00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old carpet layer presented with acute pain and swelling affecting his left...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old carpet layer presented with acute pain and swelling affecting his left knee. There is no history of trauma. Past medical history includes haemochromatosis for which he receives regular venesection.
      Examination reveals a hot, tender, swollen left knee.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Knee aspirate: 12 000 white blood cells/ml (majority neutrophils); rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals. No growth on culture.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Knee Aspirate: Pseudogout, Gout, prepatellar Bursitis, Septic Arthritis, Osteoarthritis

      A knee aspirate was performed on a patient who presented with knee pain. The aspirate revealed positively birefringent calcium pyrophosphate crystals, indicating pseudogout. This condition is associated with haemochromatosis and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, corticosteroid injections, or short courses of oral corticosteroids. Colchicine may also be an option for some patients. Familial pyrophosphate arthropathy, a rare form of the condition, may be linked to mutations in genes related to inorganic phosphate transport.

      Gout is a differential diagnosis for this case, but the knee aspirate would reveal negatively birefringent crystals. prepatellar bursitis, a sterile condition not associated with crystals or raised white cell counts, can be ruled out. Septic arthritis would present with a systemic inflammatory response and rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals would not be present. Osteoarthritis is a chronic condition and would not present acutely, and joint aspirate would not show rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been complaining of severe anterior knee pain for a few days. On examination, you notice that the left knee is warm and there is swelling on the patella. There is local pain on patellar pressure and pain with knee flexion.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 185 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Knee aspirate: Gram stain negative for bacteria; fluid contains occasional white cells; culture is negative.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Pre–patellar bursitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Knee Conditions: A Case-Based Approach

      A patient presents with a red, tender, and inflamed knee. The differential diagnosis includes prepatellar bursitis, osteoarthritis, localised cellulitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.

      prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, carpet layer’s knee, or nun’s knee, is often caused by repetitive knee trauma. Treatment involves non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents and local corticosteroid injection. Septic bursitis requires appropriate antibiotic cover and drainage.

      Osteoarthritis is a diagnosis of exclusion and does not typically cause a red, tender, inflamed knee. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.

      Localised cellulitis may result in erythema but is unlikely to cause knee swelling. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely to present in men of this age and typically affects small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles.

      Gout can be diagnosed through the presence of negatively birefringent crystals seen on joint microscopy.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to differentiate between these knee conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency department. He has been experiencing a painful and swollen left knee for the past 24 hours. He denies any history of joint problems or trauma. Additionally, he has noticed redness and soreness in both eyes over the last two days. He is a non-smoker, married, and consumes about 10 units of alcohol weekly. He recently returned from a business trip to Amsterdam two weeks ago.

      During examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, and he has a brown macular rash on the soles of his feet. His left knee is hot, swollen, and tender to palpate, while no other joint appears to be affected.

      Investigations reveal Hb 129 g/L (130-180), WBC 14.0 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 75 mm/hr (0-15), Plasma sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Blood cultures without growth after 48 hours, and Urinalysis without blood, glucose, or protein detected. Knee x-ray shows soft tissue swelling around the left knee.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive Arthritis

      Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is typically characterized by a combination of three symptoms: urethritis, conjunctivitis, and seronegative arthritis. This type of arthritis usually affects the large weight-bearing joints, such as the knee and ankle, but not all three symptoms are always present in a patient. Reactive arthritis can be triggered by either a sexually transmitted infection or a dysenteric infection. One of the most notable signs of this condition is the appearance of a brown macular rash known as keratoderma blennorrhagica, which is usually seen on the palms and soles.

      The main treatment for reactive arthritis involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications can help to alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Additionally, antibiotics may be prescribed to individuals who have recently experienced a non-gonococcal venereal infection. This can help to reduce the likelihood of that person developing reactive arthritis. Overall, the symptoms and treatment options for reactive arthritis can help individuals to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with the doctor, the doctor observed a rash on both cheeks. A kidney biopsy sample showed deposits of immunoglobulin, C3, and fibrinogen in the basement membrane. Her serum analysis revealed elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that predominantly affects young women. It is characterized by a photosensitive butterfly-shaped rash on the face and joint manifestations. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, SLE does not cause severe destruction of joints. SLE is a multisystem condition that can affect many systems, including haematological, renal, respiratory, and cardiac systems. The underlying pathological mechanism of damage in SLE is immune complex deposition, which produces antibodies against several nuclear components of the body, especially against double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and dsDNA are associated with SLE, as is a low C3 and C4. The immunoglobulin, C3 and fibrinogen deposits found in this patient are classic of the immune complex deposition seen in SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her fingers and wrists. The pain has been gradually worsening over the past few months, and she is having difficulty opening jars at home. She reports that her fingers are stiff when she wakes up but gradually loosen throughout the morning.

      Upon examination, the GP notes symmetrical swelling of the MCP and PIP joints, which are tender to pressure and have stress pain on passive movement. The patient also has swan neck and boutonnière deformities of the fingers. The GP diagnoses the patient with rheumatoid arthritis and refers her to a rheumatologist. The GP prescribes anti-inflammatory medications and advises the patient to rest her fingers and wrists.

