever is a strong indication of whooping cough.
Children from travelling families may be at a higher risk of contracting whooping cough if they have missed the standard vaccination schedule. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive
Explanation:To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a red eye on the left side that has been bothering him for three days. He reports experiencing photophobia, pain, blurred vision, and tearing. There is no visible discharge, and he has never had a similar episode before.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to local eye casualty
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Potential Anterior Uveitis
The patient’s history suggests potential anterior uveitis (iritis), which requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist for further management. Anterior uveitis is typically treated with a combination of therapies by an ophthalmologist. Cyclopentolate 1% eye drops may be used to dilate the pupil, reducing pain and the risk of glaucoma. Dexamethasone 0.1% eye drops are commonly used to reduce inflammation, but should only be prescribed after a slit lamp examination confirms the diagnosis. Ibuprofen can be used as an adjunct to reduce inflammation, but it is not the primary management option. Prednisolone is typically reserved for cases of treatment failure with eye drops or in treating posterior uveitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking. You plan to initiate bupropion therapy for her, but a few days later, you receive a call from the local emergency consultant informing you that she was admitted in status epilepticus. It turns out that you were not aware of her other medications. Which of the following drugs, when taken concomitantly with bupropion, may increase the risk of seizures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valproate
Explanation:Interactions and Contraindications of Bupropion
The metabolism of bupropion is complex, with the main active metabolite being hydroxybupropion. However, the levels of hydroxybupropion are affected by CYP2D6 activity. It is important to note that bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and affects the metabolism of sodium valproate, making concomitant use not recommended. In fact, bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of epilepsy.
There are also other drugs that interact with bupropion, including certain antidepressants, antiepileptics, antivirals, dopaminergics, and hormone antagonists. Neuropsychiatric effects have been reported in patients using Antipsychotic medications, anti-parkinsonian medications, and in younger patients taking malaria prophylaxis.
The Committee of Safety of Medicines has issued a reminder that bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures, eating disorders, CNS tumor, or acute alcohol withdrawal. Other factors that can increase the risk of seizures include alcohol abuse, history of head trauma, diabetes, and the use of stimulants and anoretics. It is important to consider these interactions and contraindications when prescribing bupropion to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to see the GP with symptoms of stress and anxiety. She is a single mother of three children and is struggling with financial debt. She works part-time as a cleaner at a local cafe for 15 hours a week on minimum wage and is receiving Jobseeker's Allowance. Considering her financial concerns, you contemplate whether she may be eligible for Universal Credit.
What advice would you give her regarding Universal Credit based on the given information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She may be eligible for Universal Credit as she is on a low income
Explanation:Universal Credit is not only available to those who are unemployed, but also to individuals with a low income. To qualify for Universal Credit, you must be 18 years or older (with some exceptions for 16-17 year olds), under State Pension age (or have a partner who is), have savings of £16,000 or less between you and your partner, and reside in the UK. Your relationship status and number of children do not impact your eligibility, but they may affect the amount of payment you receive. It is possible to receive both Universal Credit and Jobseeker’s Allowance if you meet the requirements for both, but you cannot receive Employment Support Allowance and Jobseeker’s Allowance simultaneously. If you have a disability or health condition that affects your ability to work, and you are under State Pension age, you may be eligible for Employment and Support Allowance.
Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies
Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.
The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.
Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.
Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his GP for a consultation. He is addicted to intravenous heroin and asks for methadone substitution. What is true about methadone substitution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A starting dose of 10-30 mg methadone per day should be used
Explanation:Guidance for Primary Care Practitioners on Substitute Prescribing for Opioid Dependence
Managing opioid dependence in primary care requires a multidisciplinary approach, involving various healthcare professionals. General practitioners should only prescribe and treat within their level of competence and confidence, but referral to specialist services is not always necessary.
Before prescribing any substitute medication, opioid dependence should be confirmed through history, examination, and toxicology screening. When prescribing methadone, it is important to start with a low dose and titrate up slowly to prevent overdosage. Methadone is excreted slowly in methadone-naive individuals, and deaths have been reported on doses as low as 40 mg. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, with increases of 5-10 mg a day and a maximum of 30 mg a week for the first two weeks. Optimal levels are usually between 60 mg and 120 mg a day.
