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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with pain in his hand. He had a similar incident to the previous patient, where he fell onto an outstretched hand while playing basketball. He is experiencing pain in the wrist, particularly below the thumb. X-rays are taken, including AP, lateral, and scaphoid views, but no fracture is seen.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Repeat X-rays in 6 hours’ time
Correct Answer: Application of a scaphoid plaster and sling
Explanation:Application of Scaphoid Plaster and Sling for Fracture Treatment
A scaphoid fracture is typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand, resulting in pain over the base of the thumb. Although special views of the scaphoid are required to confirm the injury, treatment is necessary in the absence of radiographic findings. A scaphoid plaster and sling are commonly used for immobilization, and the plaster should be removed after 14 days for repeat X-rays. If a fracture is detected, a new cast is applied, and a follow-up appointment is scheduled in four weeks. However, if no evidence of a fracture is found, the patient may have suffered a sprain, and no further follow-up is necessary unless symptoms persist. To avoid unnecessary immobilization, a CT or MRI scan may be ordered, with MRI being more sensitive. Slings are not recommended for scaphoid fractures. Repeat X-rays should be taken in 10-14 days, as bone resorption around the fracture allows for better visualization. Discharging the patient without further action is not recommended, as scaphoid fractures may not be immediately apparent and can lead to avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after she fell off a swing. She reports that she was able to brace her fall with her left hand. In the Emergency Department, the patient’s vitals are stable. Examination of the left upper extremity demonstrates tenderness above the elbow, with evidence of soft tissue swelling. A plain film demonstrates a supracondylar fracture of the left humerus.
Which of the following structures is most at risk?Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Brachial artery
Explanation:Understanding the Potential Vascular and Nerve Injuries in Supracondylar Fractures of the Humerus
Supracondylar fractures of the humerus are more common in children than in adults and can result in significant vascular and nerve injuries. The brachial artery, located anteriorly to the humerus, is at significant risk for injury resulting in compartment syndrome or Volkmann’s contracture. The radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm, runs along the radial groove in the midshaft of the humerus and is more likely injured in midshaft fractures or after prolonged compression of the posterior aspect of the arm. The median nerve may also be injured in supracondylar fractures, but is less likely to be affected than the brachial artery or ulnar nerve. The ulnar artery and radial artery are distal continuations of the brachial artery and are not directly injured in supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Understanding the potential vascular and nerve injuries associated with supracondylar fractures is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm. He is taken to the Emergency Department where an X-ray reveals a mid-humeral shaft fracture. There is no sign of a growing haematoma, and the patient has a strong radial pulse with good perfusion. Doppler studies of the arm show no evidence of bleeding.
What is the most probable condition that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Mid-Humeral Shaft Fractures
Mid-humeral shaft fractures can result in nerve damage, leading to various symptoms. Here are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:
1. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand: This is likely due to damage to the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.
2. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle: This may occur in shoulder dislocation or compression of the axilla, leading to weakness of adduction and loss of sensation over a small patch of the lateral upper arm.
3. Inability to flex the wrist: This is controlled by the median nerve, which is more likely to be damaged in a supracondylar fracture.
4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which can be compressed at the medial epicondyle of the humerus, causing ulnar entrapment.
While compartment syndrome can also occur with mid-humeral shaft fractures, it is unlikely if no major bleeding was observed. It is important to be aware of these potential nerve injuries and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.
Which one of the following is the most likely injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear
Explanation:There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), also known as skier’s thumb. This injury can cause pain and weakness in grasping or pinching movements. Another ligament that can be injured is the radial collateral ligament (RCL), which is important for pinch. RCL injuries typically occur during sports or after a fall onto the radial aspect of the thumb and hand.
A Bennett fracture is another serious injury that can affect the thumb. This is an oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, often caused by a blow on a partially flexed first metacarpal. It can cause severe pain and swelling, and usually requires surgical intervention.
De Quervain tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath of the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. This can cause pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, as well as difficulty gripping. Corticosteroid injections are often used to manage this condition.
Finally, a scaphoid fracture can occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand, causing pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the wrist. Treatment typically involves a scaphoid cast to immobilize the wrist and prevent complications such as avascular necrosis, non-union, and arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old diabetic man experiences a gradual burning and tingling sensation in his right hand. He observes that his symptoms are more severe at night, frequently waking him up, and can only be alleviated by hanging his arm outside of the bed. Which nerve compression is likely responsible for this man's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:Understanding Nerve Compression: Symptoms and Special Tests
Nerve compression can cause a range of symptoms, from pain and weakness to numbness and tingling. Here are some key things to know about nerve compression and how it affects different nerves in the body.