      What is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in a patient who is 63 years old?

      Your Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Ocular Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory polyarthropathy that primarily affects small joints, causing symmetrical joint tenderness and swelling. It is an autoimmune disease with genetic and environmental risk factors. RA can result in marked physical disability, and extra-articular features are more common in rheumatoid factor-positive patients with long-standing disease. Ocular manifestations of RA include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome, which is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation. Scleromalacia perforans, a thinning of the sclera, is associated with RA but presents less often than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Episcleritis and scleritis are also associated with RA but are less common than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Orbital apex syndrome may involve the optic nerve, causing a palsy, but this is very rare. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these ocular manifestations and monitor patients with RA for any changes in their vision or eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past one week. She also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months. She feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone in weight.

      She is noted to have a purpuric rash over her feet. Chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the left lung base.

      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 100 g/L (115-165)

      White cell count 19.9 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400)

      Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28)

      Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49)

      Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22)

      Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105)

      Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (1-31)

      Arterial blood gases on air:

      pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44)

      pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)

      pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)

      ECG Sinus tachycardia

      Chest x ray Shadow in left lower lobe

      Urinalysis:

      Blood +++

      Protein ++

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's disease

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

      In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.

      When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis due to upper respiratory tract involvement. Goodpasture’s disease is less likely because it does not cause a rash. In particular, 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. Conversely, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase, are non-specific, and are detected in various autoimmune disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for the treatment of her rheumatoid arthritis. She is informed that she will require frequent liver checks and eye exams due to the potential side-effects of these medications. What is the most probable combination of treatment she will receive for her condition?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate plus hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Medication Combinations for Treating Rheumatoid Arthritis

      When treating rheumatoid arthritis, the first-line medication is a DMARD monotherapy with methotrexate. Short-term steroids may also be used in combination with DMARD monotherapy to induce remission. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used, but patients should be closely monitored for visual changes as retinopathy and corneal deposits are common side effects.

      Etanercept is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, and methotrexate should not be given in combination with a TNF-alpha inhibitor like etanercept. Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine is an appropriate medication combination for treating rheumatoid arthritis, but regular eye checks are not required as neither medication affects vision.

      If a patient has failed treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine may be a regimen to consider trialling. However, it is important to note that new-onset rheumatoid arthritis should be treated with a DMARD monotherapy first line, with the addition of another DMARD like methotrexate as the first-line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor's office, reporting a recent onset of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor's office, reporting a recent onset of a red, swollen, and hot great left toe. He denies any injury to the toe and has a medical history of hypertension, which is being treated with a single medication. The doctor suspects acute gout as the diagnosis.
      What medication is most likely responsible for triggering the acute gout?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gout and its Causes: A Review of Medications and Differential Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the joint. This article reviews the causes of gout, which can be primary or secondary hyperuricaemia. Secondary hyperuricaemia can be caused by overproduction or decreased renal excretion, including the use of thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide. The differential diagnosis for an acute red, hot swollen joint includes septic arthritis, gout, pseudogout, inflammatory monoarthritis, and post-traumatic causes. Treatment for gout includes medications for chronic and acute gout, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, colchicine, or prednisolone. This article also discusses the effects of medications like colchicine, propranolol, lisinopril, and moxonidine on gout and other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back pain and painful urination. He had visited his GP two days earlier for eye problems. The patient's mother has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and he also reported experiencing pain in his ankle. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is a type of arthropathy that is seronegative and has a positive HLA-B27. It typically presents with arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, with the knee and sacroiliac joints being the most commonly affected. Enthesitis and mucocutaneous lesions may also be present. Reactive arthritis is often triggered by a previous infection, such as Salmonella, Campylobacter, or Shigella.

      Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with the distal interphalangeal joints being the most commonly affected.

      Osteoarthritis primarily affects articular cartilage, with the knee joint being the most commonly affected. It typically occurs after the age of 50 and is characterized by minimal morning stiffness, bony tenderness, bony enlargement, and crepitus on active motion. Systemic manifestations are not present in osteoarthritis, and it is more common in females, those who have experienced joint trauma, and those who are obese.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the axial skeleton and is more common in men. It is characterized by chronic lower back pain, morning stiffness lasting at least 1 hour, and improvement with exercise. Extra-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis include anterior uveitis, aortic insufficiency, enthesitis, and restrictive lung disease.

      Enteropathic arthropathy is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can become severe during flares of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy? ...

    Correct

    • What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?

      Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Heberden’s Nodules

      Heberden’s nodules are bony growths that form around the joints at the end of the fingers. These nodules are most commonly found on the second and third fingers and are caused by calcification of the cartilage in the joint. This condition is often associated with osteoarthritis and is more common in women. Heberden’s nodules typically develop in middle age.

      Overall, Heberden’s nodules can be a painful and uncomfortable condition for those who experience them. However, the causes and symptoms of this condition can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their symptoms effectively. With proper care and attention, it is possible to minimize the impact of Heberden’s nodules on daily life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      4.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (8/10) 80%
Passmed