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  • Question 1 - What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse?

      Your Answer: Zuclopenthixol decanoate

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and...

    Incorrect

    • The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and to maintain a social life was first examined in which theory?

      Your Answer: The divided self

      Correct Answer: The sick role

      Explanation:

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A suspect awaiting trial provides vague responses to the inquiries posed by the...

    Incorrect

    • A suspect awaiting trial provides vague responses to the inquiries posed by the investigators. He has a past of participating in a brawl and experiencing a head trauma. During his confinement, he has reported hearing voices that seem to originate from inside his mind.
      What is the most probable scenario?

      Your Answer: Pseudologia fantastica

      Correct Answer: Ganser syndrome

      Explanation:

      Ganser syndrome is characterized by approximate answers, clouding of consciousness, somatic conversion features, and pseudohallucinations. It is controversially classified as a reactive psychosis, with stressful life events as a possible trigger. Pseudologia fantastica, of pathological lying, involves grandiose and extreme untruthful statements that may be believed by the individual, often associated with personality disorders such as histrionic of dissocial and precipitated by major life crises. Cryptomnesia involves falsely recalling an idea, thought, of song as new and original. Confabulation is the falsification of memory in clear consciousness, often used to cover up memory gaps. Dissociative fugue state involves narrowing of consciousness, wandering away from normal surroundings, and subsequent amnesia, with the individual appearing to be in good contact with their environment and maintaining basic self-care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which adverse drug reaction has the quickest onset? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which adverse drug reaction has the quickest onset?

      Your Answer: Type IV

      Correct Answer: Type I

      Explanation:

      Immunologic Adverse Drug Reactions

      Immunologic adverse drug reactions account for a small percentage of all adverse drug reactions, ranging from 5 to 10%. These reactions are classified using the Gell and Coombs system, which categorizes them into four groups: Type I, Type II, Type III, and Type IV reactions.

      Type I reactions occur when a drug-IgE complex binds to mast cells, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. These reactions typically cause anaphylaxis, urticaria, and bronchospasm and occur within minutes to hours after exposure.

      Type II reactions occur when an IgG of IgM antibody binds to a cell that has been altered by a drug-hapten. These reactions often manifest as blood abnormalities, such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia, and their timing is variable.

      Type III reactions occur when drug-antibody complexes activate the complement system, leading to fever, rash, urticaria, and vasculitis. These reactions occur 1 to 3 weeks after exposure.

      Type IV reactions arise when the MHC system presents drug molecules to T cells, resulting in allergic contact dermatitis and rashes. These reactions occur 2 to 7 days after cutaneous exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is a true statement about how methadone works? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about how methadone works?

      Your Answer: It is a mu receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Compared to other opioid receptors, methadone exhibits significantly greater affinity for mu receptors.

      Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications

      Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.

      There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.

      Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest binding affinity for D4 receptors? ...

    Correct

    • Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest binding affinity for D4 receptors?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A teenager presents to A&E in distress. She claims that she has been...

    Correct

    • A teenager presents to A&E in distress. She claims that she has been transformed into a wolf by a witch doctor. What type of delusion does this represent?

      Your Answer: Lycanthropic

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An adult patient while receiving treatment in a hospital ward thinks that they...

    Correct

    • An adult patient while receiving treatment in a hospital ward thinks that they are in their own house that has magically turned into the hospital. What type of condition does this scenario illustrate?

      Your Answer: Reduplicative paramnesia

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which attachment theorist differentiated between deprivation and privation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which attachment theorist differentiated between deprivation and privation?

      Your Answer: Bowlby

      Correct Answer: Spitz

      Explanation:

      René Spitz’s Study on Anaclitic Depression in Children

      René Spitz conducted a study on children who were deprived of their primary caregiver and found that they experienced a type of depression known as anaclitic depression. This type of depression is characterized by a lack of interest in the environment, a decrease in physical activity, and a failure to thrive. Spitz’s study highlights the importance of a primary caregiver in a child’s development and the negative effects of deprivation on their emotional and physical well-being. The study emphasizes the need for children to form secure attachments with their caregivers to promote healthy development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What combination of substances is included in Suboxone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What combination of substances is included in Suboxone?

