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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has been diagnosed with anaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has been diagnosed with anaemia of chronic disease.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding anaemia of chronic disease is true?

      Your Answer: Transferrin saturation is elevated

      Correct Answer: Total iron binding capacity is usually reduced

      Explanation:

      Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that can occur in various chronic conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, tuberculosis, malignancy, malnutrition, hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, chronic kidney disease, and chronic liver disease. The underlying mechanisms of this type of anaemia are complex and not fully understood, with multiple contributing factors involved. One important mediator in inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis is interleukin-6 (IL-6). Increased levels of IL-6 lead to the production of hepcidin, a hormone that regulates iron balance. Hepcidin prevents the release of iron from the reticulo-endothelial system and affects other aspects of iron metabolism.

      Anaemia of chronic disease typically presents as a normochromic, normocytic anaemia, although it can also be microcytic. It is characterized by reduced serum iron, reduced transferrin saturation, and reduced total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). However, the serum ferritin levels are usually normal or increased. Distinguishing anaemia of chronic disease from iron-deficiency anaemia can be challenging, but in iron-deficiency anaemia, the TIBC is typically elevated, and serum ferritin is usually low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old patient complains of a red and painful right eye. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient complains of a red and painful right eye. Upon examination, you observe conjunctival erythema. There is also mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting present in the eye. Based on the current NICE guidance, what is the recommended first-line antibiotic for treating bacterial conjunctivitis?

      Your Answer: Fusidic acid 1% drops

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol 1% ointment

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing bacterial conjunctivitis, NICE provides some helpful guidance. It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment. However, in severe cases or situations where a quick resolution is necessary, topical antibiotics may be necessary. In some cases, it may be appropriate to delay treatment and advise the patient to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.

      There are a few options for topical antibiotics that can be used. One option is Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops, which should be applied every 2 hours for 2 days and then 4 times daily for 5 days. Another option is Chloramphenicol 1% ointment, which should be applied four times daily for 2 days and then twice daily for 5 days. Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment and should be applied twice daily for 7 days.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage bacterial conjunctivitis and provide appropriate treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20 year old college student comes to the ER with a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old college student comes to the ER with a sore throat that has been bothering them for the past 10 days. After conducting a physical examination, you inform the patient that you suspect they may have glandular fever. You proceed to order blood tests.

      Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of glandular fever?

      Your Answer: Neutropenia

      Correct Answer: Lymphocytosis

      Explanation:

      In the blood tests, certain findings can support a diagnosis of glandular fever. One of these findings is lymphocytosis, which refers to an increased number of lymphocytes in the blood. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. In glandular fever, the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is the most common cause, and it primarily infects and activates lymphocytes, leading to their increased numbers in the blood.

      On the other hand, neutropenia (a decreased number of neutrophils) and neutrophilia (an increased number of neutrophils) are not typically associated with glandular fever. Neutrophils are another type of white blood cell that helps fight off bacterial infections. In glandular fever, the primary involvement is with lymphocytes rather than neutrophils.

      Monocytosis, which refers to an increased number of monocytes, can also be seen in glandular fever. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that plays a role in the immune response. Their increased numbers can be a result of the immune system’s response to the Epstein-Barr virus.

      Eosinophilia, an increased number of eosinophils, is not commonly associated with glandular fever. Eosinophils are white blood cells involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, and their elevation is more commonly seen in those conditions.

