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Question 1
Correct
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What ethical perspective are both teenagers employing when discussing the potential impact of assisting a patient in dying on the public's trust in doctors?
Your Answer: Utilitarian
Explanation:The two main ethical approaches in philosophy are teleological ethics, which focuses on the end result, and deontological ethics, which focuses on an individual’s actions being morally right regardless of the end result. In medicine, deontology is patient-centered, while utilitarianism is society-centered. Deontological ethics judges the moral status of actions according to rules of principles, such as the duty not to harm the patient versus the duty to help them. Kantian ethics is a strict form of deontological ethics that emphasizes behaving as though one’s behavior is creating a universal ethical rule. Utilitarianism is a teleological approach that prioritizes the action that leads to the greatest happiness of the greatest number, regardless of how it is brought about. In medicine, autonomy is one of four ethical principles, along with beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice, that enable patients to choose their own treatment and ensure fairness and equality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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What is a true statement about 'working memory'?
Your Answer: Its capacity increases with age during childhood
Explanation:Throughout childhood, there is an increase in working memory capacity. Additionally, research has demonstrated that working memory performance can be enhanced, particularly in individuals with ADHD.
Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the current and official version of the Declaration of Helsinki that researchers should cite and use?
Your Answer: Seventh revision 2013
Explanation:The Declaration of Helsinki is a set of ethical principles for human experimentation and research, established by the World Medical Association. It is their most well-known policy statement and has been amended six times since its adoption in 1964. The most recent version was adopted at the 64th General Assembly in Fortaleza, Brazil, in October 2013 and is the only official version. Previous versions should not be used of referenced, except for historical purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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In the basal ganglia, what structures make up the lenticular nucleus, including the globus pallidus and which other component?
Your Answer: Putamen
Explanation:Located in the epithalamus at the center of the brain, the pineal gland is an endocrine gland. The basal ganglia, also known as basal nuclei, consist of four primary components: the caudate, nucleus accumbens, putamen, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, and substantia nigra. The lenticular (of lentiform) nucleus is formed by the globus pallidus and putamen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Correct
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What are the eosinophilic inclusion bodies observed in Alzheimer's Disease?
Your Answer: Hirano bodies
Explanation:Pathology Findings in Psychiatry
There are several pathology findings that are associated with various psychiatric conditions. Papp-Lantos bodies, for example, are visible in the CNS and are associated with multisystem atrophy. Pick bodies, on the other hand, are large, dark-staining aggregates of proteins in neurological tissue and are associated with frontotemporal dementia.
Lewy bodies are another common pathology finding in psychiatry and are associated with Parkinson’s disease and Lewy Body dementia. These are round, concentrically laminated, pale eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are aggregates of alpha-synuclein.
Other pathology findings include asteroid bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are acidophilic, stellate inclusions in giant cells. Barr bodies are associated with stains of X chromosomes and are inactivated X chromosomes that appear as a dark staining mass in contact with the nuclear membrane.
Mallory bodies are another common pathology finding and are associated with alcoholic hepatitis, alcoholic cirrhosis, Wilson’s disease, and primary-biliary cirrhosis. These are eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions in hepatocytes that are made up of intermediate filaments, predominantly prekeratin.
Other pathology findings include Schaumann bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are concentrically laminated inclusions in giant cells. Zebra bodies are associated with Niemann-Pick disease, Tay-Sachs disease, of any of the mucopolysaccharidoses and are palisaded lamellated membranous cytoplasmic bodies seen in macrophages.
LE bodies, also known as hematoxylin bodies, are associated with SLE (lupus) and are nuclei of damaged cells with bound anti-nuclear antibodies that become homogeneous and loose chromatin pattern. Verocay bodies are associated with Schwannoma (Neurilemoma) and are palisades of nuclei at the end of a fibrillar bundle.
Hirano bodies are associated with normal aging but are more numerous in Alzheimer’s disease. These are eosinophilic, football-shaped inclusions seen in neurons of the brain. Neurofibrillary tangles are another common pathology finding in Alzheimer’s disease and are made up of microtubule-associated proteins and neurofilaments.
Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with Wilson’s disease and are rings of discoloration on the cornea. Finally, Kuru plaques are associated with Kuru and Gerstmann-Sträussler syndrome and are sometimes present in patients with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). These are composed partly of a host-encoded prion protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 6
Correct
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What was the initial antipsychotic to be created?
Your Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Paul Charpentier synthesized the antipsychotic chlorpromazine in 1951, which led to the creation of additional phenothiazines and related compounds like thioxanthenes (flupentixol). Later on, alternative structures were discovered, such as butyrophenones (haloperidol), diphenylbutylpiperidine (Pimozide), and substituted benzamides (Sulpiride).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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In his influential theory of psychiatric classification (1953), Lewis emphasized which method of diagnosis?
Your Answer: Multiaxial formulation
Correct Answer: Disturbance of part functions
Explanation:Lewis’ Views on Mental Illness Diagnosis
Lewis believed that mental illness could be understood by examining the disturbance of part functions of the brain, such as emotion, perception, and memory, as well as a reduction in general efficiency. However, he cautioned against using socially deviant behavior as a means of diagnosis. Instead, he advocated for a multi-axial formulation approach, which was first proposed by Essen-Möller in 1947. Lewis also warned against relying on response to psychotropic medication as a reliable method of diagnosis. Overall, Lewis emphasized the importance of a comprehensive and nuanced approach to diagnosing mental illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Correct
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What is the primary mechanism of action of Valdoxan (agomelatine), an antidepressant?