      Your Answer: Methadone and naltrexone

      Correct Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman presents with confusion after experiencing a seizure. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with confusion after experiencing a seizure. She has a past medical history of epilepsy and is currently under the care of the community psychiatry team. Upon examination, her temperature is 37°C, blood pressure is 138/84 mmHg, and she has a coarse tremor with a pulse of 90 bpm. Brisk reflexes and 7 beats of nystagmus on lateral gaze are also noted. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      – Lithium toxicity occurs at levels above 1.4 mmol/L
      – Symptoms include anorexia, diarrhea, vomiting, ataxia, nystagmus, dysarthria, confusion, and seizures
      – Fine tremor can occur in therapeutic range, but becomes coarser in toxicity
      – If allowed to progress, toxicity can result in coma with hyperreflexia and increased tone, and irreversible neurological damage
      – Treatment is supportive, with attention to electrolytes, fluid balance, renal function, and seizure control
      – Bowel irrigation can be used in significant recent overdose, diuretics should be avoided, and haemodialysis may be required
      – Benzodiazepines can control agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman presents with concerns about her recent memory difficulties following a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with concerns about her recent memory difficulties following a mini-stroke. Imaging reveals vascular changes in the temporal lobe and evidence of infarct in the left temporal lobe. She scores 24 out of 30 on the MMSE and has hypercholesterolemia. What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      This individual is exhibiting symptoms of vascular dementia, likely caused by a stroke and exacerbated by hypercholesterolemia. To prevent further strokes and memory problems, it is recommended to control his cholesterol levels by starting him on a statin. Vascular dementia accounts for up to 20% of dementia cases and can coexist with Alzheimer’s disease. Managing vascular risk factors such as hypertension, diabetes, and hypercholesterolemia is crucial in treating vascular dementia. Additionally, lifestyle changes such as quitting smoking, regular exercise, a healthy diet, and moderate alcohol consumption should be encouraged. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine) are approved in the UK for treating mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease, while memantine is approved for moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, with its license extended in November 2005.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What are the defining features of Klein's depressive position? ...

    Correct

    • What are the defining features of Klein's depressive position?

      Your Answer: Ambivalence

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What gene is thought to increase the likelihood of individuals developing frontotemporal dementia?...

    Incorrect

    • What gene is thought to increase the likelihood of individuals developing frontotemporal dementia?

      Your Answer: Apolipoprotein E

      Correct Answer: Progranulin

      Explanation:

      Genes Associated with Dementia

      Dementia is a complex disorder that can be caused by various genetic and environmental factors. Several genes have been implicated in different forms of dementia. For instance, familial Alzheimer’s disease, which represents less than 1-6% of all Alzheimer’s cases, is associated with mutations in PSEN1, PSEN2, APP, and ApoE genes. These mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. On the other hand, late-onset Alzheimer’s disease is a genetic risk factor associated with the ApoE gene, particularly the APOE4 allele. However, inheriting this allele does not necessarily mean that a person will develop Alzheimer’s.

      Other forms of dementia, such as familial frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, CADASIL, and dementia with Lewy bodies, are also associated with specific genes. For example, C9orf72 is the most common mutation associated with familial frontotemporal dementia, while Huntington’s disease is caused by mutations in the HTT gene. CADASIL is associated with mutations in the Notch3 gene, while dementia with Lewy bodies is associated with the APOE, GBA, and SNCA genes.

