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  • Question 1 - A 12-year-old girl is referred to a respiratory specialist due to persistent episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is referred to a respiratory specialist due to persistent episodes of shortness of breath. She also suffers from severe hay fever and eczema. After undergoing a peak expiratory flow test, signs of outflow obstruction of her lungs are detected. The doctor prescribes beclomethasone and salbutamol for her and advises her mother to keep her away from dust, as asthma is often linked to hypersensitivity to dust. Which type of hypersensitivity is associated with asthma?

      Your Answer: Type 2 hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Type 1 hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Asthma is linked to type 1 hypersensitivity, which is caused by the binding of IgE to Mast cells, resulting in an inflammatory reaction. Other types of hypersensitivity include type 2, which involves the binding of IgG or IgM to cell surface antigens, type 3, which is immune complex-mediated, and type 4, which is T-cell mediated.

      Asthma is a common respiratory disorder that affects both children and adults. It is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways, resulting in reversible bronchospasm and airway obstruction. While asthma can develop at any age, it typically presents in childhood and may improve or resolve with age. However, it can also persist into adulthood and cause significant morbidity, with around 1,000 deaths per year in the UK.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing asthma, including a personal or family history of atopy, antenatal factors such as maternal smoking or viral infections, low birth weight, not being breastfed, exposure to allergens and air pollution, and the hygiene hypothesis. Patients with asthma may also suffer from other atopic conditions such as eczema and hay fever, and some may be sensitive to aspirin. Occupational asthma is also a concern for those exposed to allergens in the workplace.

      Symptoms of asthma include coughing, dyspnea, wheezing, and chest tightness, with coughing often worse at night. Signs may include expiratory wheezing on auscultation and reduced peak expiratory flow rate. Diagnosis is typically made through spirometry, which measures the volume and speed of air during exhalation and inhalation.

      Management of asthma typically involves the use of inhalers to deliver drug therapy directly to the airways. Short-acting beta-agonists such as salbutamol are the first-line treatment for relieving symptoms, while inhaled corticosteroids like beclometasone dipropionate and fluticasone propionate are used for daily maintenance therapy. Long-acting beta-agonists like salmeterol and leukotriene receptor antagonists like montelukast may also be used in combination with other medications. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a newer approach that combines ICS and a fast-acting LABA in a single inhaler for both daily maintenance and symptom relief. Recent guidelines recommend offering a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA for patients on SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled, and considering MART for those with poorly controlled asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a history of excessive...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a history of excessive alcohol consumption. Upon examination, he displays anterograde memory loss and confabulation. After evaluation, he is diagnosed with Korsakoff's psychosis. What vitamin deficiency is responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Thiamine (B1)

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a breast cancer diagnosis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a breast cancer diagnosis. The malfunction causing malignancy is related to the inability of apoptosis. Where are the receptors that trigger apoptosis located in cells?

      Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Membrane

      Explanation:

      The process of apoptosis is triggered when a membrane receptor binds to a ligand, which then leads to a series of intracellular reactions that ultimately culminate in apoptosis.

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - As a medical student, currently, based on the GP practice your tutor asks...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student, currently, based on the GP practice your tutor asks you to perform an abbreviated mental test (AMT) examination on a 70-year-old patient with known Alzheimer's disease. They score 4/10. Besides beta-amyloid plaques, what other histological features would you anticipate observing in a patient with Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Lewy bodies

      Correct Answer: Neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the presence of cortical plaques, which are caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein, and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles, which are caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein.

      Tau proteins are abundant in the CNS and play a role in stabilizing microtubules. When they become defective, they accumulate as hyperphosphorylated tau and form paired helical filaments that aggregate inside nerve cell bodies as neurofibrillary tangles.

      Amyloid precursor protein (APP) is an integral membrane protein that is expressed in many tissues and concentrated in the synapses of neurons. While its primary function is not known, it has been implicated as a regulator of synaptic formation, neural plasticity, and iron export. APP is best known as a precursor molecule, and proteolysis generates beta amyloid, which is the primary component of amyloid plaques found in the brains of Alzheimer’s disease.

      Although Ach receptors are reduced in Alzheimer’s disease, they are not visible on histology.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old boy with a history of sickle cell anaemia arrives at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with a history of sickle cell anaemia arrives at the Emergency department complaining of a painful and swollen left leg that has been bothering him for the past two days. He has also been experiencing fevers and overall malaise. Upon examination, he is found to have a high fever and an extremely tender lower leg. What is the most probable organism responsible for his current condition?