      In summary, the presence of lymphocytosis and possibly monocytosis in the blood tests would support a diagnosis of glandular fever, while neutropenia, neutrophilia, and eosinophilia are less likely to be associated with this condition.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68 year old male with dementia is brought into the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male with dementia is brought into the emergency department by his daughter due to a sudden decline in cognitive function over the past week. The daughter suspects that the patient's medication may have been altered recently. She presents you with the tablets she discovered in the patient's room. Which medication is most likely responsible for the decline in the patient's cognitive abilities?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs have been found to worsen cognitive impairment in individuals with dementia. Certain commonly prescribed medications are associated with a higher anticholinergic burden, which can lead to increased cognitive decline. Examples of drugs with high anticholinergic potency include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline hydrochloride, paroxetine, first-generation antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine maleate and promethazine hydrochloride, certain antipsychotics like olanzapine, clozapine, and quetiapine, urinary antispasmodics like solifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine, and antimuscarinics like ipratropium, tiotropium, atropine, and cyclopentolate. However, it’s important to note that rivastigmine and memantine are recommended as first-line treatments for Alzheimer’s and DLB, while haloperidol, despite being an antipsychotic, has low anticholinergic potency.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with her husband. She is extremely concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with her husband. She is extremely concerned about his frequent headaches and recent changes in his behavior. He complains of experiencing intense pain behind his left eye in the late evenings for the past two weeks. The pain typically lasts for about half an hour, and his wife mentions that he occasionally bangs his head against the wall due to the severity of the pain. Additionally, his left eye becomes watery during these episodes. A thorough neurological examination reveals no abnormalities.
      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is commonly seen in young men in their 20s. The male to female ratio for this condition is 6:1. Smoking is also known to increase the risk of developing cluster headaches. These headaches occur in clusters, usually lasting for a few weeks every year or two. The pain experienced is severe and typically affects one side of the head, often around or behind the eye. It tends to occur at the same time each day and can cause the patient to become agitated, sometimes resorting to hitting their head against a wall or the floor in an attempt to distract from the pain.

      In addition to the intense pain, cluster headaches are also associated with autonomic involvement. This can manifest as various symptoms on the same side as the headache, including conjunctival injection (redness of the eye), rhinorrhea (runny nose), lacrimation (tearing of the eye), miosis (constriction of the pupil), and ptosis (drooping of the eyelid).

      On the other hand, migraine with typical aura presents with temporary visual disturbances, such as hemianopia (loss of vision in half of the visual field) or scintillating scotoma (a visual aura that appears as a shimmering or flashing area of distorted vision). Migraine without aura, on the other hand, needs to meet specific criteria set by the International Headache Society. These criteria include having at least five headache attacks lasting between 4 to 72 hours, with the headache having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate to severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity.

      During a migraine headache, the patient may also experience symptoms such as nausea and/or vomiting, as well as sensitivity to light (photophobia) and sound (phonophobia). It is important to note that these symptoms should not be attributed to another underlying disorder.

      If a patient over the age of 50 presents with a new-onset headache, it raises the possibility of giant cell arteritis (temporal arteritis). Other symptoms and signs that may be associated with this condition include jaw claudication (pain in the jaw when chewing), systemic upset, scalp tenderness, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

      Medication overuse headache is a condition that is suspected when a patient is using multiple medications, often at low doses, without experiencing any relief from their headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman who is 32-weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy is brought...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 32-weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy is brought in by ambulance after a car accident. She has noticeable bruising on her lower abdomen and is experiencing intense abdominal pain. During the examination, you are unable to feel the top of the uterus and can easily feel the baby's body parts. Blood samples have been sent to the lab and the patient has an IV line in place.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      Uterine rupture can occur in two forms: primary, which happens without any previous uterine surgery or trauma, and secondary, which occurs when there is scar dehiscence. In secondary rupture, the rupture can range from the peritoneum to the endometrium, or the peritoneum may remain intact while the underlying uterine tissue ruptures.

      There are several risk factors associated with uterine rupture, including multiparity, a uterine scar from a previous Caesarean section, previous uterine surgery, dysfunctional labor, and augmented labor with medications like oxytocin or prostaglandins.

