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  • Question 1 - A patient on lithium develops a tremor. What frequency of the tremor would...

    Incorrect

    • A patient on lithium develops a tremor. What frequency of the tremor would lead you to suspect a significant toxicity?

      Your Answer: 5Hz

      Correct Answer: 2Hz

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar signs are evident in cases of lithium toxicity, which can manifest as slurred speech, a broad-based gait, and an intention tremor. The latter is characterized by a coarse appearance and a frequency of 2-3Hz (equivalent to 2 waves per second).

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      164
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the cause of a hypertensive crisis in a patient taking an...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause of a hypertensive crisis in a patient taking an MAOI who ingests tyramine?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Correct Answer: Norepinephrine

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a condition caused by the blockade of dopamine receptors.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.3
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  • Question 3 - Which theorist introduced the concept of the hierarchy of needs? ...

    Correct

    • Which theorist introduced the concept of the hierarchy of needs?

      Your Answer: Maslow

      Explanation:

      Maslow proposed a hierarchy of needs that must be met for an individual to achieve self-actualization, starting with basic physiological needs such as hunger and thirst. Allport and Odbert focused on studying individuals and their unique traits, rather than groups. Kelly developed the phenomenological approach and personal construct theory. Rogers believed in the inherent self-knowledge and rationality of all humans and is known for his work in client-centered therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 4 - You are asked to review a child on the ward who the staff...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a child on the ward who the staff noted had a sudden and brief (one minute) episode whereby they went into what they described as a trance-like state. During this time the child was unresponsive and was seen to be picking aimlessly at their clothes. Following this episode the child did not recall being unresponsive but did report that before this happened they felt a strange sense of unfamiliarity. Which of the following epilepsy types would you most suspect?:

      Your Answer: Simple partial seizure

      Correct Answer: Complex partial seizure

      Explanation:

      The indication of a complex partial seizure is strongly implied by the absence of knowledge regarding aura.

      Epilepsy and Aura

      An aura is a subjective sensation that is a type of simple partial seizure. It typically lasts only a few seconds and can help identify the site of cortical onset. There are eight recognized types of auras, including somatosensory, visual, auditory, gustatory, olfactory, autonomic, abdominal, and psychic.

      In about 80% of cases, auras precede temporal lobe seizures. The most common auras in these seizures are abdominal and psychic, which can cause a rising epigastric sensation of feelings of fear, déjà vu, of jamais vu. Parietal lobe seizures may begin with a contralateral sensation, usually of the positive type, such as an electrical sensation of tingling. Occipital lobe seizures may begin with contralateral visual changes, such as colored lines, spots, of shapes, of even a loss of vision. Temporal-parietal-occipital seizures may produce more formed auras.

      Complex partial seizures are defined by impairment of consciousness, which means decreased responsiveness and awareness of oneself and surroundings. During a complex partial seizure, a patient is unresponsive and does not remember events that occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      27.1
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  • Question 5 - What is the lowest daily amount of mirtazapine that is effective for treating...

    Incorrect

    • What is the lowest daily amount of mirtazapine that is effective for treating depression in adults?

      Your Answer: 15 mg

      Correct Answer: 30 mg

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5
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  • Question 6 - What is the most frequent cause of mortality in individuals with Down syndrome?...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent cause of mortality in individuals with Down syndrome?

      Your Answer: Heart disease

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of death among individuals with Down’s syndrome is heart disease, despite the condition being linked to higher rates of diabetes, hypothyroidism, and leukemia. Trisomy 21 is the underlying cause of Down’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5.3
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old male reported experiencing the scent of lavender when he listens to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male reported experiencing the scent of lavender when he listens to music. What is the most probable explanation for this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Functional hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Synaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Hallucinations and Illusions

      Hallucinations can take on different forms, including reflex hallucinations, auditory hallucinations, and functional hallucinations. Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one sensory modality produces a hallucination in another. For example, someone may smell oranges when they hear music. Auditory hallucinations, on the other hand, are the presence of auditory experiences in the absence of a true stimulus. Functional hallucinations occur when an external stimulus provokes a hallucination, and the normal perception of the external stimulus and the hallucinatory experience are in the same modality.