      Your Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Salmonella and Staphylococcus aureus as Causes of Osteomyelitis

      Salmonella species are responsible for more than half of osteomyelitis cases in patients with sickle cell disease. The higher incidence of salmonella infections is due to various factors. The gut wall’s micro-infarcts allow the bacteria to enter the bloodstream, causing infection. Additionally, impaired splenic function leads to a weakened immune response against the pathogen.

      On the other hand, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common organism that causes osteomyelitis in the general population. Although other organisms can also cause osteomyelitis, they are less frequently implicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked you, a foundation doctor on the surgical ward, with explaining the procedure to him. You are aware that the bypass will involve using the left internal thoracic artery to supply the affected coronary vessel. Can you identify the artery from which the left internal thoracic artery arises?

      Your Answer: Left subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The left internal thoracic artery originates from the left subclavian artery near its source and runs down the chest wall beneath the ribs to supply blood to the front of the chest and breasts. During coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), the proximal portion of the ITA is preserved while the distal end is grafted beyond the atherosclerotic segment of the affected coronary vessel to restore blood flow to the heart.

      The left axillary artery is a continuation of the left subclavian artery and is referred to as the axillary artery beyond the lateral border of the first rib. It becomes the brachial artery after passing the lower border of the teres major muscle.

      The left common carotid artery emerges from the aortic arch and divides into the internal and external carotid arteries at the fourth cervical vertebrae.

      The aortic arch is a continuation of the ascending aorta and branches off into the right brachiocephalic trunk, the left common carotid artery, and the left subclavian artery before continuing as the descending aorta.

      The thyrocervical trunk, which arises from the subclavian artery, is a brief vessel that gives rise to four branches: the inferior thyroid artery, suprascapular artery, ascending cervical artery, and transverse cervical artery.

      Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)

      Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is a surgical procedure commonly used to treat coronary artery disease. The procedure involves using multiple grafts, with the internal mammary artery being increasingly used instead of the saphenous vein due to its lower likelihood of narrowing. The surgery requires the use of a heart-lung bypass machine and systemic anticoagulation. Suitability for the procedure is determined by cardiac catheterisation or angiography. The surgery is carried out under general anaesthesia, and patients typically stay in the hospital for 7-10 days, with a return to work within 3 months.

      Complications of CABG include atrial fibrillation (30-40% of cases, usually self-limiting) and stroke (2%). However, the prognosis for the procedure is generally positive, with 90% of operations being successful. Further revascularisation may be needed in 5-10% of cases after 5 years, but the mortality rate is low, at 1-2% at 30 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - How many unpaired branches does the abdominal aorta have to provide blood supply...

    Incorrect

    • How many unpaired branches does the abdominal aorta have to provide blood supply to the abdominal organs?

      Your Answer: Two

      Correct Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      The abdominal viscera has three branches that are not paired, namely the coeliac axis, the SMA, and the IMA. Meanwhile, the branches to the adrenals, renal arteries, and gonadal vessels are paired. It is worth noting that the fourth unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta, which is the median sacral artery, does not provide direct supply to the abdominal viscera.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old male visits the HIV clinic for regular blood tests to monitor...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male visits the HIV clinic for regular blood tests to monitor his condition. Which type of cells are utilized to assess the advancement of HIV in affected individuals?

      Your Answer: Reticulocytes

      Correct Answer: CD4 T cells

      Explanation:

      The progression of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is measured using CD4 count. If the CD4 count is below 200cells/mm3, it indicates a diagnosis of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). Although the number of NK cells decreases in HIV, it is not used to determine disease progression. HIV often activates polyclonal B cells. The reticulocyte count may decrease in HIV, but it is not linked to disease progression.

      Immunological Changes in Progressive HIV

      In progressive HIV, there are several immunological changes that occur. These changes include a reduction in CD4 count, an increase in B2-microglobulin, a decrease in IL-2 production, polyclonal B-cell activation, a decrease in NK cell function, and reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses. These changes can lead to a weakened immune system and an increased susceptibility to infections. It is important for individuals with HIV to receive proper medical care and treatment to manage these immunological changes and maintain their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You have been asked to prepare a presentation for the geriatric journal club...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to prepare a presentation for the geriatric journal club on a novel drug in the treatment of osteoporosis.

      You find a relevant recent systematic review and meta-analysis which combines data from multiple randomized controlled trials investigating the effectiveness of the novel drug on bone mineral density in elderly patients with osteoporosis.

      A figure in the meta-analysis shows each study as a dot on a plot where the x-axis represents the effect size for each study and the y-axis is the standard error of the effect size for each study.

      What is the name of the figure?