      The clinical features of uterine rupture include abdominal pain and tenderness, abdominal guarding and rigidity, inability to feel the uterine fundus (in cases of fundal rupture), cessation of uterine contractions, chest pain or shoulder tip pain, vaginal bleeding, abnormal fetal lie (such as oblique or transverse), easy palpation of fetal parts outside the uterus, absent fetal heart sounds, and abnormal CTG findings like late decelerations and reduced variability. Maternal shock can also occur and may be severe.

      Immediate resuscitation is crucial and should involve intravenous fluids and/or blood transfusion. This should be followed by a laparotomy. After the baby is delivered, the uterus should be repaired or a hysterectomy may be performed. The decision between these two management options depends on factors such as the site and extent of the rupture, as well as the mother’s condition, age, and parity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72 year old female arrives at the emergency department after speaking with...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old female arrives at the emergency department after speaking with her primary care physician over the phone. She explains that while she was shopping, her right arm and right leg suddenly felt weak and became a bit difficult to move. The patient is otherwise alert, oriented, feels well, and has normal speech. A brain CT scan reveals a focal area of ischemia consistent with an acute stroke. You arrange for her transfer to the stroke unit. The patient inquires if she can drive her car before going to the ward. What advice would you give her regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Advise them, they must not drive for 12 months following a confirmed stroke & you are obliged to inform the DVLA

      Correct Answer: Advise them, they must not drive a car for at least 1 month following a confirmed stroke

      Explanation:

      Patients who have experienced a stroke should be aware that they are not allowed to drive for at least one month if they have a type 1 license. If there are no neurological issues after this time period, they may not need to inform the DVLA (Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency). However, they must inform the DVLA if any of the following conditions apply: they have had more than one stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), they have a Group 2 license, a medical practitioner has expressed concerns about their ability to drive, they still have residual deficits one month after the stroke (such as weakness in the limbs, visual problems, coordination difficulties, memory or understanding issues), the stroke required neurosurgical treatment, or if they experienced a seizure (unless it was an isolated seizure within 24 hours of the stroke and there is no history of prior seizures).

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts are a common occurrence in the emergency department and can have serious consequences if they happen while a person is driving. It is crucial for doctors in the ED to be familiar with the guidelines set by the DVLA (Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency) regarding driving restrictions for patients who have experienced a blackout.

      The DVLA has specific rules for different types of conditions that may cause syncope (loss of consciousness). For group 1 license holders (car/motorcycle use), if a person has had a first unprovoked isolated seizure, they must refrain from driving for 6 months or 12 months if there is an underlying causative factor that may increase the risk. They must also notify the DVLA. For group 2 license holders (bus and heavy goods vehicles), the restrictions are more stringent, with a requirement of 12 months off driving for a first unprovoked isolated seizure and 5 years off driving if there is an underlying causative factor.

      For epilepsy or multiple seizures, both group 1 and group 2 license holders must remain seizure-free for 12 months before their license can be considered. They must also notify the DVLA. In the case of a stroke or isolated transient ischemic attack (TIA), group 1 license holders need to refrain from driving for 1 month, while group 2 license holders must wait for 12 months before being re-licensed subject to medical evaluation. Multiple TIAs require 3 months off driving for both groups.

      Isolated vasovagal syncope requires no driving restriction for group 1 license holders, but group 2 license holders must refrain from driving for 3 months. Both groups must notify the DVLA. If syncope is caused by a reversible and treated condition, group 1 license holders need 4 weeks off driving, while group 2 license holders require 3 months. In the case of an isolated syncopal episode with an unknown cause, group 1 license holders must refrain from driving for 6 months, while group 2 license holders will have their license refused or revoked for 12 months.

      For patients who continue to drive against medical advice, the GMC (General Medical Council) has provided guidance on how doctors should manage the situation. Doctors should explain to the patient why they are not allowed to drive and inform them of their legal duty to notify the DVLA or DVA (Driver and Vehicle Agency in Northern Ireland). Doctors should also record the advice given to the patient in their medical record

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You evaluate a patient who has sustained burns in a house fire. Your...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a patient who has sustained burns in a house fire. Your attending physician inquires whether immediate fluid resuscitation is necessary for this patient. What burn assessment finding in a pediatric patient should trigger the initiation of immediate fluid resuscitation?