When initiating treatment in general practice, it is recommended to see the patient frequently at the outset to assess concordance and cumulative dosing effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. When looking straight ahead, the patient's right eye is turned upward and outward. When attempting to look to the left, the double vision becomes more severe.
What is the probable underlying issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right 4th nerve palsy
Explanation:Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy
Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the only true statement about high blood pressure from the given list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment of hypertension reduces the risk of coronary heart disease by approximately 20%.
Explanation:Understanding Hypertension: Prevalence, Types, and Treatment
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that affects both men and women, with its prevalence increasing with age. Essential hypertension, which has no identifiable cause, is the most common type of hypertension, affecting 95% of hypertensive patients. However, indications for further evaluation include resistant hypertension and early, late, or rapid onset of high blood pressure.
Reducing blood pressure by an average of 12/6 mm Hg can significantly reduce the risk of stroke and coronary heart disease. Salt restriction, alcohol reduction, smoking cessation, aerobic exercise, and weight loss can also help reduce blood pressure by 3-5 mmHg, comparable to some drug treatments.
In severe cases, hypertension can lead to target organ damage, resulting in a hypertensive emergency. Malignant hypertension, which is diagnosed when papilloedema is present, can cause symptoms such as severe headache, visual disturbance, dyspnoea, chest pain, nausea, and neurological deficit.
Understanding hypertension and its types is crucial in managing and treating this condition. By implementing lifestyle changes and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals can reduce their risk of hypertension-related complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old gentleman presents with recurrent painful and erythematous left first metatarsal joint. After diagnosis of gout and treatment with an anti-inflammatory, you check his blood tests during the acute attack and find his uric acid level to be 260 µmol/L (180-380). He has experienced four episodes of gout in the past 18 months and seeks advice on how to prevent future attacks. What recommendations should you provide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: As his uric acid level is normal he doesn't need prophylactic treatment with uric acid lowering drug therapy (such as allopurinol)
Explanation:Management of Acute Gout and Prophylactic Treatment
During an acute attack of gout, serum urate levels may appear lower than usual and should not be used to guide management or rule out the diagnosis of gout. It is recommended to check serum urate levels four to six weeks after an attack to obtain an accurate reflection of levels. Patients with recurrent attacks of acute gout are excellent candidates for prophylactic treatment. Allopurinol is the usual first-line drug, and the dose should be titrated to maintain a serum urate level of less than 300 µmol/L. While initiating and titrating allopurinol, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or colchicine should be co-prescribed to cover against precipitating an acute flare. However, a low dose anti-inflammatory is not a recommended long-term prophylactic approach. Genetic testing is not a usual part of the workup, although some genetic conditions are associated with hyperuricaemia, such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 54-year-old gentleman for his diabetic annual review appointment. He has type 1 diabetes which was diagnosed when he was 12-years-old. He tells you that over the last 72 hours he has noticed new onset flashers and floaters in his right eye. Today he has felt that the vision in his right eye has become 'extremely blurry'.
You can see that his last diabetic retinopathy screening was performed just over a month ago and the report you have states that the retinal photographs taken showed 'pre-proliferative retinopathy' in his left eye and 'proliferative retinopathy' in the right eye. Following this the screening service has referred him for outpatient ophthalmological assessment at the local hospital, which is pending.
On examination there is a loss of the red reflex in the right eye and right eye visual acuity is reduced to 'hand movements'.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent same-day ophthalmological assessment
Explanation:Diabetic Retinopathy Screening and Urgent Ophthalmological Assessment
All individuals with diabetes should undergo an annual retinal assessment through the local diabetic retinopathy screening service. This assessment aims to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy and refer patients for further specialist ophthalmological assessment if necessary. However, in cases where a diabetic presents with acute eye problems, urgent same-day ophthalmological assessment is required to prevent the progression of eye problems.
