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  • Question 1 - A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an outstretched hand and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to Accident and Emergency and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture. The skin is intact and there is only minor swelling below the elbow, with normal distal pulses.
      Which of the following problems is this child most likely to experience?

      Your Answer: Loss of cutaneous sensation over the area over the shoulder

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Supracondylar Humeral Fractures

      Supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, depending on the location and severity of the fracture. The following are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:

      1. Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion: This is most likely due to damage to the median nerve, which innervates these fingers and the flexors in the forearm.

      2. Loss of cutaneous sensation over the area over the shoulder: This is unlikely to be caused by a closed supracondylar fracture, as the cutaneous innervation in that area is a branch of the axillary nerve.

      3. Atrophy of the extensor muscles of the forearm: This is a result of damage to the radial nerve, which is responsible for the extensor mechanisms of the arm.

      4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is most likely due to an ulnar nerve injury, which could occur due to an injury of the medial humeral epicondyle.

      5. Volkmann’s contracture (flexion contracture of the hand and wrist): This is caused by lack of circulation in the forearm due to brachial artery damage, leading to tissue death and fibrosis of the muscles. However, this diagnosis can be ruled out if there are distal pulses and lack of excessive swelling.

      In summary, supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, and it is important to identify and manage them appropriately to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of right shoulder pain over the past few months. He reports that the pain increases with overhead movement of the shoulder. Upon examination, the patient displays weakness and pain during abduction and forward flexion of the shoulder. Which rotator cuff muscle is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles: Functions and Injuries

      The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. Among these muscles are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, deltoid, and teres minor. Each muscle has a specific function and can be affected by different types of injuries.

      The supraspinatus muscle is commonly affected in rotator cuff syndrome, which is caused by repetitive use of the shoulder joint. This muscle is responsible for abduction of the shoulder and is vulnerable to chronic repetitive trauma due to its location between the humeral head and the acromioclavicular joint.

      The infraspinatus muscle, which is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder, is the second most common rotator cuff muscle to be involved in a tear after the supraspinatus.

      The subscapularis muscle, which is mainly involved in internal rotation of the shoulder, is also a rotator cuff muscle but is seldom involved in rotator cuff tears.

      The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is not a rotator cuff muscle but is responsible for abduction of the shoulder in the frontal plane. Deltoid tears are unusual and are related to traumatic shoulder dislocation or can be associated with large rotator cuff injuries.

      Finally, the teres minor muscle, which is mainly involved in external rotation of the shoulder, can tear alongside other rotator cuff muscles in injury.

      Understanding the functions and potential injuries of each rotator cuff muscle can help in the diagnosis and treatment of shoulder pain and dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old professional tennis player experiences sudden shoulder pain while serving during a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old professional tennis player experiences sudden shoulder pain while serving during a match. The tournament doctor evaluates him on the sideline and the player reports difficulty with raising his arm. Upon examination, the doctor finds that the patient is unable to initiate abduction of the arm, but is able to continue the motion when the doctor assists with a few degrees of abduction.

      What is the probable reason for the player's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus tear

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing difficulty initiating abduction of their affected arm, but is able to actively complete the range of motion if the initial stages of abduction are performed for them. This is consistent with a tear in the supraspinatus muscle, which is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The supraspinatus is responsible for the initial 15 degrees of abduction, after which the deltoid muscle takes over. In contrast, damage to the infraspinatus or teres minor muscles would typically affect lateral rotation or adduction, respectively. A tear in the subscapularis muscle, which is responsible for adduction and medial rotation, is a possible diagnosis given the patient’s symptoms. Dysfunction in the deltoid muscle or axillary nerve would prevent full abduction of the arm, but this is not the case for this patient. Deltoid tears are rare and usually associated with traumatic shoulder dislocation or large rotator cuff injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman with an unremarkable medical history has had increasing...