      Your Answer: Burns greater than 15% of total body surface area

      Explanation:

      In pediatric patients who have sustained burns in a house fire, the presence of burns greater than 15% of the total body surface area should trigger the initiation of immediate fluid resuscitation.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On examination, there is tenderness over his left renal angle and he has a temperature of 38.6°C. You suspect the most likely diagnosis is pyelonephritis.
      Which of the following is not a reason to consider hospital admission in a patient with pyelonephritis?

      Your Answer: Failure to improve significantly within 12 hours of starting antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.

      According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.

      NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

      For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.

      For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option. If there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, it is advised to consult a local microbiologist for intravenous second-line

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 12 month old is brought into the emergency department by worried parents....

    Correct

    • A 12 month old is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child has been experiencing diarrhea and has been eating poorly for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, the patient appears alert but shows signs of trembling and excessive sweating. The initial observations are as follows:

      Pulse: 150 bpm
      Respirations: 32 bpm
      Temperature: 37.5ºC
      Oxygen Saturations: 98% on air
      Capillary glucose: 2.2 mmol/l
      Urinalysis: NAD

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Squeeze glucogel® into child’s mouth between the patients lower cheek and gum

      Explanation:

      Diabetes Mellitus:
      – Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
      – Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
      – Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
      – Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.

      Hypoglycemia:
      – Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
      – Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
      – Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
      – Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
      – Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.

      Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
      – Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
      – Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
      – Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
      – If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.

      Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with a severe head...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with a severe head injury. Due to a decreasing Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), it is decided to intubate him. You prepare for rapid sequence induction (RSI) and plan to use propofol as the induction agent. Which of the following statements about propofol and its impact on blood pressure is accurate?

      Your Answer: Propofol causes hypotension via venodilation

      Explanation:

      The administration of propofol can result in venodilation, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure. This effect is particularly significant in patients who are already experiencing unstable blood flow.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28 year old IV drug user presents to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old IV drug user presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling ill. Considering the history of IV drug abuse, there is a concern for infective endocarditis. What is the most characteristic clinical manifestation of infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Janeway lesions

      Correct Answer: Fever

      Explanation:

      The most common symptom of infective endocarditis is fever, which occurs in the majority of cases and is consistently present throughout the course of the disease. Cardiac murmurs are also frequently detected, although they may only be present in one third of patients at the initial presentation. Individuals who use intravenous drugs often develop right-sided disease affecting the tricuspid and pulmonary valves, making it challenging to detect cardiac murmurs in these cases. Splinter hemorrhages and other symptoms may also be observed.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical symptoms of a sexually transmitted infection.
      Which of the following organisms is NOT typically transmitted through sexual contact?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      The primary way hepatitis A is transmitted is through the ingestion of fecal matter containing the virus. On the other hand, all the other organisms mentioned in this question are typically transmitted through sexual contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old male comes to the emergency department with sudden difficulty in breathing....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male comes to the emergency department with sudden difficulty in breathing. Upon examination, you observe that the patient has a tracheostomy due to an extended period on a ventilator after a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Following the emergency tracheostomy algorithm, you proceed to deflate the cuff. However, the patient does not show any improvement. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Cover stoma and start bag mask ventilation

      Correct Answer: Remove tracheostomy tube

      Explanation:

      If deflating the cuff does not improve the stability of a tracheostomy patient, it is recommended to remove the tracheostomy tube. Deflating the cuff is typically done after removing the inner tube and any additional devices like speaking valves or caps, and passing a suction catheter. If deflating the cuff does not have the desired effect, the next step would be to remove the tracheostomy tube. If this also proves ineffective, the clinician should consider ventilating the patient through the mouth or stoma.