      Your Answer: Kaplan-Meier curve

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      A forest plot is a graphical representation of the results of multiple studies on a particular topic. It displays the effect size and confidence intervals for each study, with a diamond at the bottom indicating the average effect size. On the other hand, a Kaplan-Meier curve is a visual representation of a survival function, showing the probability of an event occurring at a given time. The y-axis typically represents the probability of survival, while the x-axis represents time.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old man undergoes a regular health examination, including observation, ECG, and routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man undergoes a regular health examination, including observation, ECG, and routine blood tests. The ECG reveals an extended corrected QT interval. Which abnormality detected in his blood test could explain the ECG results?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Long QT syndrome can be caused by hypokalaemia, among other electrolyte imbalances.

      Electrolyte imbalances such as hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia can also result in long QT syndrome.

      However, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and hypermagnesaemia are not linked to long QT syndrome.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 79-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son. Her memory...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son. Her memory has been declining for the past few months, and she has been experiencing frequent episodes of urinary incontinence. Additionally, she has been walking with a broad, shuffling gait. A CT head scan reveals bilateral enlargement of the lateral ventricles. You suspect normal pressure hydrocephalus, a condition caused by decreased absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). What structures are responsible for the absorption of CSF? You refer the patient to a neurologist for further evaluation.

      Your Answer: Pia mater

      Correct Answer: Arachnoid villi

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid villi are responsible for absorbing cerebrospinal fluid into the venous sinuses of the brain. On the other hand, the choroid plexus produces and releases cerebrospinal fluid. The inferior colliculus is involved in the auditory pathway, while the corpus callosum allows communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain. The pia mater is the innermost layer of the meninges and is impermeable to fluid. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a condition that presents with gait abnormality, urinary incontinence, and dementia, and is characterized by dilation of the ventricular system on imaging.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old male visits a private vascular clinic for his long-standing varicose veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits a private vascular clinic for his long-standing varicose veins. He had been referred by his family physician and is concerned about the appearance of his legs. He experiences heaviness and aching in his legs. As a professional athlete, he often wears shorts during games and is worried that his condition might affect his performance.

      After being informed of the risks associated with varicose vein surgery, he decides to proceed with the operation. However, during his follow-up appointment, he reports a loss of sensation over the lateral foot and posterolateral leg.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Sural nerve

      Explanation:

      During varicose vein surgery, there is a potential for damage to the sural nerve, which innervates the posterolateral leg and lateral foot. Additionally, the saphenous nerve, responsible for sensation in the medial aspect of the leg and foot, and the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which innervates the lateral thigh, may also be at risk.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman attends a routine appointment, where her doctor explains the normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman attends a routine appointment, where her doctor explains the normal physiological changes in menopause. Which of the following clinical features would be considered abnormal in menopause?

      Your Answer: Increased tidal volume

      Correct Answer: Increased respiratory rate

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, several physiological changes occur in the body. The tidal volume increases due to the relaxation of intercostal muscles and diaphragm caused by progesterone. However, constipation may occur due to the same hormone relaxing smooth muscles and the pressure of the growing baby. Micturition rate may either increase or decrease due to the mass effect of the baby on the bladder and surrounding structures.

      Other changes include an increase in uterine size, cervical ectropion, and increased vaginal discharge due to increased mucus production. Cardiovascular changes include an increase in plasma volume, white cell count, platelets, ESR, cholesterol, and fibrinogen, while albumin, urea, and creatinine decrease. Progesterone-related effects include decreased blood pressure, bladder relaxation, biliary stasis, and increased tidal volume.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      162.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache rated at 10/10 in severity, which he describes as the worst headache he has ever had. During the examination, the doctor observes photophobia and a decreasing level of consciousness in the patient.

      What potential underlying risk factor could have contributed to this occurrence?

      Your Answer: Acute kidney injury

      Correct Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

      Explanation:

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage is a potential complication for individuals with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a group of connective tissue disorders characterized by joint hypermobility, hyper-extensive skin, and easy bruising. It should be noted that acute kidney injury is not a risk factor, but adult polycystic kidney disease may increase the likelihood of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      Understanding Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of intracranial haemorrhage where blood is present in the subarachnoid space, which is located deep to the subarachnoid layer of the meninges. Spontaneous SAH is caused by various factors such as intracranial aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, arterial dissection, mycotic aneurysms, and perimesencephalic. The most common symptom of SAH is a sudden-onset headache, which is severe and occipital. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and sudden death. SAH can be confirmed through a CT head scan or lumbar puncture. Treatment for SAH depends on the underlying cause, and most intracranial aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, vasospasm, hyponatraemia, seizures, hydrocephalus, and death. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and the amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A child was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation with no labor complications....