The Median Nerve: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
The median nerve runs through the carpal tunnel, and compression of this nerve can cause pain, paraesthesiae, and weakness in the distribution of the median nerve. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common condition that can be caused by pregnancy, diabetes, and other factors. Special tests to detect carpal tunnel syndrome include TINel’s sign, Phalen’s test, and motor assessment.
The Radial Nerve: Hand and Arm Pain
Compression of the radial nerve can lead to pain in the back of your hand, near your thumb, and you may not be able to straighten your arm.
The Lateral Cutaneous Nerve: Reduced Sensation
Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve can lead to reduced sensation on the lateral aspect of the forearm.
The Ulnar Nerve: Numbness and Tingling
Compression of the ulnar nerve can lead to numbness and tingling in the fifth finger and half of the fourth finger.
The Medial Cutaneous Nerve: Elbow and Forearm Pain
Compression of the medial cutaneous nerve can lead to pain at the elbow and forearm.
By understanding the symptoms and special tests associated with nerve compression, you can better identify and manage these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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In elderly patients with acute limb compartment syndrome, which symptom is a late sign indicating a poor prognosis and is associated with local tissue hypoxia caused by increased pressure within an unyielding osseo-fascial compartment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaesthesia
Explanation:Recognizing and Treating Compartment Syndrome: Early Signs and Prognosis
Compartment syndrome occurs when tissue pressure within an enclosed fascial compartment rises above capillary pressure, leading to reduced blood flow to distal tissues. While direct measurement of compartmental pressures is possible, clinical assessment is crucial. Treatment involves removing occlusive dressings, elevating the affected area, and performing fasciotomy if necessary. Complete anesthesia is a late sign and indicates poor prognosis due to myoneural necrosis. Paraesthesia, or abnormal sensation, is a relatively late sign, and progression to complete anesthesia indicates a worse prognosis. Distal pulses and capillary refill may be present even with significant increases in compartmental pressure. The earliest sign is severe pain on passive muscle stretch, followed by pink shiny skin and a feeling of pressure. Swollen leg is an early sign, and prompt diagnosis and treatment at this stage can lead to a good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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How does teriparatide, a derivative of parathyroid hormone (PTH), help in treating severe osteoporosis despite the fact that primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism are associated with loss of bone mass?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: By having a direct anabolic effect on bone
Explanation:The Mechanisms of Parathyroid Hormone in Osteoporosis Treatment
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a complex role in the treatment of osteoporosis. While chronic elevation of PTH can lead to bone loss, mild elevations can help maintain trabecular bone mass. Teriparatide, a medication that mimics PTH, has been shown to increase bone mass and improve skeletal structure. However, PTH’s ability to increase bone remodelling is not beneficial in osteoporosis treatment, and chronic elevation can worsen the condition by increasing calcium resorption. PTH can activate the enzyme needed for activating vitamin D, but this is not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Additionally, PTH can decrease calcium excretion from the kidneys, but this is also not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Overall, PTH’s direct anabolic effect on bone is the most significant mechanism for its use in osteoporosis treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and twisted his leg. As a result, he is experiencing difficulty in extending his knee and it is locked in 30 degree flexion. Upon examination, his knee is swollen and painful.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meniscal tear
Explanation:A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that occurs most frequently in young athletes and the elderly. It is caused by a rotational injury to the knee and can result in knee locking. The menisci play an important role in knee stability, weight bearing, shock absorption, and protection of the articular cartilage. To diagnose a meniscal tear, a doctor may perform McMurray’s’s test, which involves rotating the knee and extending it to identify pain or an audible pop. An MRI is the most sensitive imaging method to confirm the diagnosis.
A posterior cruciate ligament tear is often part of a larger injury to other ligaments and is caused by hyperextension or hyperflexion of the knee. Symptoms include knee swelling and mild restriction in flexion, and a positive posterior drawer test can help with diagnosis.
Collateral ligament tears are typically caused by a sudden forced twist or direct blow to the knee and present with pain, swelling, and a feeling of the knee giving way on the medial or lateral side, depending on which ligament is affected.
Patella tendon rupture is most commonly seen in men aged 30-40 and is caused by high tensile forces on a weakened tendon. Symptoms include knee pain or swelling, difficulty straightening the leg, and displacement of the patella on X-rays. Risk factors include chronic tendonitis, corticosteroid use, previous or overuse injury, chronic kidney disease, and diabetes mellitus.