      In summary, understanding the genetic basis of dementia is crucial for developing effective treatments and preventive measures. However, it is important to note that genetics is only one of the many factors that contribute to the development of dementia. Environmental factors, lifestyle choices, and other health conditions also play a significant role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing auditory hallucinations upon waking up. She also reports instances of feeling paralyzed even after awakening. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: REM behavioural disorder

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the scenario are indicative of narcolepsy, specifically hypnopompic hallucinations and sleep paralysis. Narcolepsy is characterized by a set of symptoms including sleep attacks, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations. Primary hypersomnia is excessive daytime sleepiness without the associated features of other sleep disorders of narcolepsy. REM sleep behavioral disorder (RBD) is characterized by complex behaviors during sleep, typically occurring during the longest periods of REM sleep and accompanied by vivid dream recall. Sleep terror disorder, also known as night terror, occurs during partial arousal from delta sleep and is typically amnestic. In contrast, the patient in the scenario was able to recall the episode of sleep paralysis. Schizophrenia cannot be diagnosed based on the symptoms described, as the criteria for hallucinations and an additional symptom from criterion A must be present for a significant portion of the time, and the symptoms can be attributed to narcolepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which symptom would indicate a hydrocephalus that is communicating rather than non-communicating? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which symptom would indicate a hydrocephalus that is communicating rather than non-communicating?

      Your Answer: Papilledema

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.

      The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia?

      Your Answer: Memantine is an NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Due to its extended half-life, Donepezil is administered once daily and functions as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which syndrome was named after a renowned European performer known for their rapid...

    Correct

    • Which syndrome was named after a renowned European performer known for their rapid costume changes?

      Your Answer: Fregoli syndrome

      Explanation:

      Delusional misidentification is a phenomenon that includes various disorders, such as the Fregoli syndrome, Capgras syndrome, Cotard syndrome, Ganser syndrome, and Othello syndrome. The Fregoli syndrome is characterized by the delusion of doubles, named after the Italian actor Leopoldo Fregoli, who was famous for playing multiple characters in his shows. Capgras syndrome, named after the French psychiatrist Joseph Capgras, involves the delusion that a close family member of friend has been replaced by an identical-looking impostor. Cotard syndrome, named after the French neurologist Jules Cotard, is a rare disorder in which individuals believe that they are dead. Ganser syndrome, named after the German psychiatrist Sigbert Josef Maria Ganser, is a disorder in which individuals give absurd of approximate answers to questions. Finally, Othello syndrome, named after the Shakespearean character, is a psychiatric disorder in which individuals hold a strong delusional belief that their partner is being unfaithful without significant proof.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which medication is metabolized into nortriptyline as its active form? ...

    Correct

    • Which medication is metabolized into nortriptyline as its active form?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants with Active Metabolites

      Many antidepressants have active metabolites that can affect the body’s response to the medication. For example, amitriptyline has nortriptyline as an active metabolite, while clomipramine has desmethyl-clomipramine. Other antidepressants with active metabolites include dosulepin, doxepin, imipramine, lofepramine, fluoxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, and venlafaxine.

      These active metabolites can have different effects on the body compared to the original medication. For example, nortriptyline is a more potent inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake than amitriptyline. Similarly, desipramine, the active metabolite of imipramine and lofepramine, has a longer half-life and is less sedating than the original medication.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the active metabolites of antidepressants when prescribing medication and monitoring patients for side effects and efficacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the primary metabolic pathway for benzodiazepines? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary metabolic pathway for benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer: CYP3A4

      Explanation:

      CYP3A4 is responsible for metabolizing the majority of benzodiazepines in the liver.

      Benzodiazepines: Effective but Addictive

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used to treat anxiety. They are divided into two categories: hypnotics, which have a short half-life, and anxiolytics, which have a long half-life. While they can be effective in reducing anxiety symptoms, they are also highly addictive and should not be prescribed for more than one month at a time.

      Benzodiazepines are particularly effective as hypnotics, but they do have some negative effects on sleep. They suppress REM sleep, and when they are discontinued, a rebound effect is often seen. This means that people may experience more vivid dreams and nightmares when they stop taking the medication. It is important for doctors to carefully monitor patients who are taking benzodiazepines to ensure that they are not becoming addicted and that they are not experiencing any negative side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (8/10) 80%
Social Psychology (1/2) 50%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Classification And Assessment (2/2) 100%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Diagnosis (0/1) 0%
Neurosciences (0/1) 0%
History Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Passmed