    Incorrect

    • A child was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation with no labor complications. 24 hours after birth, the child seems lethargic and refuses to eat. The temperature is 38.2 ºC. The blood and cerebrospinal fluid cultures are negative, but the urine culture is positive for gram-negative rods. There are no other children in the hospital with similar symptoms. What is the most probable organism responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer: Group B streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod and is frequently implicated in neonatal infections, with urine cultures being the most common method of detection.

      Staphylococcus aureus, a gram-positive cocci, does not align with the results of the urine culture.

      While group B streptococci, particularly Streptococcus agalactiae, are often responsible for postpartum neonatal infections, they stain as gram-positive.

      Listeria monocytogenes, a gram-positive anaerobe, also contradicts the findings of the urine culture.

      Answer 5 needs to be revised.

      Escherichia coli: A Common Gut Commensal with Various Disease Manifestations

      Escherichia coli is a type of Gram-negative rod that is commonly found in the gut as a normal commensal. It is a facultative anaerobe and can ferment lactose. However, E. coli infections can lead to various diseases in humans, including diarrhoeal illnesses, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and neonatal meningitis. The classification of E. coli is based on the antigens that can trigger an immune response. These antigens include the lipopolysaccharide layer (O), capsule (K), and flagellin (H). For instance, neonatal meningitis caused by E. coli is usually due to a serotype that contains the capsular antigen K-1.

      One particular strain of E. coli, O157:H7, is associated with severe, haemorrhagic, watery diarrhoea. It has a high mortality rate and can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This strain is often transmitted through contaminated ground beef. Despite being a common gut commensal, E. coli can cause various diseases that can be life-threatening. Therefore, proper hygiene and food safety practices are essential in preventing E. coli infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are assessing a 68-year-old female patient in your general practice. She complains...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 68-year-old female patient in your general practice. She complains of muscle pain and stiffness in her shoulders and hips for the past two weeks. Her creatine kinase levels are normal, but her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 60 mm/hr. You diagnose her with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) and initiate a one-week trial of prednisolone 15mg once daily. Which receptor does this medication target?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine kinase receptor

      Correct Answer: Nuclear receptor

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone decreases inflammation and leukocyte migration by acting on nuclear receptors, making it the correct answer.

      Lidocaine and amlodipine are examples of common medications that act on ion channels.

      Adenosine and oxymetazoline are examples of common medications that act on GPCR.

      Insulin and levothyroxine are examples of common medications that act on tyrosine kinase receptors.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 17 - You are requested to evaluate a 25-year-old woman who was brought in by...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 25-year-old woman who was brought in by the emergency medical services after reporting a bee sting. She has no known allergies but experienced sudden breathlessness and observed swelling of her lips.

      Currently, the patient is feeling improved and can converse with you without difficulty. She believes that the medication administered to her during transportation is responsible for her progress.

      What is the probable reason for the prompt amelioration of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular 0.5ml 1:1000 adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The most crucial drug to administer in cases of anaphylaxis is adrenaline. Hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine are no longer prescribed. It is probable that the patient experienced an anaphylactic reaction due to the bee sting, which is a common trigger for susceptible individuals.

      The correct dosage in this scenario is 0.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline via the intramuscular route. Adrenaline is essential in reducing mast cell degranulation and facilitating bronchodilation and blood pressure maintenance by acting on alpha and beta receptors.

      Administering 1ml of 1:10,000 adrenaline subcutaneously is incorrect as this dosage is intended for cardiac arrest and the delivery method is not appropriate.

      1ml of 1:1000 adrenaline via the intravenous route is also incorrect as the dosage is excessive, and intramuscular injection is the preferred method.

      Chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone are no longer recommended for emergency anaphylaxis management due to insufficient evidence supporting their efficacy.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 18 - A 2-year-old child presents with cyanosis shortly after birth. The child has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old child presents with cyanosis shortly after birth. The child has no family history of paediatric problems and the pregnancy was uneventful. Upon examination, the child is cyanotic, has a respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute, and nasal flaring. An urgent echocardiogram reveals Ebstein's anomaly. Which valvular defect is commonly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that results in the right ventricle being smaller than normal and the right atrium being larger than normal, a condition known as ‘atrialisation’. Tricuspid regurgitation is often present as well.

      While aortic regurgitation is commonly associated with infective endocarditis, ascending aortic dissection, or connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s or Ehlers-Danlos, it is not typically seen in Ebstein’s anomaly. Similarly, aortic stenosis is usually caused by senile calcification rather than congenital heart disease.

      The mitral valve is located on the left side of the heart and is not affected by Ebstein’s anomaly. Mitral regurgitation, on the other hand, can be caused by conditions such as rheumatic heart disease or left ventricular dilatation.

