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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man presented to his GP with complaints of fatigue, unintentional weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presented to his GP with complaints of fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and night sweats. He reported feeling generally down. Upon further questioning, he mentioned experiencing stiffness and pain in his shoulders and neck, particularly in the morning and lasting for about half an hour.
      What would be the most appropriate investigation to perform in this case?

      Your Answer: Temporal artery biopsy

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnosis of Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that causes pain and stiffness in proximal muscle groups, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. While other potential diagnoses such as infections or neoplasia should be considered, PMR is typically characterised by raised levels of inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Treatment with corticosteroids usually results in rapid improvement, and lack of response to steroids may indicate a need to re-evaluate the diagnosis. Autoantibody screening and nerve conduction velocity tests are not helpful in diagnosing PMR, while muscle biopsy may be performed to exclude polymyositis. A temporal artery biopsy may be considered if the patient has symptoms of giant cell arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency department. He has been experiencing a painful and swollen left knee for the past 24 hours. He denies any history of joint problems or trauma. Additionally, he has noticed redness and soreness in both eyes over the last two days. He is a non-smoker, married, and consumes about 10 units of alcohol weekly. He recently returned from a business trip to Amsterdam two weeks ago.

      During examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, and he has a brown macular rash on the soles of his feet. His left knee is hot, swollen, and tender to palpate, while no other joint appears to be affected.

      Investigations reveal Hb 129 g/L (130-180), WBC 14.0 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 75 mm/hr (0-15), Plasma sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Blood cultures without growth after 48 hours, and Urinalysis without blood, glucose, or protein detected. Knee x-ray shows soft tissue swelling around the left knee.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive Arthritis

      Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is typically characterized by a combination of three symptoms: urethritis, conjunctivitis, and seronegative arthritis. This type of arthritis usually affects the large weight-bearing joints, such as the knee and ankle, but not all three symptoms are always present in a patient. Reactive arthritis can be triggered by either a sexually transmitted infection or a dysenteric infection. One of the most notable signs of this condition is the appearance of a brown macular rash known as keratoderma blennorrhagica, which is usually seen on the palms and soles.

      The main treatment for reactive arthritis involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications can help to alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Additionally, antibiotics may be prescribed to individuals who have recently experienced a non-gonococcal venereal infection. This can help to reduce the likelihood of that person developing reactive arthritis. Overall, the symptoms and treatment options for reactive arthritis can help individuals to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:

      1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.

      2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.

      3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.

      4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.

      5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.

      Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen left knee that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He is running a fever. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, which was recently diagnosed and is being treated with NSAIDs and low-dose oral corticosteroids. He reports that he visited his general practitioner 5 days ago for a painful right ear, and was prescribed antibiotics for an ear infection. Upon examination, the left knee is swollen, red, tender, and slightly flexed, leading to a diagnosis of septic arthritis. What is the most likely causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Bacterial Causes of Septic Arthritis

      Septic arthritis can be caused by a variety of bacterial organisms. Among them, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common aetiological agent in Europe and the United States. Streptococcus pyogenes is the next most commonly isolated bacteria, often associated with autoimmune diseases, chronic skin infections, and trauma. Gram-negative bacilli, such as Escherichia coli, account for approximately 10-20% of cases, with a higher prevalence in patients with a history of intravenous drug abuse, extremes of age, or immunocompromised status. Historically, Haemophilus influenzae, S. aureus, and group A streptococci were the most common causes of infectious arthritis in children younger than 2 years, but the overall incidence of H. influenzae is decreasing due to vaccination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a less common cause, may affect children, the elderly, intravenous drug users, and immunocompromised patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic complaining of cramp-like pain in the forefoot that has been bothering them for the past week. During the examination, tenderness was noted over the dorsal distal portion of the second metatarsal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: March fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Foot Injuries and Their Causes

      March fracture, Lisfranc injury, Hallux Rigidus, Jones fracture, and proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture are all common foot injuries that can cause significant pain and discomfort. A March fracture is a stress fracture of one of the metatarsal bones caused by repetitive stress, often seen in soldiers and hikers. Lisfranc injury occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus due to excessive kinetic energy, such as in a traffic collision. Hallux Rigidus is degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, resulting in stiffness and pain. Jones fracture is a fracture in the fifth metatarsal of the foot, while proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion.

      Based on the onset of symptoms and tenderness over the distal portion of the second metatarsal, a March fracture is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention for any foot injury to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old science teacher is diagnosed with tenosynovitis of the fingers of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old science teacher is diagnosed with tenosynovitis of the fingers of the left hand, although she is not experiencing any tenderness or swelling of the affected fingers.
      In which one of the following conditions can tendinitis/tenosynovitis present without being swollen and tender?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Types of Arthritis and Infections that can Cause Tenosynovitis

      Tenosynovitis is a condition where the tendon sheath becomes inflamed, causing pain and swelling. It can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections. Here are some of the most common causes:

      Systemic Sclerosis: This autoimmune disease causes fibrosis of connective tissue, resulting in hard and thickened skin, swollen digits, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Tenosynovitis in systemic sclerosis is non-tender and without swelling of the tendons.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Tenosynovitis due to rheumatoid arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons. It usually involves the interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints, and can cause deformities such as swan neck and Boutonnière’s deformity.

      Gout: Gout can cause tenosynovitis, which is very painful and presents with redness and swollen tendons. It typically affects the metatarsophalangeal joints.

      Disseminated Gonococcal Infection: This infection can cause acute migratory tenosynovitis, especially in younger adults. Women may be asymptomatic, while men may present with urethral discharge or dysuria.

      Reactive Arthritis: This type of arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons, commonly affecting the knees or sacrum. It is an acutely inflammatory process and would therefore be swollen and tender.

      In conclusion, tenosynovitis can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has a beaked nose and telangiectasia on the face. There is evidence of tight, waxy skin of the fingers, with calcification on one finger. She has had Raynaud’s disease for many years.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Autoantibodies in Connective Tissue Diseases

      Connective tissue diseases are a group of autoimmune disorders that affect various parts of the body. Differentiating between these diseases can be challenging, but autoantibodies can provide valuable clues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the connective tissue diseases they are associated with:

      1. Anti-centromere antibody: This antibody is most likely to be present in limited systemic sclerosis (CREST).

      2. Anti-Scl-70: This antibody is found in diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      3. Anti-RNP antibody: This antibody is found in mixed connective tissue disease.

      4. Anti-Ro antibody: This antibody is classically positive in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus.

      5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody: This antibody is commonly raised in polymyositis.

      By identifying the specific autoantibodies present in a patient, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage connective tissue diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - Which joint is usually spared from osteoarthritis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which joint is usually spared from osteoarthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elbow joint

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis in the Hand and Elbow

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a prevalent form of arthritis that commonly affects the hand, particularly the joints. The joints may exhibit several deformities, including the development of small bone spurs called nodes. These nodes are referred to as Heberden’s nodes when they occur at the joint next to the fingernail and Bouchard’s nodes when they occur at the middle joints. The base of the thumb may also appear squared off, accompanied by swelling and tenderness. Soft tissue laxity can result in instability at the base of the thumb.

      In contrast, elbow OA is relatively uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
      What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies

      The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.

      Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.

      Temporal arthritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arthritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.

      If temporal arthritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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