Retinal detachment is a serious complication of diabetic retinopathy that may present with floaters and flashing lights. Unfortunately, these symptoms may not prompt patients to seek medical attention, and early detachment of the retina may go unnoticed until it progresses to the macula. At this point, central vision is significantly affected, and urgent intervention is required.
During examination, the typical red reflex is lost, and the fundus reveals a grey retina that protrudes forward. The extent of the detachment determines the degree to which the red reflex is diminished.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old construction worker presents with symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision and difficulty walking after a long day at a construction site. During examination, there is a significant difference in blood pressure between his right and left arms.
Select from the list the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Subclavian Steal Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes
Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is a blockage or narrowing of the subclavian artery, which leads to a reversal of blood flow in the vertebral artery on the same side. While some patients may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from compromised blood flow to the vertebrobasilar and brachial regions, resulting in paroxysmal vertigo, syncope, and arm claudication during exercise. In addition, blood pressure in the affected arm may drop significantly. Based on the patient’s occupation and the marked decrease in arm blood pressure, subclavian steal syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are consulting with a 50-year-old man who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. After a thorough discussion, he expresses interest in starting medication and you prescribe sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (PDE-5). However, he brings up a concern about a friend who had a painful experience with prolonged erections while taking the medication and had to seek medical attention.
What underlying condition would increase the risk of priapism in a patient taking sildenafil?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle-cell disease
Explanation:Men with sickle cell disease should be prescribed PDE-5 inhibitors with caution due to their increased risk of priapism, a painful and persistent erection that requires urgent medical attention. Similarly, individuals with a predisposition to priapism, such as those with multiple myeloma or leukemia, should also use these medications with caution. While PDE-5 inhibitors may be used in men with Peyronie’s disease or other anatomical abnormalities of the penis, caution should still be exercised. It is important to note that diabetes doesn’t increase the risk of priapism, but it is a risk factor for erectile dysfunction.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Parents of a 7-year-old boy present concerned that their son may be carrying the gene for Huntington's disease.
The father was diagnosed with the disease at age 32. The mother has been genetically screened and is not a carrier of the gene.
What is the probability of their son developing Huntington's disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:Understanding the Genetics of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease (HD) is a degenerative neurological disease that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that only one copy of the faulty gene is required for an individual to develop the disease. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother with no copies of the gene, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the faulty gene and develop the disease.
Symptoms of HD typically appear in early middle age and include unsteady gait, involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and progressive dementia. The defective gene responsible for HD is located on chromosome 4, and a phenomenon known as genetic anticipation can occur, where the disease develops earlier in life in subsequent generations.
Fortunately, genetic screening is now available to identify individuals who carry the faulty gene. This can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and allow for early intervention and treatment. Understanding the genetics of HD is crucial in managing the disease and providing support for affected individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic breast cancer has been on a syringe driver for four days following a period of vomiting. He is currently taking a total of 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours via a syringe driver, but his nausea is now well controlled and he wishes to go back on to oral medication.
What total dose of oral morphine should you prescribe over a 24-hour period?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 mg
Explanation:Drug Calculation Learning Point
When it comes to drug calculations, it’s important to be careful and avoid getting caught out. One common scenario is converting a patient from oral medication to a subcutaneous infusion as their disease progresses. However, it’s also important to be able to take patients off a syringe driver and back on to oral medication. In this case, the total daily dose of diamorphine via syringe driver is one-third of the total oral dose of morphine. It’s easy to get the calculation the wrong way around, so it’s crucial to be familiar with this learning point.