      Pulmonary stenosis is typically associated with other congenital heart defects like Turner’s syndrome or Noonan’s syndrome, rather than Ebstein’s anomaly.

      Understanding Ebstein’s Anomaly

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a type of congenital heart defect that is characterized by the tricuspid valve being inserted too low, resulting in a large atrium and a small ventricle. This condition is also known as the atrialization of the right ventricle. It is believed that exposure to lithium during pregnancy may cause this condition.

      Ebstein’s anomaly is often associated with other heart defects such as patent foramen ovale (PFO) or atrial septal defect (ASD), which can cause a shunt between the right and left atria. Additionally, patients with this condition may also have Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome.

      Clinical features of Ebstein’s anomaly include cyanosis, a prominent a wave in the distended jugular venous pulse, hepatomegaly, tricuspid regurgitation, and a pansystolic murmur that worsens during inspiration. Patients may also exhibit right bundle branch block, which can lead to widely split S1 and S2 heart sounds.

      In summary, Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve and can cause a range of symptoms and complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential for managing this condition and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old woman visits the neurology clinic for a follow-up on her long-standing...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman visits the neurology clinic for a follow-up on her long-standing generalized epilepsy. She has been experiencing seizures since childhood and has tried various medications to manage the condition. Among these medications, she believes that carbamazepine has been the most effective.

      What is the mechanism of action of carbamazepine?

      Your Answer: Inhibits sodium channels

      Explanation:

      Sodium valproate and carbamazepine are both inhibitors of sodium channels, which leads to the suppression of excitation by preventing repetitive and sustained firing of an action potential. Additionally, sodium valproate increases levels of GABA in the brain.

      Tiagabine, on the other hand, blocks the cellular uptake of GABA by inhibiting the GABA transporter, making it a GABA reuptake inhibitor.

      Ethosuximide blocks T-type calcium channels and is primarily used to treat absence seizures, while benzodiazepines elongate the opening time of GABAA receptors. Barbiturates, on the other hand, act as agonists of GABAA receptors and potentiate the effect of GABA.

      Treatment Options for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.

      It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man visits the clinic for his regular blood work. The GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits the clinic for his regular blood work. The GP requests the medical student to perform venepuncture and obtain blood samples. The student seizes this chance to brush up on their knowledge of vascular anatomy. They plan to draw blood from the median cubital vein located in the antecubital fossa. While aware that the median cubital vein is linked to the cephalic vein, they cannot recall the name of the other vein it connects to. Can you identify the other vein?

      Your Answer: Brachial vein

      Correct Answer: Basilic vein

      Explanation:

      The upper limb has both superficial and deep veins. Among the superficial veins are the cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins. The median cubital vein, which connects the cephalic and basilic veins, is situated in the antecubital fossa and is the preferred site for venepuncture because it is easy to locate and access. However, deep veins like the brachial, ulnar, and radial veins are not suitable for venepuncture as they are located beneath the deep fascia.

      The Cephalic Vein: Path and Connections

      The cephalic vein is a major blood vessel that runs along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous arch, which drains blood from the hand and wrist, and travels up the arm, crossing the anatomical snuffbox. At the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein is connected to the basilic vein by the median cubital vein. This connection is commonly used for blood draws and IV insertions.

      After passing through the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein continues up the arm and pierces the deep fascia of the deltopectoral groove to join the axillary vein. This junction is located near the shoulder and marks the end of the cephalic vein’s path.

      Overall, the cephalic vein plays an important role in the circulation of blood in the upper limb. Its connections to other major veins in the arm make it a valuable site for medical procedures, while its path through the deltopectoral groove allows it to contribute to the larger network of veins that drain blood from the upper body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old female patient presents to her GP with complaints of epigastric pain...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old female patient presents to her GP with complaints of epigastric pain that worsens after consuming takeaways or alcohol. During the consultation, she also reports experiencing a cough at night. The doctor diagnoses her with GORD, which is caused by the irritation of stomach acid (H+) released by cells stimulated by which hormone?

      Which cell type is stimulated by gastrin?

      Your Answer: Gastric parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Gastrin stimulates gastric parietal cells to increase their secretion of H+. The hormone is released by G cells in the stomach and acts on the parietal cells to enhance their production of H+. It is important to note that G cells do not release H+ themselves, but rather release gastrin to stimulate the parietal cells. Other cell types in the stomach, such as gastric chief cells and gastric mucosal cells, have different functions and do not secrete H+ in response to gastrin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old man is receiving an endotracheal intubation. At which vertebral level does...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is receiving an endotracheal intubation. At which vertebral level does the trachea originate?