      Further Reading:

      Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.

      When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.

      Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You review a 30-year-old woman with a history of a mental health disorder...

    Correct

    • You review a 30-year-old woman with a history of a mental health disorder and self-harming behavior. She is accompanied by the Police and has cut her arm with a sharp object. They would like you to assess her arm injuries and are concerned about her risk of future self-harm.
      When assessing this patient, which of the following features should your examination room have?

      Your Answer: An internal inspection window

      Explanation:

      When evaluating a disturbed or violent patient, your own safety should be the top priority. It is essential that the room you use for the examination has certain features to ensure your well-being. Firstly, there should be an internal inspection window that allows the staff to regularly check on both you and the patient. Additionally, the room should have an unimpeded exit, preferably with an outward opening door that is easy to exit through. It is also crucial to choose a room that is close to well-staffed areas, as this can provide immediate assistance if needed.

      It is highly recommended to avoid examining patients in isolated areas, as it significantly increases the risk of harm to the assessor. While the room should be comfortable, it is unnecessary to have excessive furnishings. In fact, having too much furniture and unnecessary equipment can pose a threat, as they can be used as weapons by the patient. Therefore, it is ideal to remove any excess furniture and unnecessary equipment from the room. In this case, an examination couch is not required and should be avoided, as it could potentially be used as a weapon.

      A secure locking mechanism is not necessary for the room, and it should be easily accessible to other staff members during the assessment. It is important to note that the room should not be used as a detainment area for the patient, and they should never be locked inside. By following these guidelines and ensuring the room has the recommended features, you can prioritize your safety while examining disturbed or violent patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper lip, and his hands. He has a confirmed diagnosis of hereditary angioedema.
      What is the pattern of inheritance for this disorder?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Hereditary angioedema is a condition caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor, a protein that is part of the complement system. It is typically inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Symptoms usually start in childhood and continue sporadically into adulthood. Attacks can be triggered by minor surgical procedures, dental work, and stress. The main clinical signs of hereditary angioedema include swelling of the skin and mucous membranes, with the face, tongue, and extremities being the most commonly affected areas. There is often a tingling sensation before an attack, sometimes accompanied by a non-itchy rash.

      Angioedema and anaphylaxis resulting from C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency do not respond to adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma, both of which contain C1 esterase inhibitor. In situations that may trigger an attack, short-term prophylaxis can be achieved by administering C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma infusions prior to the event. For long-term prevention, androgenic steroids like stanozolol or antifibrinolytic drugs such as tranexamic acid can be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The ‘Smith guidelines’ are used to clarify the legal position of treating teenagers...

    Incorrect

    • The ‘Smith guidelines’ are used to clarify the legal position of treating teenagers under the age of 18 without parental consent.

      Your Answer: The patient must not have a mental illness

      Correct Answer: Unless the treatment is given the mental health of the patient is likely to suffer

      Explanation:

      The Fraser guidelines pertain to the guidelines established by Lord Fraser during the Gillick case in 1985. These guidelines specifically address the provision of contraceptive advice to individuals under the age of 16. According to the Fraser guidelines, a doctor may proceed with providing advice and treatment if they are satisfied with the following criteria:

      1. The individual (despite being under 16 years old) possesses a sufficient understanding of the advice being given.
      2. The doctor is unable to convince the individual to inform their parents or allow the doctor to inform the parents about seeking contraceptive advice.
      3. The individual is likely to engage in sexual intercourse, regardless of whether they receive contraceptive treatment.
      4. Without contraceptive advice or treatment, the individual’s physical and/or mental health is likely to deteriorate.
      5. The doctor deems it in the individual’s best interests to provide contraceptive advice, treatment, or both without parental consent.

      In summary, the Fraser guidelines outline the conditions under which a doctor can offer contraceptive advice to individuals under 16 years old, ensuring their well-being and best interests are taken into account.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You have been tasked with arranging a case-based teaching session for the junior...