Achilles tendon rupture is characterized by an audible snap and sudden onset of pain at the back of the leg. The Simmonds’ test is used to diagnose the condition, and involves squeezing the calf muscles to see if it results in plantar flexion of the foot. In a partial or complete Achilles tendon rupture, this connection is disrupted and plantarflexion will not occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An older man tries to lift a heavy shopping bag but experiences sudden pain in his shoulder. As a result, he feels soreness in the area of the greater tuberosity of the humerus. He notices that he cannot initiate abduction when he tries to move his shoulder, but can continue to abduct once the arm is lifted away from his side. The shoulder flexion and extension can be performed normally, and the humerus medial and lateral rotation is also unaffected. What is the most probable diagnosis for the tendon injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:Muscles of the Shoulder: Functions and Roles
The shoulder joint is a complex structure that relies on several muscles to perform its various movements. Here are some of the key muscles involved in shoulder movement and their functions:
Supraspinatus: This muscle initiates the first 15-20 degrees of abduction of the arm. After this point, the middle fibers of the deltoid take over. The supraspinatus is also part of the rotator cuff.
Infraspinatus: Along with the teres minor, the infraspinatus is a lateral rotator of the humerus. It is also part of the rotator cuff.
Deltoid: The deltoid muscle assists with shoulder abduction after the first 15-20 degrees, which is initiated by the supraspinatus.
Subscapularis: This muscle inserts into the lesser tuberosity of the humerus and is a medial rotator of the humerus. It also helps stabilize the shoulder joint as part of the rotator cuff.
Biceps brachii: This muscle is responsible for flexion of the arm and forearm, as well as supination of the forearm. However, it does not play a role in abduction of the humerus.
Understanding the functions and roles of these muscles can help with injury prevention and rehabilitation, as well as improving overall shoulder strength and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What advice would you give Mrs Rose regarding her 3-year-old toddler who she is concerned has 'flat feet'? She is anxious and distressed and has been advised that her child needs an early operation and expensive orthotics to reverse the condition. However, upon examination, you observe that the toddler is a happy child with full mobility and no pain. The foot only appears flat when standing, but the arch reconstitutes when the child is toe walking or hanging their foot.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure her that in asymptomatic patients, the arch will normally develop with age and resolve spontaneously
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Pes Planovalgus
Pes planovalgus, also known as flat foot, is a common condition characterized by a decrease in the medial longitudinal arch with a valgus hindfoot and forefoot abduction with weight-bearing. While most cases resolve spontaneously, some individuals may experience arch or pretibial pain. However, asymptomatic patients can be reassured that the arch will normally develop with age.
Non-operative management is typically recommended, with symptomatic patients finding relief with athletic heels or orthotics such as heel cups. Surgical intervention, such as Achilles tendon or gastrocnemius fascia lengthening or calcaneal lengthening osteotomy, is reserved for chronic, painful cases that have failed non-operative therapy. Bed rest and partial weight-bearing are not indicated in the treatment of pes planovalgus.
Overall, understanding and managing pes planovalgus involves proper diagnosis, reassurance for asymptomatic patients, and appropriate non-operative or surgical intervention for symptomatic cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury to her left anatomical snuffbox. Which structures are more likely to be affected by an injury to the anatomical snuffbox?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial artery
Explanation:Anatomical Snuffbox and Nerve and Artery Relations in the Wrist
The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral side of the wrist, bounded by tendons and limited above by the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the scaphoid and the trapezium and is crossed by the radial artery.
The radial nerve can be damaged by a midshaft humerus fracture, leading to wrist drop, but it does not pass over the anatomical snuffbox. The median nerve can be compressed when passing through the carpal tunnel, causing tingling and numbness in the hand, but it has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar nerve can be compressed in the cubital fossa, leading to numbness and tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers, but it also has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar artery is on the medial side of the wrist and has no relation to the snuffbox.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall on the dry ski slope. She fell with her thumb outstretched and caught it in the matting on the slope surface.