For example, if a patient is having 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours, the total 24-hour oral dose of morphine would be 30 mg x 3 = 90 mg oral morphine. This is a common area of weakness in the AKT exam, and examiners have highlighted it as an area of poor performance. Therefore, it’s essential to practice this calculation repeatedly during revision time to ensure a thorough understanding of the concept.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old hypertensive woman comes for her annual review with her General Practitioner. She has a family history of type II diabetes and her body mass index is 31 kg/m2 (obese). She has seen an endocrinologist privately and presents some results, including a two-hour glucose level of 9.1 mmol/l on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance
Explanation:Understanding Impaired Glucose Tolerance and Impaired Fasting Glucose
Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) and impaired fasting glucose (IFG) are both conditions that can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease. IGT is characterized by hyperglycemia and insulin resistance, with a fasting plasma glucose concentration of less than 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test value of 7.8–11.1 mmol/l. IFG, on the other hand, is defined as a fasting glucose of 6.1–6.9 mmol/l but a 2-hour glucose level of <7.8 mmol/l on the oral glucose tolerance test. Both IGT and IFG are considered to be stages in the development of type II diabetes mellitus and are often accompanied by other features of the metabolic syndrome, such as obesity, dyslipidemia, and hypertension. Management of these conditions involves dietary modification and risk factor management to prevent progression to diabetes. It is important to note that a normal result would be a fasting glucose of <6.1 mmol/l and a 2-hour result of <7.8 mmol/l on the oral glucose tolerance test. A glucose level of greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l at two hours in the glucose tolerance test would confirm diabetes of any type, while glucose levels of 11.1 mmol/l or higher at two hours would confirm a diagnosis of type II diabetes mellitus. Type I diabetes mellitus typically presents more acutely, often with random glucose of 11.1 mmol/l or higher if symptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to you with a bothersome skin rash. He has been experiencing this for a few weeks now and has not found relief with an emollient cream. The itching is described as 'severe' and has caused him difficulty sleeping. Upon examination, you observe a mixture of papules and vesicles on his buttocks and the extensor surface of his knees and elbows. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is performed, and direct immunofluorescence is used to show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis.
The management of dermatitis herpetiformis involves a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone. By adhering to a gluten-free diet, patients can reduce the severity of their symptoms and prevent further damage to their skin. Dapsone is a medication that can help to alleviate the symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system.
In summary, dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is associated with coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions and can be managed through a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The mother of a 13-year-old boy comes to your clinic. She received a letter from school informing her that her son will be offered the HPV vaccine soon. However, she is concerned that getting the vaccine may encourage her son to engage in sexual activity at an early age. Despite your attempts to discuss the benefits of the vaccine, she remains hesitant. What advice should you give to the mother?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The daughter can have the HPV vaccine against her mothers wish
Explanation:Parents are informed and the NHS website states that the daughter can still receive the vaccine even if the parents object.
The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.
The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.
Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
Which physical examination finding would be most indicative of a diagnosis of tennis elbow? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pain on resisted wrist extension
Explanation:Understanding Tennis Elbow: Symptoms and Causes
Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness in the lateral elbow and upper forearm. It is caused by repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle, specifically at the muscle-tendon junction at the lateral epicondyle. This article will discuss the symptoms and causes of tennis elbow.
Symptoms of Tennis Elbow:
– Lateral elbow and upper forearm pain and tenderness
– Pain exacerbated by active and resisted movements of the extensor muscles of the forearm
– Pain on resisted extension of the wrist or middle fingerCauses of Tennis Elbow:
– Repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle
– Overuse of the forearm muscles during activities such as tennis, painting, or typing
– Poor technique or equipment during physical activities
– Age-related degeneration of the tendonsIt is important to note that decreased sensation in the 4th and 5th fingers is not a symptom of tennis elbow, but rather a feature of ulnar neuropathy that may be associated with medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s elbow). Severe restriction of passive movement and swelling of the elbow joint are also not typical symptoms of tennis elbow. Tenderness over the medial epicondyle of the humerus is a symptom of Golfer’s elbow, which is inflammation of the tendon at the origin of the flexor forearm muscles causing medial elbow pain.
If you are experiencing symptoms of tennis elbow, it is important to seek medical attention and rest the affected arm to prevent further injury. Treatment options may include physical therapy, pain management, and in severe cases, surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her last two Microgynon 30 pills, which she has been taking for the past 4 years. She is currently 11 days into a new packet of pills and had not missed any prior to this. During intercourse with a new partner last night, the condom broke. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise condom use for next 7 days
Explanation:The FSRH has updated its guidance on missed contraceptive pills. If a woman misses two or more pills, she should continue taking the rest of the pack as usual and use an additional form of contraception for the next seven days. Condoms should be used or sexual activity avoided until seven consecutive active pills have been taken. This advice may be overly cautious in the second and third weeks, but it serves as a backup in case more pills are missed. If the woman has a new partner, it is recommended to consider STI screening after a suitable period. For more information, refer to the FSRH guidelines.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old lady in your GP clinic who has recently started a new relationship and would like to discuss contraception with you. She is particularly interested in the progesterone-only implant (IMP).
