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Question 1
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A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?Your Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The radial nerve originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and runs alongside the deep brachial artery in the spiral groove of the humeral shaft. It is susceptible to damage during midshaft humeral fractures, resulting in loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the hand and weakness in wrist extension. The ulnar nerve is located medially to the radial nerve and is not typically affected by midshaft humeral fractures. However, it can be injured by a fracture of the medial epicondyle, resulting in weakness in wrist flexion and loss of adduction and sensation in the medial aspect of the hand. The axillary nerve branches closer to the shoulder and is prone to injury with shoulder dislocation, causing weakness in the deltoid muscle. The median nerve is not located near the midshaft of the humerus but can be injured in various ways, resulting in sensory and motor deficits. The musculocutaneous nerve passes over the brachialis muscle and can be affected by entrapment or upper brachial plexus injury, causing weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination and sensory loss on the radial aspect of the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A radiologist examines the ankle and foot X-rays of an elderly man with a suspected ankle fracture. A fracture of the talus is noted, with the fracture line interrupting the subtalar joint.
With which of the following bones does the talus articulate at the subtalar joint?Your Answer: Navicular
Correct Answer: Calcaneus
Explanation:Articulations of the Talus Bone in the Foot
The talus bone is a key component of the foot, connecting to several other bones through various joints. Here are the articulations of the talus bone in the foot:
Subtalar Joint with Calcaneus
The subtalar joint connects the talus bone to the calcaneus bone. This joint allows for inversion and eversion of the foot.Talocalcaneonavicular Joint with Calcaneus and Navicular
The talocalcaneonavicular joint is a ball-and-socket joint that connects the talus bone to the calcaneus and navicular bones. The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament completes this joint, connecting the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus to the plantar surface of the navicular bone.Medial Malleoli of Tibia
The talus bone also articulates with the medial malleoli of the tibia bone. This joint allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot.Lateral Malleoli of Fibula
The lateral malleoli of the fibula bone also articulate with the talus bone. This joint allows for lateral stability of the ankle.No Direct Articulation with Lateral Cuneiform
The talus bone does not directly articulate with the lateral cuneiform bone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A healthy 28-year-old woman wants to start preparing for an upcoming sports event. She undergoes exercise stress testing.
What is the most probable occurrence in this woman's skeletal muscles during exercise?Your Answer: Decreased metabolite concentrations
Correct Answer: Increased arteriolar diameter
Explanation:Factors Affecting Blood Flow in Exercising Muscles
During exercise, several factors affect blood flow in the muscles. One of these factors is the diameter of the arterioles, which can increase due to vasodilation of muscle arterioles. Another factor is the concentration of metabolites, such as adenosine, carbon dioxide, and lactic acid, which accumulate in the tissues due to oxygen deficiency and cause vasodilation.
As a result of these factors, blood flow to the muscles can increase up to 20-fold during exercise, which is the greatest increase in any tissue in the body. This increase in blood flow is mainly due to the actions of local vasodilator substances on the muscle arterioles.
However, the increased demand for oxygen during exercise can also lead to a decrease in oxygen concentration in the tissues. This, in turn, can cause an increase in vascular resistance, which can further affect blood flow to the muscles.
Overall, understanding the factors that affect blood flow in exercising muscles is important for optimizing exercise performance and preventing injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who works in a factory presents with lower back pain. She says that she has had the pain for past two years and that it started gradually. The patient has no past medical history. There is no evidence or history of trauma. Upon examination the patient has normal power in the lower and upper limbs, and sensation is intact. She denies any fever or weight loss and has no significant family history. She is discharged with analgesia.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mobilisation
Explanation:Management of Lower Back Pain: Explained
Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. In managing lower back pain, it is important to identify the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s back pain is most likely mechanical in nature. Mobilisation has been shown to be effective in reducing back pain, and bed rest is not advised as it can worsen the pain and affect the patient’s daily activities. A lumbar X-ray is not necessary unless there is suspicion of a fracture. Referral to physiotherapy or alternative therapies may be considered if initial management is not effective. An MRI would be indicated if there are any ‘red flags’ in the history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to an Orthopaedic Outpatient Clinic with a knee injury sustained during a football game. He cannot recall the exact cause of the injury. During the examination, you note a positive McMurray's's test and tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. What imaging modality would be the most beneficial for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI scan of the knee
Explanation:Best Imaging Modality for Knee Injury: MRI Scan
When a patient presents with knee pain, a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. In this case, a young patient with a positive McMurray’s’s test and pain on the lateral aspect of the knee joint suggests a lateral meniscal tear. The best imaging modality for this patient is an MRI scan of the knee. This scan allows for visualization of soft tissues in the knee, making it more sensitive than a CT scan or X-ray. An ultrasound scan may also be useful for diagnosing soft tissue injuries, but a joint aspirate would not be indicated. A CT scan with contrast would not be helpful in this situation. Overall, an MRI scan is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing a knee injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when she types and at night. On examination, there is significant wasting of the thenar eminence muscles.
This sign is most likely to be caused by:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Compression of the median nerve
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the contents of the carpal tunnel, which is the space between the flexor retinaculum and the carpal bones. This compression leads to the compression of the median nerve, which supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence. As a result, any compression or space-occupying lesion in the carpal tunnel causes wasting of the thenar eminence.
It is important to note that the recurrent thenar nerve, which actually supplies the thenar eminence, does not pass through the carpal tunnel. Instead, it branches off the median nerve beyond the carpal tunnel. Therefore, compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel will cause the symptoms associated with carpal tunnel syndrome.