Upon examination, the thumb is swollen and bruised, and she experiences difficulty making a pinching movement between her index finger and thumb. A palpable mass is present on the ulnar aspect of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. A plain X-ray shows no fracture or dislocation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured ulnar collateral ligament (UCL)
Explanation:Common Hand Injuries and Diagnostic Considerations
Ruptured Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL):
The UCL provides stability to the ulnar side of the MCP joint of the thumb. Injuries typically occur from forced abduction of the thumb or repetitive abduction movements. Diagnosis is made through X-ray to rule out associated fractures and lateral stress testing. Ultrasound or MRI may be required for further evaluation. Surgical repair is necessary due to the functional importance of the UCL, although partial tears may be managed with a thumb spica splint and physiotherapy.Ruptured Radial Collateral Ligament (RCL):
The mechanism of injury is more consistent with a UCL injury, and swelling is localized to the ulnar aspect of the MCP joint.Scaphoid Fracture:
Typically caused by a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand (FOOSH), scaphoid injuries present with tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain on axial compression of the thumb, tenderness over the scaphoid tubercle, or pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist.Simple Thumb Dislocation:
The thumb is bruised and swollen but not deformed. X-ray does not show any fracture or dislocation.Undisplaced Proximal Phalanx Fracture:
The X-ray shows no evidence of fracture. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his left hip, lumbar spine, and ribs, more recently associated with confusion, weakness, and falls. Routine investigations reveal low hemoglobin, high mean corpuscular volume, low white cell count, low platelets, high sodium, high urea, high creatinine, high corrected calcium, low PO42-, high alkaline phosphatase, and high erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Based on this presentation and blood results, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Confusion
A patient presents with bone pain, confusion, pancytopenia with macrocytosis, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, and an ESR >100 mm/hour. The most likely diagnosis is multiple myeloma, as lytic bone lesions are causing the pain and hypercalcaemia is causing the confusion. Further testing for myeloma should be done, including radiographs, urinary Bence-Jones proteins, and serum electrophoresis.
Other possible diagnoses include small cell carcinoma of the lung, but the pancytopenia and renal impairment make multiple myeloma more likely. Chronic myeloid leukaemia could also cause a raised white cell count, but fever and night sweats are more common symptoms. Hyperparathyroidism is unlikely due to the presence of pancytopenia, and myelofibrosis is a rare diagnosis that may also present with bone pain and pancytopenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman was assaulted with a cricket bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Nerves of the Upper Arm: Course and Vulnerability to Injury
The upper arm is innervated by several nerves, each with a distinct course and function. The radial nerve, formed from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, runs deep with the brachial artery and is at risk for injury during midshaft humeral fractures. It has both sensory and motor components, which can be tested separately. The axillary nerve, intimately related to the surgical neck of the humerus, is at risk in fractures of this area but not in midshaft humeral fractures. The ulnar nerve passes medially to the radial nerve and is not at risk in midshaft humeral fractures. The median nerve, more superficial than the radial nerve, has a distinct course and is less likely to be injured in midshaft humeral fractures. The musculocutaneous nerve, also more superficial than the radial nerve, has a distinct course and is less likely to be injured in midshaft humeral fractures. Understanding the course and vulnerability of these nerves is important in diagnosing and treating upper arm injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man of African descent, who was diagnosed with lupus nephritis 5 years ago, is admitted with complaints of pain in both groins that is radiating down to the thighs and buttocks. Movements around the hip are severely restricted and he has a limp while walking. The pain developed insidiously and has gradually worsened. There is no history of trauma. He is currently on 25 mg prednisone/day and cyclophosphamide. An X-ray of the pelvis and hips shows no abnormality.
What is the most likely cause of this hip pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroid-induced avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head
Explanation:Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head can be caused by chronic corticosteroid use or excessive alcohol consumption, with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) also being a risk factor. X-rays may not show changes until weeks later, so magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred diagnostic tool. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) is a disorder of the adolescent hip that occurs when the femoral head slips off in a backward direction due to a weakness in the growth plate. Septic arthritis of the hip due to immunosuppression will present with severe pain, joint tenderness, and swelling, and is unlikely to present bilaterally. Osteomalacia, which is characterized by decreased bone mineralization, can cause pathological fractures and diffuse bone pain. Steroid-induced osteoporosis, on the other hand, is characterized by osteopenia and an increased risk of fractures, and can be treated with bisphosphonates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying and holding her elbow. She had been playing on the monkey bars when she fell and landed on her outstretched arm. On examination, she is holding her elbow in slight flexion and the forearm is pronated. There is no obvious deformity or swelling over the elbow, but there is localised pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect. Radiographs are normal and there are no obvious fractures.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perform a closed reduction of a suspected radial head subluxation
Explanation:Closed Reduction of Radial Head Subluxation in Children: Procedure and Management
Subluxation of the radial head, commonly known as nursemaid’s elbow, is a common injury in children aged 2 to 5 years. It occurs when longitudinal traction is applied to an extended arm, causing subluxation of the radial head and interposition of the annular ligament into the radiocapitellar joint. The child typically presents with pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect of the elbow, holding the elbow in slight flexion and forearm pronation. Radiographs are usually negative, and the treatment of choice is a closed reduction of radial head subluxation.