      In addition to hallucinations, there are also illusions, which involve false perceptions with sensory distortions. Kinaesthetic hallucinations are a type of hallucination that involve bodily movements. Understanding the different types of hallucinations and illusions can help individuals better recognize and manage these experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      396.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which researcher conducted experiments with a team of accomplices to study how individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which researcher conducted experiments with a team of accomplices to study how individuals conform to group opinions on the length of a string, even if it is clearly incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asch

      Explanation:

      Psychology Experiments and Theories

      Asch conducted experiments on conformity, where participants tended to agree with group estimates even when they were clearly wrong. Heider introduced attribution theory and the fundamental attribution error. Milgram studied obedience by instructing participants to administer electric shocks to actors who were struggling in a learning task. Janis described groupthink, which is the tendency to pursue consensus in group decisions. On a different note, James Osterberg, who is more commonly known as Iggy Pop, performed with the rock band The Stooges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 9 - A teenage girl shoplifts a piece of jewelry from a boutique. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl shoplifts a piece of jewelry from a boutique. She is apprehended and when her mother asks her why she did it, she explains that she believed it was acceptable because she didn't think she would be caught. Based on Kohlberg's theory, which stage of moral development does she seem to exhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obedience and punishment orientation

      Explanation:

      His actions are influenced by his anticipation of receiving punishment of not.

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 10 - A teenager with a borderline personality disorder begins to skip school and spend...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager with a borderline personality disorder begins to skip school and spend more time alone. They also start engaging in increased substance use. The school counselor notes that this occurs at a time when the academic work has become very challenging.
      Which of the following defense mechanisms is suggested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acting out

      Explanation:

      Common examples of acting out include avoiding therapy sessions and using alcohol as a means of avoiding the challenging work of therapy.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 11 - What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor...

    Incorrect

    • What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor who wants to assess a patient for a personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BPRS

      Explanation:

      The BPRS is a tool used to assess symptoms in individuals with functional mental illness. There are also various screening tools available for personality disorders, which you should have a basic knowledge of for the exam. These include the SAPAS, which is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete. It is scored between 0 and 8 based on yes/no answers to 8 statements, and a score of 3 of more warrants further assessment. The FFMRF is a self-reported tool consisting of 30 items rated 1-5 for each item, based on symptoms rather than diagnosis. The IPDE is a semistructured clinical interview compatible with the ICD and DSM, which includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 12 - Which study focused on men who participated in sexual activities in public restrooms?...

    Incorrect

    • Which study focused on men who participated in sexual activities in public restrooms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tearoom study

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about Capgras syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Capgras syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It results from delusional misidentification

      Explanation:

      Capgras syndrome is caused by a delusional belief rather than a hallucinatory perception.

      Delusional Misidentification Syndrome

      Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 14 - When activated, which type of receptor increases the permeability of a plasma membrane...

    Incorrect

    • When activated, which type of receptor increases the permeability of a plasma membrane to chloride ions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GABA-A

      Explanation:

      GABA-A is the sole ionotropic receptor among the options provided. Its function involves the selective conduction of chloride ions across the cell membrane upon activation by GABA, leading to hyperpolarization of the neuron.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 15 - Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heroin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of heroin involves attaching to opiate receptors, which are G-coupled. This attachment results in the suppression of cellular activity through stimulation.

      Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 16 - Which terms are most commonly associated with Goffman? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which terms are most commonly associated with Goffman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total Institutions

      Explanation:

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 17 - In what region of the brain is the dentate gyrus located? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what region of the brain is the dentate gyrus located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      The hippocampal formation includes the dentate gyrus, which is located in the medial temporal lobe. The cerebrum, which is the largest part of the brain, is divided into four lobes: frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital. The frontal lobe is situated at the front of the cerebrum, while the temporal lobes are on the sides, the parietal lobe is on the top, and the occipital lobe is at the back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman is experiencing sudden anxiety and has a belief that her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is experiencing sudden anxiety and has a belief that her body is shrinking. What is the probable culture-bound syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Koro

      Explanation:

      Koro is a syndrome that mainly affects individuals in Africa and Asia, causing them to believe that their genitals are retracting and will disappear, despite no actual physical changes. Dhat syndrome, prevalent in India, is characterized by symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, anxiety, and sexual dysfunction, with patients believing they are passing semen in their urine. Kuru is a neurological disorder, while Latah, found in Southeast Asia, is similar to Tourette’s syndrome. Piblokto, observed in Inuits, is a sudden dissociative state that results in loss of consciousness during the attack and amnesia afterwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
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  • Question 19 - What structure has been found to exhibit excessive activity in individuals with depression?...