    Correct

    • An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman with an unremarkable medical history has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for the last 3 years. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination, bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints is noted. A radiograph of the spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. No biochemical abnormalities were detected on blood tests.
      Which of the following conditions is most likely to be affecting this patient?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arthritis: Understanding the Symptoms and Characteristics of Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Gout, and Osteomyelitis

      Arthritis is a broad term that encompasses various conditions affecting the joints. It is important to differentiate between different types of arthritis to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some characteristics and symptoms of common types of arthritis:

      Osteoarthritis: This is a degenerative condition that affects the joints, particularly with ageing. It is characterized by erosion and loss of articular cartilage. Patients may experience deep, achy pain that worsens with use, morning stiffness, crepitus, and limitation of range of movement. Osteoarthritis is an intrinsic disease of articular cartilage, not an inflammatory disease.

      Pseudogout: Also known as calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease, this condition is more common in elderly people. It typically affects the knee joint and can cause acute attacks with marked pain, accompanied by meniscal calcification and joint space narrowing.

      Rheumatoid arthritis: This condition typically involves small joints of the hands and feet most severely, and there is a destructive pannus that leads to marked joint deformity. It presents more with an inflammatory arthritis picture, with significant morning stiffness and pain that eases with activity.

      Gout: A gouty arthritis is more likely to be accompanied by swelling and deformity, with joint destruction. The pain is not related to usage. In >90% of presentations, only one joint is affected, and in the majority of cases, that joint is the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe.

      Osteomyelitis: This represents an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Additionally, patients are usually systemically unwell with signs of infection present.

      Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of different types of arthritis can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his outstretched arm, resulting in a heavy fall. The team doctor examines him and notices a loss of contour in his right shoulder. Additionally, the man experiences numbness in the C5 dermatome of his right shoulder, which is commonly referred to as the regimental badge area. Which nerve is the most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in Upper Limb Trauma

      The upper limb is susceptible to various nerve injuries following trauma. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries that can occur in the upper limb:

      Axillary nerve: Shoulder dislocation can cause injury to the axillary nerve, which innervates the deltoid muscle. Sensation in the skin innervated by the superior lateral cutaneous nerve can be tested as an alternative.

      Radial nerve: Mid-humeral shaft fractures can damage the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      Ulnar nerve: Cubital tunnel syndrome and fracture of the medial epicondyle can cause ulnar nerve injury, leading to weakness in wrist flexion and a claw hand deformity.

      Median nerve: Supracondylar humerus fractures, wearing a tight forearm case, wrist laceration, or carpal tunnel syndrome can injure the median nerve, causing sensory loss and motor deficits such as loss of pronation in the forearm, weakness in wrist flexion, and loss of thumb opposition.

      Musculocutaneous nerve: The musculocutaneous nerve gives rise to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm, while the cutaneous distribution of the median and ulnar nerves is located more distally to the hand.

      In conclusion, understanding the common nerve injuries that can occur in upper limb trauma is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever. His father informs the admitting doctor that the child has had a temperature for three days, has been irritable, and is quite inactive. The child has also mentioned that his right leg has been sore, and has been reluctant to walk, although there has been no history of injury.
      On examination, the child has a temperature of 39 oC, and the doctor notes an area of swelling and redness over the right shin. Following investigation, a diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis is made.
      Which one of the following is true about acute osteomyelitis in children?

      Your Answer: Salmonella species are the most common causative organism

      Correct Answer: The most common site is metaphysis of the femur

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Common Sites, Risk Factors, and Causative Organisms

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria spreading through the bloodstream, local cellulitis, or penetrating trauma. The most common site of infection in children is the metaphysis of the long bones, while in adults, it is the vertebrae, followed by the humerus, maxilla, and mandibular bones. X-rays may not show abnormalities in the early stages, but bone scans can provide more detailed imaging. Intravenous drug usage is a significant risk factor, and Salmonella species are the most common causative organism in patients with sickle-cell anaemia, while S. aureus, group A Streptococcus species, Haemophilus influenzae, and Enterobacter species are common in adults and children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old woman has fallen and fractured the rib that contributes to the...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman has fallen and fractured the rib that contributes to the costal margin at the mid-axillary line on her left side.
      Which rib forms the costal margin at the mid-axillary line?