The closed reduction procedure involves manually supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow past 90 degrees of flexion while holding the arm supinated. The doctor then applies pressure over the radial head with their thumb while maximally flexing the elbow. A palpable click is often heard on successful reduction. Another technique that can be attempted is hyperpronation of the forearm while in the flexed position.
It is important to reassure parents that there is no fracture and only simple analgesia and rest are required. Splinting and immobilisation are not necessary, and the child may immediately use the arm after reduction of the subluxation. There is no role for a bone scan or elbow arthroscopy in diagnosing or managing subluxation of the radial head.
In conclusion, closed reduction of radial head subluxation is a simple and effective procedure that can be performed in the clinic setting. With proper management and follow-up, children can quickly return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left shoulder. During the physical examination, he exhibits a positive belly press and lift-off test, as well as internal rotation weakness and heightened passive external rotation of the left arm.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subscapularis tear
Explanation:Rotator cuff injuries can cause pain during overhead activities and have specific physical exam findings. To test for a subscapularis tear, the patient is asked to internally rotate their arm against resistance while keeping their elbows at their side in 90 degrees of flexion. A positive lift-off test is when the patient is unable to lift their hand away from their back in internal rotation. The belly press test involves the patient pressing their abdomen with their palm while maintaining internal rotation of the shoulder. If the elbow drops back, it indicates deltoid recruitment and a positive test. The supraspinatus muscle is tested with Jobe’s test, which involves abducting the arm to 90 degrees, angled forward 30 degrees and internally rotated, then pressing down on the arm while the patient maintains position. A positive drop sign is when the patient cannot slowly lower their affected arm from a 90-degree position due to weakness or pain. A SLAP tear may be associated with rotator cuff tears and instability, and the O’Brien’s test can be used to diagnose it. The infraspinatus muscle is tested by external rotation when the arm is in neutral abduction/adduction, and the teres minor muscle is tested by external rotation with the arm held in 90 degrees of abduction. Hornblower’s sign is when the patient cannot hold their shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction and 90 degrees of external rotation and falls into internal rotation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the next step in the management of Mary, a 19-year-old army recruit who is experiencing bilateral anterior shin pain during her basic military training? Mary reports a diffuse pain along the middle of her shin with tenderness along the anterolateral surface of the tibia and pain on resisted dorsiflexion. Her pain is more severe at the beginning of exercise but decreases during training.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radiographs of bilateral tibia/fibula
Explanation:Tibial Stress Syndrome: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Tibial stress syndrome is a common overuse injury that affects the shin area. It is often seen in athletes and military recruits who engage in high-impact activities or over-train. The condition is caused by traction periostitis of either the tibialis anterior or tibialis posterior on the tibia.
Diagnosis of tibial stress syndrome involves obtaining basic radiographs to rule out any stress fractures or periosteal exostoses. If a stress fracture or other soft tissue injury is suspected, an MRI or bone scan may be indicated. However, ultrasound does not play a role in the imaging of tibial stress syndrome.
The first step in managing tibial stress syndrome is activity modification. This involves decreasing the intensity and frequency of exercise, engaging in low-impact activities, modifying footwear, and regularly stretching and strengthening the affected area. In most cases, these measures are successful in treating the condition.
In severe cases that have failed non-operative treatment, a deep posterior compartment fasciotomy and release of the painful portion of the periosteum may be indicated.
It is important to reassure the patient and advise them to rest and ice their shins after exercise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients with tibial stress syndrome can return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after he fell off his bike and landed on his arm. Upon examination, his arm is swollen and causing him pain. There are no visible breaks in the skin and no neurovascular deficits were detected. X-rays were taken and the child was diagnosed with an unstable displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction under anaesthesia pin fixation and application of a collar and cuff with the arm in flexion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Supracondylar Fracture of the Humerus in Children
A supracondylar fracture of the humerus is a common injury in children, typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. This type of fracture can cause pain, swelling, and resistance to arm examination. It is crucial to check and record the child’s neurovascular status, as a displaced fracture can compress or damage the brachial artery.