    Incorrect

    • What structure has been found to exhibit excessive activity in individuals with depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amygdala

      Explanation:

      Neuroimaging and Depression

      Research on depression using neuroimaging has revealed several important findings. One such finding is that the volume of the amygdala decreases with an increasing number of depressive episodes. Additionally, studies using positron emission tomography (PET) have shown that individuals with depression have elevated baseline amygdala activity that is positively correlated with the severity of their depression. Furthermore, depressed individuals exhibit greater amygdala reactivity to negative emotional stimuli compared to healthy controls.

      Another area of interest is the subgenual anterior cingulate cortex (ACC), where increased levels of activity have been observed in depressed individuals. Several studies have also reported decreased volume in the subgenual ACC associated with depression. Finally, researchers have found that depressed individuals exhibit less reactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) to affective stimuli compared to healthy controls.

      In summary, neuroimaging research suggests that the amygdala and subgenual ACC are overactive in depression, while the DLPFC is underactive. These findings provide important insights into the neural mechanisms underlying depression and may inform the development of more effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 20 - Little Sarah is slow in her language development. She loves playing with dolls....

    Incorrect

    • Little Sarah is slow in her language development. She loves playing with dolls. Her father started by rewarding her with a doll when she made a da sound. Once she could say da on her own, her father moved on to doll, then doll please and eventually to the complete sentence Can I play with my doll please?
      This type of reinforcement is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chaining

      Explanation:

      Chaining involves teaching and connecting the components of a complex task in order to teach the task as a whole. Cueing helps the learner focus on important stimuli. Extinction occurs when a conditioned response gradually disappears due to repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated presentation and is important in treating OCD. Shaping involves reinforcing successively closer approximations to the desired behavior to build up complex behavior, and has clinical applications in managing behavioral disturbances, learning disabilities, and substance misuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 21 - What is true about the genetics of alcoholism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about the genetics of alcoholism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The heritability of alcohol dependence is thought to be between 45-65%

      Explanation:

      Genetics and Alcoholism

      Alcoholism tends to run in families, and several studies confirm that biological children of alcoholics are more likely to develop alcoholism even when adopted by parents without the condition. Monozygotic twins have a greater concordance rate for alcoholism than dizygotic twins. Heritability estimates range from 45 to 65 percent for both men and women. While genetic differences affect risk, there is no “gene for alcoholism,” and both environmental and social factors weigh heavily on the outcome.

      The genes with the clearest contribution to the risk for alcoholism and alcohol consumption are alcohol dehydrogenase 1B (ADH1B) and aldehyde dehydrogenase 2 (ALDH2). The first step in ethanol metabolism is oxidation to acetaldehyde, by ADHs. The second step is metabolism of the acetaldehyde to acetate by ALDHs. Individuals carrying even a single copy of the ALDH2*504K display the “Asian flushing reaction” when they consume even small amounts of alcohol. There is one significant genetic polymorphism of the ALDH2 gene, resulting in allelic variants ALDH2*1 and ALDH2*2, which is virtually inactive. ALDH2*2 is present in about 50 percent of the Taiwanese, Han Chinese, and Japanese populations. It is extremely rare outside Asia. Nearly no individuals of European of African descent carry this allele. ALDH2*504K has repeatedly been demonstrated to have a protective effect against alcohol use disorders.

      The three different class I gene loci, ADH1A (alpha), ADH1B (beta), and ADH1C (gamma) are situated close to each other in the region 4q2123. The alleles ADH1C*1 and ADH1B*2 code for fast metabolism of alcohol. The ADH1B*1 slow allele is very common among Caucasians, with approximately 95 percent having the homozygous ADH1B*1/1 genotype and 5 percent having the heterozygous ADH1B*1/2 genotype. The ADH1B*2 allele is the most common allele in Asian populations. In African populations, the ADH1B*1 allele is the most common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG

      The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 23 - What sublingual preparation of an SSRI has demonstrated efficacy in treating depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What sublingual preparation of an SSRI has demonstrated efficacy in treating depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants

      While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.