    Correct

    • You have been tasked with arranging a case-based teaching session for the junior doctors in the emergency department regarding vertigo. Which of the subsequent clinical features aligns with a central origin of vertigo?

      Your Answer: Inability to stand up with the eyes open

      Explanation:

      If a person is unable to stand up or walk, even with their eyes open, it is likely that the cause of their vertigo is central in nature. Additional features that increase suspicion of a central cause include focal neurology, prolonged and severe vertigo (although this can also be seen in vestibular neuronitis or Meniere’s disease), new-onset headache or recent trauma, a normal head impulse test, and the presence of cardiovascular risk factors.

      Further Reading:

      Vertigo is a symptom characterized by a false sensation of movement, such as spinning or rotation, in the absence of any actual physical movement. It is not a diagnosis itself, but rather a description of the sensation experienced by the individual. Dizziness, on the other hand, refers to a perception of disturbed or impaired spatial orientation without a false sense of motion.

      Vertigo can be classified as either peripheral or central. Peripheral vertigo is more common and is caused by problems in the inner ear that affect the labyrinth or vestibular nerve. Examples of peripheral vertigo include BPPV, vestibular neuritis, labyrinthitis, and Meniere’s disease. Central vertigo, on the other hand, is caused by pathology in the brain, such as in the brainstem or cerebellum. Examples of central vertigo include migraine, TIA and stroke, cerebellar tumor, acoustic neuroma, and multiple sclerosis.

      There are certain features that can help differentiate between peripheral and central vertigo. Peripheral vertigo is often associated with severe nausea and vomiting, hearing loss or tinnitus, and a positive head impulse test. Central vertigo may be characterized by prolonged and severe vertigo, new-onset headache, recent trauma, cardiovascular risk factors, inability to stand or walk with eyes open, focal neurological deficit, and a negative head impulse test.

      Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, can also provide clues about the underlying cause of vertigo. Central causes of vertigo often have nystagmus that is direction-changing on lateral gaze, purely vertical or torsional, not suppressed by visual fixation, non-fatigable, and commonly large amplitude. Peripheral causes of vertigo often have horizontal nystagmus with a torsional component that does not change direction with gaze, disappears with fixation of the gaze, and may have large amplitude early in the course of Meniere’s disease or vestibular neuritis.

      There are various causes of vertigo, including viral labyrinthitis, vestibular neuritis, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, Meniere’s disease, vertebrobasilar ischemia, and acoustic neuroma. Each of these disorders has its own unique characteristics and may be associated with other symptoms such as hearing loss, tinnitus, or neurological deficits.

      When assessing a patient with vertigo, it is important to perform a cardiovascular and neurological examination, including assessing cranial nerves, cerebellar signs, eye movements, gait, coordination, and evidence of peripheral

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35 year old female is brought to the emergency department after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a sudden and severe headache. CT scan confirms the presence of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. You are currently monitoring the patient for any signs of elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) while awaiting transfer to the neurosurgical unit. What is the typical ICP range for a supine adult?

      Your Answer: 5–15 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The normal intracranial pressure (ICP) for an adult lying down is typically between 5 and 15 mmHg.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are managing a 42 year old female who has been brought into...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 42 year old female who has been brought into the emergency department with burns and suspected inhalation injury following a house fire. Due to concerns about the patient's ability to maintain their airway it is decided to proceed with intubation and ventilation. Your initial attempt to intubate the patient fails. What is the maximum number of intubation attempts that should be made?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      According to the guidelines of the Difficult Airway Society, it is recommended to limit intubation attempts to a maximum of three. However, if the first three attempts are unsuccessful, a more experienced colleague may make a fourth attempt. If all four attempts are unsuccessful, the intubation should be declared as a failure.

      Further Reading:

      A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.

      Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.

      If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.

      Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      10.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/1) 100%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Allergy (0/1) 0%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Passmed