One treatment option for an unstable displaced fracture is reduction under anaesthesia and the insertion of pins to stabilise the fracture. After this procedure, the arm should be maintained in flexion with a collar and cuff, which acts as a natural splint. The degree of flexion should be determined by the presence of the radial pulse, and the child should be carefully observed for 24 hours after the operation to monitor for compartment syndrome.
While stabilisation is necessary after reduction, a below-elbow plaster is not appropriate for a supracondylar fracture. Instead, an above-elbow plaster or a collar and cuff is preferred. It is essential to choose the appropriate treatment option to minimise the risk of the fracture becoming displaced after reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on a wet kitchen floor and fell onto her outstretched hand. Her X-ray shows a fracture within 2.5 cm of the distal radius, with dorsal displacement of the distal segment and avulsion of the ulnar styloid.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colles’ fracture
Explanation:Common Fractures of the Wrist: Colles’, Smith’s, Barton’s, and Chauffeur’s Fractures
Fractures of the wrist are common injuries, with the most frequent being the Colles’ fracture. This type of fracture occurs within 2.5 cm of the wrist and is often seen in elderly women who suffer a fall onto an outstretched hand. The Colles’ fracture is characterized by dorsal displacement of the distal fragment, radial displacement of the hand, radial shortening due to impaction, and avulsion of the ulnar styloid. Treatment involves assessing the patient’s neurovascular status, followed by reduction and fixation of the fracture with a Colles’ plaster.
Another type of wrist fracture is the Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture with ventral displacement of the distal fragment. This injury often results from a fall onto the back of the hand. A Barton’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the distal radius with associated dorsal or volar subluxation of the distal fragment, similar to a Colles’ or reverse Colles’ fracture. Finally, a Chauffeur’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process.
In conclusion, wrist fractures are common injuries that can be classified into different types based on their location and displacement. Proper assessment and treatment are essential for optimal recovery and function of the affected wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher and mother of two presents with back pain. This started after lifting some heavy boxes during a move. The pain was initially limited to her lower back but now she has shooting pains radiating down the back of her thigh, the lateral aspect of her leg and into the lateral border of her left foot. The pain can wake her at night if she moves suddenly but does not otherwise disturb her sleep. She is well, without past medical history of note. She reports no lower limb weakness, disturbance of sphincter function, nor any saddle symptoms. Examination reveals a tender lumbar spine, numbness to the lateral border of the left foot and pain on straight leg raise at 40 degrees on the left. There is no limb weakness.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give analgesia and refer for physiotherapy, with a review after 8 weeks to consider onward referral to a spinal surgeon or musculoskeletal medicine specialist if no better
Explanation:Management of Sciatica: Analgesia and Referral for Physiotherapy
Sciatica, also known as lumbar radiculopathy, is a common condition caused by a herniated disc, spondylolisthesis, or spinal stenosis. It is characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness that typically extends from the buttocks down to the foot. Diagnosis is made through a positive straight leg raise test. Management involves analgesia and early referral to physiotherapy. Bed rest is not recommended, and patients should continue to stay active. Symptoms usually resolve within 6-8 weeks, but if they persist, referral to a specialist may be necessary for further investigation and management with corticosteroid injections or surgery. Red flag symptoms, such as major motor weakness, urinary/faecal incontinence, saddle anaesthesia, night pain, fever, systemic symptoms, weight loss, past history of cancer, or immunosuppression, require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who works in a factory presents with lower back pain. She says that she has had the pain for past two years and that it started gradually. The patient has no past medical history. There is no evidence or history of trauma. Upon examination the patient has normal power in the lower and upper limbs, and sensation is intact. She denies any fever or weight loss and has no significant family history. She is discharged with analgesia.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mobilisation
Explanation:Management of Lower Back Pain: Explained
Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. In managing lower back pain, it is important to identify the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s back pain is most likely mechanical in nature. Mobilisation has been shown to be effective in reducing back pain, and bed rest is not advised as it can worsen the pain and affect the patient’s daily activities. A lumbar X-ray is not necessary unless there is suspicion of a fracture. Referral to physiotherapy or alternative therapies may be considered if initial management is not effective. An MRI would be indicated if there are any ‘red flags’ in the history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her right femur. Fracture of the femoral neck may lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head as a result of the interruption of which artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral
Explanation:Arteries of the Lower Body: Functions and Importance
The lower body is supplied with blood by various arteries, each with its own specific function. The medial circumflex femoral artery, for instance, is responsible for providing blood to the femoral neck. However, in cases of femoral neck fractures, this artery may be ruptured, leading to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
The first perforating branch of the deep femoral artery, on the other hand, supplies the posterior compartment of the thigh, including the hamstrings. Meanwhile, the inferior epigastric artery, a branch of the external iliac artery, is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall.