While the exact cause of carpal tunnel syndrome is often unknown, it has been associated with pregnancy, acromegaly, diabetes, and other diseases. Trauma to the forearm may also lead to this condition.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, which include weakness and wasting of the thenar eminence. Seeking medical attention and treatment can help alleviate these symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department following a fall while decorating on a chair. She experienced intense pain in her hip immediately after the fall. X-rays show a fracture in the left neck of her femur. She has a history of seizures and takes topiramate. Her menstrual cycle is regular, and she is a non-smoker and non-vegetarian. She works as a landscaper. What is the probable cause of her fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic acidosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Chronic Acidosis and Pathological Fracture
Chronic acidosis can lead to defective bone mineralization and an osteomalacia-like state, which can cause pathological fractures. Topiramate, an antiepileptic and migraine prophylaxis drug, has been found to cause chronic metabolic acidosis through renal tubular acidosis. The type of RTA induced by topiramate is debated, but it is considered a mixed RTA with features of both types 1 and 2. Topiramate-induced osteopathy is a differential diagnosis for vitamin D deficiency, hereditary hypophosphatasia, and chronic bisphosphonate use.
In the case of a 36-year-old woman with a minor trauma resulting in a serious fracture, osteoporosis is unlikely, especially since there is no mention of drug intake like heparin, bisphosphonates, or steroids. Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition, but there is no mention of other features like bone pain or weakness, and her profession as an architect suggests substantial sunlight exposure. Multiple myeloma is also unlikely at this age, and there is no mention of other symptoms like renal failure or anemia. Therefore, the most likely cause of the pathological fracture is the chronic acidosis induced by topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man of African descent, who was diagnosed with lupus nephritis 5 years ago, is admitted with complaints of pain in both groins that is radiating down to the thighs and buttocks. Movements around the hip are severely restricted and he has a limp while walking. The pain developed insidiously and has gradually worsened. There is no history of trauma. He is currently on 25 mg prednisone/day and cyclophosphamide. An X-ray of the pelvis and hips shows no abnormality.
What is the most likely cause of this hip pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroid-induced avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head
Explanation:Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head can be caused by chronic corticosteroid use or excessive alcohol consumption, with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) also being a risk factor. X-rays may not show changes until weeks later, so magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred diagnostic tool. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) is a disorder of the adolescent hip that occurs when the femoral head slips off in a backward direction due to a weakness in the growth plate. Septic arthritis of the hip due to immunosuppression will present with severe pain, joint tenderness, and swelling, and is unlikely to present bilaterally. Osteomalacia, which is characterized by decreased bone mineralization, can cause pathological fractures and diffuse bone pain. Steroid-induced osteoporosis, on the other hand, is characterized by osteopenia and an increased risk of fractures, and can be treated with bisphosphonates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved in a car accident. She is alert and receives initial resuscitation in the ED. She has an open fracture of the left tibia and is seen by the orthopaedic surgery team.
Later during the day, she undergoes an intramedullary nailing procedure for fixing her fractured tibia. Seven days after the surgery, the patient complains of gradually worsening severe pain in the left leg.
Upon examination, she is found to be febrile and the wound area is not markedly erythematosus and there is no discharge from the wound site. There is no left calf tenderness and no swelling. Blood tests reveal a raised white cell count and inflammatory markers, and a blood culture grows Staphylococcus aureus. An X-ray and leg Doppler ultrasound imaging reveal no subcutaneous gas. An urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) report prompts the surgeon to take this patient urgently back to theatre.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomyelitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Postoperative Patient with Severe Pain and Fever
Possible diagnoses for a postoperative patient with sudden onset of severe pain and fever include infection in the overlying tissue or in the bone itself. Cellulitis and necrotising fasciitis are less likely, while osteomyelitis is the most probable diagnosis, as indicated by the urgent request for an MRI and the need for surgical intervention. Osteomyelitis requires prolonged intravenous antibiotics and surgical debridement, and an MRI would typically show bone marrow oedema. A deep vein thrombosis is less likely due to the absence of clinical signs and ultrasound imaging findings. Cellulitis would present with superficial redness and less severe pain, while necrotising fasciitis would show subcutaneous gas on imaging. A surgical wound infection is possible but would typically involve pus discharge and not prompt urgent surgical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What advice would you give Mrs Rose regarding her 3-year-old toddler who she is concerned has 'flat feet'? She is anxious and distressed and has been advised that her child needs an early operation and expensive orthotics to reverse the condition. However, upon examination, you observe that the toddler is a happy child with full mobility and no pain. The foot only appears flat when standing, but the arch reconstitutes when the child is toe walking or hanging their foot.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure her that in asymptomatic patients, the arch will normally develop with age and resolve spontaneously
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Pes Planovalgus
Pes planovalgus, also known as flat foot, is a common condition characterized by a decrease in the medial longitudinal arch with a valgus hindfoot and forefoot abduction with weight-bearing. While most cases resolve spontaneously, some individuals may experience arch or pretibial pain. However, asymptomatic patients can be reassured that the arch will normally develop with age.
Non-operative management is typically recommended, with symptomatic patients finding relief with athletic heels or orthotics such as heel cups. Surgical intervention, such as Achilles tendon or gastrocnemius fascia lengthening or calcaneal lengthening osteotomy, is reserved for chronic, painful cases that have failed non-operative therapy. Bed rest and partial weight-bearing are not indicated in the treatment of pes planovalgus.
Overall, understanding and managing pes planovalgus involves proper diagnosis, reassurance for asymptomatic patients, and appropriate non-operative or surgical intervention for symptomatic cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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