      Your Answer: Tenth rib

      Explanation:

      The Tenth Rib and the Costal Margin

      The tenth rib plays an important role in forming the costal margin. This margin is the lower edge of the ribcage, and it helps to protect the organs in the abdomen. Specifically, the tenth rib forms the costal margin at the mid-axillary line. It is important to note that the eighth, seventh, and ninth ribs do not form the costal margin. Additionally, the eleventh and twelfth ribs are shorter than the tenth rib and do not reach as far as the mid-axillary line. Understanding the anatomy of the ribcage and the costal margin can be helpful in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having...

    Correct

    • After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having difficulty raising his right arm. The weakness is found to be of abduction of the right shoulder with particular difficulty initiating the movement. The movement at the shoulder that can be elicited is not particularly painful and there is no loss of cutaneous sensation.
      Which one of the following structures is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The suprascapular nerve arises from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are involved in shoulder abduction and external rotation. It also supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the posterior aspect of the shoulder. Injury to this nerve often results from repetitive overhead lifting, and athletes involved in sports like tennis and volleyball are at particular risk. In the case of the patient described, the injury is likely due to repetitive compression of the nerve from his backpack while hiking. Damage to the axillary nerve would result in loss of motor and sensory function to the deltoid and teres minor muscles, while injury to the deltoid muscle would result in difficulty of shoulder abduction and pain. Damage to the subacromial bursa would not significantly impair shoulder function but would be painful. The infraspinatus muscle is not responsible for initiating shoulder abduction and a muscle lesion would likely be painful, making it an unlikely option for the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of severe pain at night due to her osteoarthritis. She has been suffering from this condition for the past 12 years and had a total knee replacement surgery on her right knee last year, which significantly improved her pain. However, for the past two months, she has been experiencing excruciating pain in her left knee. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and peptic ulcer disease and is currently taking 4 g of paracetamol daily. She tried using topical capsaicin last month, which provided some relief, but she is now seeking alternative pain management options. The patient has normal liver function tests and no history of liver disease.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's pain?

      Your Answer: Add ibuprofen

      Correct Answer: Add codeine

      Explanation:

      Pain Management Options for a Patient with Knee Osteoarthritis

      When managing the pain of a patient with knee osteoarthritis, it is important to consider their medical history and current medication regimen. In this case, the patient is already taking non-opioids and topical capsaicin is not providing sufficient relief. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) analgesic ladder, the next step would be to add a weak opioid such as codeine or tramadol.

      Offering morphine modified-release would not be appropriate as it is a strong opioid and should only be considered after trying a weak opioid first. Aspirin and ibuprofen are not recommended due to the patient’s history of peptic ulcer disease.

      While a total knee replacement may ultimately be necessary to alleviate the patient’s pain, a pharmacological approach should be attempted first. This will involve assessing the patient’s fitness for surgery and anesthesia before proceeding with any surgical intervention. By managing the patient’s pain with medication, their quality of life can be improved while they await further treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman suffered a severe crushing injury to her left upper leg...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman suffered a severe crushing injury to her left upper leg in a motor vehicle accident. She sustained a severe contusion around the neck and head of the fibula.
      Which nerve is susceptible to compression at the lateral head and neck of the fibula?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Anatomy of the Leg: Common Peroneal, Deep Peroneal, Superficial Peroneal, Saphenous, and Tibial Nerves

      The leg is innervated by several nerves, each with its own specific functions. One of these nerves is the common peroneal nerve, which descends through the popliteal fossa and runs parallel to the biceps femoris insertion tendon. It then curves around the fibular head and neck before dividing into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve innervates the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. On the other hand, the superficial peroneal nerve supplies the peroneus longus and brevis before providing cutaneous innervation to the dorsal skin of the foot.

      Another nerve that supplies cutaneous innervation to the leg is the saphenous nerve. It passes superficial to the femoral triangle and is not likely to be damaged in injuries involving the fibula.

      Finally, the tibial nerve arises in the distal third of the thigh and passes deep through the popliteal fossa. It does not pass close to the fibula but instead leaves the fossa, passing through the two heads of the gastrocnemius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      13.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (7/10) 70%
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