The internal pudendal artery, on the other hand, is the primary source of blood to the perineum. Lastly, the lateral circumflex femoral artery supplies the lateral thigh and hip, although the primary supply to the head of the femur usually comes from the medial femoral circumflex. Understanding the functions and importance of these arteries is crucial in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to the lower body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The patient notes that she also has symptoms of numbness and tingling of her right hand and wrist, which seem to be worse at night, but improve when she hangs her arm down by the side of the bed. She has also had some difficulty gripping objects and finds it increasingly difficult opening bottles and jars. The clinician suspects that she may have carpal tunnel syndrome.
These clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome are due to compression of which structure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Related Nerves and Arteries
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, a canal located on the anterior side of the wrist. The tunnel is composed of carpal bones, with the flexor retinaculum forming its roof. The median nerve and tendons of flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus pass through this tunnel. Inflammation of the ulnar bursa sheath can compress the median nerve, leading to pain and weakness in the hand. However, the radial and ulnar arteries and nerves do not pass through the carpal tunnel. Compression of the radial or ulnar artery can result in ischaemic symptoms, while the ulnar nerve may become entrapped in the cubital tunnel, causing cubital tunnel syndrome. Understanding the anatomy and related conditions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of wrist and hand pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral bisphosphonates. She expresses concern about the potential side-effects of the medication.
What is the most frequent side-effect she may encounter?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophagitis
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent bone loss and treat conditions such as Paget’s disease, hypercalcaemia, and metastatic bone disease. However, they can cause side-effects such as oesophagitis, gastritis, and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Patients are advised to take bisphosphonates with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30-60 minutes after ingestion to reduce the risk of upper gastrointestinal symptoms. Other side-effects include fever, myalgias, and arthralgias, which are more common with intravenous bisphosphonate therapy. Hypercalcaemia is not a common side-effect, and bisphosphonates can actually help treat it. Atrial fibrillation and femoral shaft fractures are not commonly associated with bisphosphonate use, but osteonecrosis of the jaw is a rare but well-known side-effect that can be reduced with antibiotic prophylaxis before dental interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he sustained while playing basketball. Upon examination, you discover an anterior dislocation of his right shoulder. What pre- and post-relocation test must you perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Examine axillary nerve function in the affected arm
Explanation:Assessing Vascular and Nerve Injury in Anterior Shoulder Dislocation: Important Tests to Consider
When examining a patient with anterior shoulder dislocation, it is crucial to assess for vascular and nerve injury in the affected arm. One way to test nerve function is by assessing sensation in the regimental patch area over the deltoid muscle. An X-ray before and after relocation is necessary to check for fractures and confirm successful reduction. If there is vascular injury, it will be evident from the examination of the limb, and urgent referral to surgeons is required. Checking the brachial pulse is acceptable to assess for vascular injury, and examining axillary nerve function before and after relocation is mandatory. Ultrasound of the affected limb may be helpful in identifying soft tissue injuries, but it is not as crucial as the other tests mentioned. Overall, a thorough assessment of vascular and nerve function is essential in managing anterior shoulder dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with backache over the past 5 days, which did not respond to over-the-counter analgesics. Pain is increasing in the night and is constant. It is not subsiding with rest. There is no history of trauma. She is a known diabetic and hypertensive. She had an episode of deep vein thrombosis 1 month ago and was on heparin for 3 weeks. She had no children and her husband passed away a year ago. Her current medications include captopril, metformin, warfarin, atorvastatin and aspirin 375 mg. X-ray of the spine shows a fracture of C6 vertebra.
Which one of the following is the most likely underlying disease causing the fracture at this vertebral level?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary
Explanation:Distinguishing Causes of Vertebral Fractures: A Guide for Clinicians
When a patient presents with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the underlying cause. Fractures at or above the T4 level are suggestive of cancer, rather than osteoporosis. This is especially true if the patient has no known primary cancer, as it may be a case of metastatic carcinoma due to occult primary.
postmenopausal osteoporosis and heparin-induced osteoporosis typically do not cause fractures at or above T4. Instead, fractures below T4 are more commonly seen in osteoporosis. However, a higher fracture associated with thoracic back pain is a red flag feature that should be investigated further with imaging, such as an MRI spine, as cancer is suspected.