      Your Answer: C4

      Correct Answer: C6

      Explanation:

      The trachea starts at the sixth cervical vertebrae and ends at the fifth thoracic vertebrae (or sixth in individuals with a tall stature during deep inhalation).

      Anatomy of the Trachea

      The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that extends from the C6 vertebrae to the upper border of the T5 vertebrae where it bifurcates into the left and right bronchi. It is supplied by the inferior thyroid arteries and the thyroid venous plexus, and innervated by branches of the vagus, sympathetic, and recurrent nerves.

      In the neck, the trachea is anterior to the isthmus of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid veins, and anastomosing branches between the anterior jugular veins. It is also surrounded by the sternothyroid, sternohyoid, and cervical fascia. Posteriorly, it is related to the esophagus, while laterally, it is in close proximity to the common carotid arteries, right and left lobes of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid arteries, and recurrent laryngeal nerves.

      In the thorax, the trachea is anterior to the manubrium, the remains of the thymus, the aortic arch, left common carotid arteries, and the deep cardiac plexus. Laterally, it is related to the pleura and right vagus on the right side, and the left recurrent nerve, aortic arch, and left common carotid and subclavian arteries on the left side.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the trachea is important for various medical procedures and interventions, such as intubation and tracheostomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 23 - A 31-year-old man has been prescribed azathioprine for his ulcerative colitis.

    Azathioprine functions by...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man has been prescribed azathioprine for his ulcerative colitis.

      Azathioprine functions by hindering the synthesis of purines, which ultimately results in the prevention of cell replication and apoptosis. The subunit that constitutes DNA comprises which components?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One sugar, one amine and one phosphate

      Explanation:

      A nucleotide comprises of a sugar molecule, an amine (nucleobase), and a phosphate group.

      Nucleotides serve as the building blocks of DNA. They are composed of a sugar molecule, which can either be ribose (in RNA) or deoxyribose (in DNA), an amine (nucleobase), and a phosphate group. The four nucleobases found in DNA are guanine, adenine, cytosine, and thymine. In RNA, uracil replaces thymine.

      The nucleobases are classified into two categories: purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (cytosine, uracil, and thymine).

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a double-stranded helical structure that stores genetic information in the nucleus. Each DNA strand is made up of nucleotide monomers, which consist of one sugar, one amine, and one phosphate. The amines, also known as nitrogenous bases, can be categorized as purines or pyrimidines. Purines have double-cyclic structures, while pyrimidines have single-ring structures. Purines and pyrimidines form hydrogen bonds that hold two polynucleotide strands together. Inhibiting the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines can cause cell death via apoptosis, making antimetabolites useful in cancer, autoimmune diseases, and post-transplant situations.

      Purines can be synthesized de novo or produced via the salvage pathways. De novo synthesis involves a series of enzymatic reactions that convert ribose 5-phosphate to phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP), then inosine monophosphate (IMP), before eventually producing adenosine monophosphate (AMP) or guanosine monophosphate (GMP). Certain drugs target specific steps of this de novo synthesis pathway. The salvage pathway describes the production of purine nucleotides AMP or GMP using free guanine or adenine bases. Adenine recycling requires the enzyme adenine phosphoribosyltransferase, while guanine recycling requires hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT).

      HGPRT is a clinically significant enzyme that recycles guanine and hypoxanthine to GMP and IMP, respectively. This also prevents excess uric acid production, as guanine and hypoxanthine can be metabolized to xanthine and eventually uric acid. The deficiency in the enzyme, seen in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, causes gouty arthritis and nephrolithiasis. Purine nucleotide degradation describes the breakdown of AMP, XMP, and GMP into xanthine and eventually uric acid. Xanthine oxidase converts xanthine into uric acid, and this enzyme can be blocked by allopurinol and febuxostat, which are treatment options to reduce the risk of gout attacks. Another important enzyme in purine degradation is adenosine deaminase (ADA), which breaks down adenosine to inosine. Deficiency in ADA

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 24 - A premature 4-day-old girl is admitted with severe abdominal pain, swelling, vomiting and...

    Incorrect

    • A premature 4-day-old girl is admitted with severe abdominal pain, swelling, vomiting and not tolerating her feeds of formula milk. She becomes extremely unwell and requires artificial ventilation. What features are most likely to be seen on abdominal x-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distended bowel with intramural gas

      Explanation:

      Necrotising Enterocolitis (NEC)

      Necrotising enterocolitis (NEC) is a condition that affects newborns within the first few weeks of life. It is caused by a bacterial infection of the bowel wall, which becomes ischaemic. NEC is more likely to occur in infants who are fed cows’ milk. Symptoms include a distended bowel with thickened walls containing intramural gas, shock, abdominal signs, and passing bright red blood per rectum. The infection is in the wall of the bowel, and the implicated organisms are gas-forming, which is visible on an x-ray as thickened bowel walls with intramural gas. In severe cases, the bowel may perforate, and urgent surgery is required. After surgery, children may suffer from short bowel syndrome.