Which statement below is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The IMP has not been shown to affect bone mineral density
Explanation:The use of Nexplanon® IMP is not limited by age and is licensed for contraception for a period of 3 years. It contains 68 mg etonogestrel and doesn’t pose an increased risk of VTE, stroke, or MI. Additionally, it has not been found to have a significant impact on bone mineral density (BMD). While the progesterone-only injectable contraceptive may initially decrease BMD, this effect is not exacerbated by menopause.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with coeliac disease. You need to refer him to a dietician. You have the dietitian email address and so decide to email the referral.
Which one of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should ensure that both your email account and that of the dietician are encrypted and secure
Explanation:Importance of Secure Information Transmission
It is crucial to ensure that information is transmitted securely, regardless of the method used. This means that sending information via email is acceptable as long as it is secure. When answering questions related to this topic, it is essential to consider the broader principles involved rather than specific referral patterns. It is possible that different regions may have different referral methods, so it is important not to become confused or overwhelmed if the scenario presented doesn’t match your own practice. For example, just because you send referrals by letter doesn’t mean you should choose the option to send the referral by post as well. The key principle is that the method used should be secure. The NHS Code of Practice on Confidentiality provides further guidance on this topic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of recurrent nosebleeds from his right nostril over the past week. The bleeding lasts for about 30 minutes but is not severe. The patient has a history of ischemic heart disease and is on regular medication of aspirin 75 mg and atorvastatin 40 mg. He denies any allergies and has no other significant medical history. On examination, there is no visible bleeding point, and all vital signs are normal. What is the most appropriate management for this patient, in addition to general epistaxis advice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe topical Naseptin (chlorhexidine/neomycin) cream
Explanation:Recurrent nosebleeds without any concerning symptoms can be effectively treated with Naseptin cream, which contains chlorhexidine and neomycin. While severe cases may require emergency care, mild cases can be managed in primary care. According to NICE guidelines, topical treatment with Naseptin cream is a suitable first-line approach.
If the nosebleeds are heavy but not currently active, persist despite topical treatment, or the patient is taking anticoagulant medication, referral to an ENT ‘hot clinic’ may be necessary. If the nosebleeds continue to recur despite treatment, referral to an ENT outpatient clinic for SPA ligation may be considered.
In primary care, silver nitrate cautery may be attempted if a clear bleeding point can be identified and the healthcare provider has the appropriate skills and experience. However, patients should not stop taking antiplatelet medication without consulting their healthcare provider.
Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management
Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.
Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, exacerbation factors such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia can trigger nosebleeds. Other causes include hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and cocaine use.
If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures such as sitting with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Cautery should be used initially if the source of the bleed is visible, while packing may be used if cautery is not viable or the bleeding point cannot be visualized.
Patients that are haemodynamically unstable or compromised should be admitted to the emergency department, while those with a bleed from an unknown or posterior source should be admitted to the hospital. Epistaxis that has failed all emergency management may require sphenopalatine ligation in theatre. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing nosebleeds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has had dysphagia for three weeks. He thinks it is getting worse. He has lost a small amount of weight.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check an FBC and then consider referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
This man requires an urgent referral for endoscopy as he may have cancer of the oesophagus. As a medical professional, it is important to identify alarm symptoms and understand referral guidelines that may apply. In this case, the patient’s dysphagia and weight loss are concerning and require urgent attention. An urgent referral is defined as one where the patient should be seen within two weeks.
It is crucial to get this question right, as nearly 20% of respondents did not refer this patient urgently. If you answered incorrectly, take a moment to review the latest NICE guidance to update your knowledge. Practice questions like these can highlight areas of knowledge deficiency and stimulate further learning. By remembering this scenario, you will be better equipped to handle similar situations in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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