Statin-induced myopathy is another condition that can cause muscle pain and weakness, but it does not typically present with back pain or vertebral fractures. Similarly, renal osteodystrophy due to diabetic nephropathy can affect the spine, but this patient does not have chronic renal failure. If diabetic nephropathy is present, it may progress to renal failure, which can lead to renal osteodystrophy.
In summary, when evaluating a patient with thoracic back pain and a vertebral fracture, it is important to consider the location of the fracture and any other symptoms or risk factors. This can help clinicians distinguish between potential causes and guide appropriate diagnostic testing and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman injures her left hand and seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left anatomical snuffbox. Specialized scaphoid views (X-rays) are taken, but no abnormality is detected. However, there is still clinical suspicion of a fracture. What should be the next most suitable step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat scaphoid views in 10-14 days
Explanation:The Importance of Repeat Scaphoid Views in Suspected Fractures
When a scaphoid fracture is suspected but not visible on initial X-rays, it is recommended to repeat the radiographs in 10-14 days. During this time, bone resorption around the fracture occurs, making the diagnosis easier. However, proceeding without treatment is not advised due to the risk of avascular necrosis. Requesting another lateral view or a bone scan would not be appropriate. Instead, a cast is usually applied after the acute injury and remains in place until the fracture is diagnosed. MRI wrist imaging after only 3 days is not necessary in this setting. Repeat scaphoid views are crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department following a fall while decorating on a chair. She experienced intense pain in her hip immediately after the fall. X-rays show a fracture in the left neck of her femur. She has a history of seizures and takes topiramate. Her menstrual cycle is regular, and she is a non-smoker and non-vegetarian. She works as a landscaper. What is the probable cause of her fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic acidosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Chronic Acidosis and Pathological Fracture
Chronic acidosis can lead to defective bone mineralization and an osteomalacia-like state, which can cause pathological fractures. Topiramate, an antiepileptic and migraine prophylaxis drug, has been found to cause chronic metabolic acidosis through renal tubular acidosis. The type of RTA induced by topiramate is debated, but it is considered a mixed RTA with features of both types 1 and 2. Topiramate-induced osteopathy is a differential diagnosis for vitamin D deficiency, hereditary hypophosphatasia, and chronic bisphosphonate use.
In the case of a 36-year-old woman with a minor trauma resulting in a serious fracture, osteoporosis is unlikely, especially since there is no mention of drug intake like heparin, bisphosphonates, or steroids. Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition, but there is no mention of other features like bone pain or weakness, and her profession as an architect suggests substantial sunlight exposure. Multiple myeloma is also unlikely at this age, and there is no mention of other symptoms like renal failure or anemia. Therefore, the most likely cause of the pathological fracture is the chronic acidosis induced by topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman experiences severe lumbar back pain that radiates around to the waist after a coughing fit. She is not taking any medications and her clinical observations are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoporotic wedge fracture
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Back Pain in a 72-Year-Old Woman
Back pain is a common complaint in primary care, and its differential diagnosis can be challenging. In this case, a 72-year-old woman presents with back pain after a coughing fit. The following conditions are considered and ruled out based on the available information:
– Osteoporotic wedge fracture: postmenopausal women are at increased risk of osteoporosis, which can lead to vertebral fractures from minor trauma. This possibility should be considered in any older patient with back pain, especially if there is a history of osteoporosis or low-trauma injury.
– Herniated lumbar disc prolapse: This condition typically causes sciatica, which is pain that radiates down the leg to the ankle. The absence of this symptom makes it less likely.
– Mechanical back pain: This is a common cause of back pain, especially in older adults. It is usually aggravated by heavy lifting and prolonged standing or sitting, but not necessarily by coughing.
– Osteoarthritis: This condition can cause back pain, especially in the lower back, but it is not typically associated with coughing. It tends to worsen with activity and improve with rest.
– Osteomyelitis: This is a serious infection of the bone that can cause severe pain and fever. It is less likely in this case because the patient’s clinical observations are normal.In summary, the differential diagnosis for back pain in a 72-year-old woman includes several possibilities, such as osteoporotic fracture, herniated disc, mechanical pain, osteoarthritis, and osteomyelitis. A thorough history and physical examination, along with appropriate imaging and laboratory tests, can help narrow down the possibilities and guide the management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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