      Large bowel obstruction may occur in cases of anorectal malformation, but this tends to present in the first few days of life with failure to pass meconium. A sentinel loop of bowel is a single dilated loop of bowel overlying an inflamed organ, such as pancreatitis or appendicitis. Small bowel obstruction may occur due to intussusception, but it is more common at 1-2 years of age, and the presentation is less acute. Intussusception causes the ‘target sign’ of one loop of bowel inside another, but this is seen on ultrasound, not x-ray.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman contacts her community midwife due to persistent vomiting for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman contacts her community midwife due to persistent vomiting for the past two weeks. The vomiting is more severe in the morning and has been gradually worsening since the beginning of her pregnancy. She is currently 14 weeks pregnant, and this is her second pregnancy. She recalls experiencing similar symptoms during her first pregnancy, which was achieved through IVF therapy. The woman reports weight loss, and a urine dipstick test shows ketonuria. An ultrasonographer reports a placental lambda sign.

      What is the probable diagnosis for the cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple gestation

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s intractable vomiting during pregnancy is multiple gestation. This condition, known as hyperemesis gravidarum, is characterized by vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and ketonuria. Multiple gestations can lead to hormone imbalances due to increased levels of βhCG, which can increase vomiting. Risk factors for multiple gestations include the use of fertility-enhancing treatments like IVF and older maternal age. The presence of the placental lambda sign is characteristic of a dichorionic pregnancy.

      Complete molar pregnancy is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with abnormal uterine bleeding, pelvic pain, and a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. Partial molar pregnancy is also unlikely as it is associated with lower levels of βhCG and often has fetal parts present on ultrasound. Physiological vomiting, while common in pregnancy, is not the most likely cause in this case as the patient is experiencing weight loss and ketonuria.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 26 - In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide...

    Incorrect

    • In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide belong to? Is it a Class Ia, Ib, Ic, II, or IV agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class Ia agent

      Explanation:

      The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics

      The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.

      Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.

      Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.

      Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.

      Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.

      Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.

      It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to his GP with complaints of fatigue and breathlessness upon exertion. During examination, no splenomegaly was observed. A peripheral smear revealed microcytic red blood cells with basophilic stippling. A bone marrow biopsy showed an increased uptake of Prussian blue. The patient's iron levels and transferrin saturation were high, while both mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin were low. Laboratory results showed a hemoglobin level of 95 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L), platelets of 200 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and WBC of 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). The patient's ferritin level was 300 ng/mL (normal range: 20-230 ng/mL), and his vitamin B12 level was 400 ng/L (normal range: 200-900 ng/L). What is the most likely disease that the patient is suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sideroblastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient is sideroblastic anaemia, which is characterized by hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high levels of ferritin iron and transferrin saturation, and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. This condition is caused by vitamin B6 deficiency due to frequent alcohol consumption, leading to abnormal heme production. The peripheral smear shows basophilic stippling of red blood cells, and there is iron overload causing iron deposition in the bone marrow, observed as increased staining with Prussian blue.

      Anaemia of chronic disease, iron deficiency anaemia, and aplastic anaemia are incorrect diagnoses. Anaemia of chronic disease is usually normocytic normochromic and has significantly low levels of folate, B12, and iron while ferritin is high. Iron deficiency anaemia may be microcytic hypochromic, but serum iron, ferritin, and transferrin levels would be reduced. Aplastic anaemia presents with pancytopenia and is rarely found in the given age group.

      Understanding Sideroblastic Anaemia

      Sideroblastic anaemia is a medical condition that occurs when red blood cells fail to produce enough haem, which is partly synthesized in the mitochondria. This results in the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria, forming a ring around the nucleus known as a ring sideroblast. The condition can be either congenital or acquired.

      The congenital cause of sideroblastic anaemia is delta-aminolevulinate synthase-2 deficiency. On the other hand, acquired causes include myelodysplasia, alcohol, lead, and anti-TB medications.

      To diagnose sideroblastic anaemia, doctors may conduct a full blood count, iron studies, and a blood film. The results may show hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high ferritin, high iron, high transferrin saturation, and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. A bone marrow test may also be done, and Prussian blue staining can reveal ringed sideroblasts.

      Management of sideroblastic anaemia is mainly supportive, and treatment focuses on addressing any underlying cause. Pyridoxine may also be prescribed to help manage the condition.