      One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.

      Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.

      Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.

      Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A mental health nurse evaluates a client in the ER and documents in...

    Incorrect

    • A mental health nurse evaluates a client in the ER and documents in her evaluation that the client is experiencing 'anhedonia' as a symptom. What does anhedonia mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It was coined by Ribot

      Explanation:

      Anhedonia, a term coined by Théodule-Armand Ribot in 1896, refers to the lack of interest in experiencing pleasure. This condition is commonly linked to depression and is also observed in schizophrenia as a component of the negative symptoms of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 25 - A teenager who is not compliant with their medicine says they just forget...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager who is not compliant with their medicine says they just forget to take it. The therapist points out that when they stop the medication they end up missing school and social activities. Which technique is the therapist using?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confrontation

      Explanation:

      Interview Techniques: Confrontation

      Confrontation is a technique that can be employed during patient interviews to draw their attention to a particular issue. However, it is crucial to use this technique with care as it can potentially lead to the patient becoming defensive of hostile. Therefore, it is essential to approach confrontation tactfully and with sensitivity. By doing so, the interviewer can effectively communicate their concerns to the patient without causing any unnecessary tension of conflict. Proper use of confrontation can help patients recognize and address problematic behaviors of attitudes, leading to positive outcomes in their treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 26 - Who proposed that intelligence could not be measured by a single factor and...

    Incorrect

    • Who proposed that intelligence could not be measured by a single factor and instead identified seven distinct primary abilities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thurstone

      Explanation:

      Thurstone’s Theory of Intelligence

      Louis Leon Thurstone believed that intelligence could not be reduced to a single factor. Instead, he proposed that intelligence is composed of seven distinct abilities, which he called the primary abilities. These abilities include word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization, number facility, associative memory, reasoning, and perceptual speed. According to Thurstone, each of these abilities is independent of the others and contributes to an individual’s overall intelligence. This theory challenged the prevailing view of intelligence at the time, which held that intelligence could be measured by a single factor known as the g factor. Thurstone’s theory has had a lasting impact on the field of psychology and has influenced the development of modern intelligence tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 27 - The behavior of the cat expecting food when it hears a noise similar...

    Incorrect

    • The behavior of the cat expecting food when it hears a noise similar to the can opener is an example of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulus generalisation

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 28 - Which wave pattern is considered the most abnormal during a state of wakefulness?...

    Incorrect

    • Which wave pattern is considered the most abnormal during a state of wakefulness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delta

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman has been referred to the psychologist for a personality assessment....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been referred to the psychologist for a personality assessment. The psychologist presents her with a series of ten inkblots and asks for her interpretation of the patterns. What type of personality test is being administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rorschach test

      Explanation:

      The projective approach to personality assessment utilizes ambiguous test stimuli to reveal information about an individual’s personality. The Rorschach test, which involves ten inkblot cards, is the most widely used and researched projective test. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is another projective measure that uses 20 stimulus cards depicting ambiguous scenes. The Make a Picture Story (MAPS) test is similar to the TAT but allows the patient to manage the stimuli. In contrast, the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) and the Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI) are objective measures of personality in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man from a Latin American background arrives at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man from a Latin American background arrives at the emergency department with a chief complaint of overwhelming anxiety. He expresses concern that his soul has departed from his body. What is the name of this cultural affliction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Susto

      Explanation:

      Susto is an anxiety disorder prevalent in South and Central America that is linked to the loss of soul. It typically occurs after experiencing a traumatic emotional of physical event.

      Amok is a dissociative state that is more commonly observed in Malaysia. It is characterized by symptoms such as neurasthenia, depersonalization, rage, automatism, and violent acts.

      Koro is a belief that the penis is shrinking and will retract into the abdomen, leading to death.

      Latah is a condition similar to Tourette’s syndrome, where an exaggerated startle response results in abnormal behaviors.

      Wendigo is a depressive disorder that involves the delusion of becoming cannibalistic. It is primarily observed in Native American communities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (0/1) 0%
Psychopharmacology (0/2) 0%
Social Psychology (1/1) 100%
Neurosciences (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
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