      In summary, sideroblastic anaemia is a condition that affects the production of haem in red blood cells, leading to the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria. It can be congenital or acquired, and diagnosis involves various tests. Treatment is mainly supportive, and addressing any underlying cause is crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of polyuria and polydipsia. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of polyuria and polydipsia. He has a medical history of hypertension, bipolar disorder, and osteoarthritis, and is currently taking naproxen, ramipril, amlodipine, and lithium. His HbA1c level is 41 mmol/mol. A water deprivation test is performed, and the pre-test urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg (500-850), while the post-test urine osmolality is 240 mOsm/kg (500-850). Based on the likely diagnosis, which anatomical location has been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collecting duct

      Explanation:

      Lithium use in patients can lead to diabetes insipidus by desensitizing the kidney’s response to ADH in the collecting ducts. This is likely the cause of diabetes insipidus in the patient described, as they are on lithium and have no signs of cranial diabetes insipidus. Cranial diabetes insipidus typically results from head trauma or pituitary surgery, while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by kidney dysfunction.

      The posterior pituitary gland releases ADH, and dysfunction at this site can cause cranial diabetes insipidus. An anterior pituitary tumor may present with bilateral hemianopia, as this gland secretes several hormones.

      Thiazide diuretics act on the distal convoluted tubule and are used to treat diabetes insipidus. Gitelman syndrome is caused by a mutation in the Na+-Cl− co-transporter, while Fanconi syndrome results from dysfunction in the proximal renal tubule, leading to an inability to absorb certain substances.

      Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has recently been ill with an upper respiratory tract infection. During the examination, you observe that she has conjunctival pallor, and her sclera are icteric.

      After conducting investigations, a positive Coombs test leads to a diagnosis of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. This condition results in the breakdown of red blood cells, causing an increase in free haemoglobin levels in the blood.

      What mechanisms will be involved in recycling the elevated levels of this substance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haptoglobins

      Explanation:

      Haptoglobins are responsible for binding free haemoglobin within the circulation, allowing for the complex to be removed from the circulation by the reticuloendothelial system. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 – haptoglobins. LDH, albumin, and bilirubin do not play a role in recycling free haemoglobin.

      Understanding Haemolytic Anaemias by Site

      Haemolytic anaemias can be classified by the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular. In intravascular haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released and binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, haemoglobin binds to albumin forming methaemalbumin, which can be detected by Schumm’s test. Free haemoglobin is then excreted in the urine as haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinuria. Causes of intravascular haemolysis include mismatched blood transfusion, red cell fragmentation due to heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      On the other hand, extravascular haemolysis occurs when red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen or liver. This type of haemolysis is commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      It is important to understand the site of haemolysis in order to properly diagnose and treat haemolytic anaemias. While both intravascular and extravascular haemolysis can lead to anaemia, the underlying causes and treatment approaches may differ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 30 - Look at the following DNA sequence and identify the mutation that has occurred:

    DNA...

    Incorrect

    • Look at the following DNA sequence and identify the mutation that has occurred:

      DNA sequence Amino Acid Sequence
      Original AAA GCC AAA lys, ala, lys
      Mutation AAA ACC ATT lys, thr, lys,

      Has the mutation occurred due to a genetic error?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Missense

      Explanation:

      Missense mutations are point mutations that result in a change in the amino acid sequence, potentially rendering the protein non-functional. Deletions involve the loss of at least one base, while insertions involve the addition of at least one base. Inversions reverse a section of the genetic code. Missense mutations occur when a single base is changed, resulting in the production of a different amino acid than in the original sequence. Nonsense mutations code for a stop codon, halting the production of amino acids beyond that point.

      Types of DNA Mutations

      There are different types of DNA mutations that can occur in an organism’s genetic material. One type is called a silent mutation, which does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein. This type of mutation often occurs in the third position of a codon, where the change in the DNA base does not affect the final amino acid produced.

      Another type of mutation is called a nonsense mutation, which results in the formation of a stop codon. This means that the protein being produced is truncated and may not function properly.

      A missense mutation is a point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of a protein. This can have significant effects on the protein’s function, as the altered amino acid may not be able to perform its intended role.

      Finally, a frameshift mutation occurs when a number of nucleotides are inserted or deleted from the DNA sequence. This can cause a shift in the reading frame of the DNA, resulting in a completely different amino acid sequence downstream. These mutations can have serious consequences for the organism, as the resulting protein may be non-functional or even harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (0/2) 0%
General Principles (2/7) 29%
Neurological System (1/4) 25%
Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular System (1/4) 25%
Gastrointestinal System (1/3) 33%
Reproductive System (0/1) 0%
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