Your Answer: Melatonin (MT) receptor agonism
Explanation:Agomelatine (Valdoxan) is a novel antidepressant that functions as an agonist at both MT1 and MT2 receptors, while also acting as a 5HT2C antagonist. Unlike most other antidepressants, it does not affect monoamine uptake.
First-generation antipsychotics work by antagonizing D2 receptors.
Benzodiazepines exert their effects by potentiating GABA.
Noradrenaline reuptake inhibition is a common mechanism of action for many antidepressants, including SNRIs and tricyclics.
SSRI (and other) antidepressants function by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a history of partial seizures is prescribed a second anticonvulsant due to inadequate control with his current medication. However, he experiences concentric visual field loss as a side effect. Which anticonvulsant is most likely responsible for this adverse reaction?
Your Answer: Vigabatrin
Explanation:Vigabatrin is known to cause visual field constriction in approximately 30% of its users. Although the majority of cases are asymptomatic, as the drug primarily affects peripheral fields and not central visual acuity, the effects are typically irreversible of only partially reversible after discontinuation of the medication. Patients who are over the age of 10 and are prescribed vigabatrin should undergo baseline threshold visual field testing and follow-up every six months. It is important for patients to report any new vision problems, such as blurring, double vision, of signs of peripheral vision impairment. Vigabatrin is only recommended for specialist use and is indicated for epilepsy that is not adequately controlled by other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What are some characteristics that can be observed in children during Piaget's preoperational stage of development?
Your Answer: Syllogistic reasoning
Correct Answer: Semiotic function
Explanation:Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts
Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.
The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.
The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.
The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.
Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.
Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of these is not a typical symptom of epilepsy in the temporal lobe?
Your Answer: Complex partial seizure
Correct Answer: Visual aura
Explanation:– Visual aura is not expected in temporal lobe epilepsy
– Visual aura may occur in occipital seizures
– Temporal lobe epilepsy is characterized by automatisms, altered consciousness, déjà vu, complex partial seizures, and olfactory hallucinations
– Occipital epilepsy can cause visual phenomena and headaches
– Occipital epilepsy should be differentiated from migraine -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 12
Correct
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With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated?
Your Answer: Attachment theory
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the term used to describe an intense and brief emotional reaction to a minor trigger?
Your Answer: Emotional lability
Explanation:Understanding Emotional Lability
Emotional lability is a condition characterized by an excessive and brief emotional response to a minor stimulus. It is a common symptom of various neurological and psychiatric disorders, including traumatic brain injury, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, bipolar disorder, and borderline personality disorder. People with emotional lability may experience sudden and intense mood swings, such as crying, laughing, anger, of irritability, that are out of proportion to the situation.
One of the most challenging aspects of emotional lability is the lack of control over one’s emotions. Pathological crying of laughing is a common manifestation of emotional lability, where a person may burst into tears of laughter without any apparent reason of context. This can be embarrassing, distressing, and socially isolating, as it may be perceived as a sign of weakness, instability, of immaturity.
Treatment for emotional lability depends on the underlying cause and severity of the symptoms. In some cases, medication, such as antidepressants, antipsychotics, of mood stabilizers, may be prescribed to regulate the mood and reduce the frequency and intensity of emotional outbursts. Psychotherapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy of dialectical behavior therapy, can also help individuals with emotional lability to develop coping skills, emotional regulation strategies, and interpersonal communication skills.
It is important to note that emotional lability is not a character flaw of a personal weakness, but a medical condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. Seeking professional help from a qualified healthcare provider can help individuals with emotional lability to improve their quality of life, enhance their relationships, and regain their emotional stability and resilience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following lower brain structures can cause either decreased or increased appetite when damaged?
Your Answer: Amygdala
Correct Answer: Hypothalamus
Explanation:Hunger and thirst are regulated by the hypothalamus, while emotional responses and perceptions of others’ emotions are controlled by the amygdala. The brainstem is responsible for arousal, while the cerebellum controls voluntary movement and balance. The medulla, on the other hand, controls breathing and heartbeat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A teenager, whose father died in car accident 4 months ago, expresses that he is feeling down, he is hesitant to ride in cars, and he perceives his father in his house at night despite knowing that this encounter is not genuine. What type of grief is indicated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal grief
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A person who struggles with reproducing intersecting pentagons on the MMSE at an older age is likely to experience difficulties with which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non dominant parietal lobe
Explanation:The inability to accurately replicate intersecting pentagons may indicate a constructional apraxia, which is a symptom of non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction.
Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms
The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.
Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.
Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.
In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In 1908, Bleuler coined the term schizophrenia. What is the exact definition of the term schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Split mind
Explanation:In 1908, during the yearly gathering of the German Psychiatric Association in Berlin, Bleuler proposed the term schizophrenia as a more suitable replacement for Kraepelin dementia praecox. Bleuler’s reasoning was that the term schizophrenia better captured the idea of a division of fragmentation in mental functioning. Additionally, he believed that the term could be more effectively used as an adjective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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On which chromosome are the DYX1 loci located, as identified by genetic studies related to dyslexia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromosome 15
Explanation:Genetic Basis of Dyslexia
Dyslexia is a learning disorder that has a significant genetic component, with heritability estimated to be between 54% and 84%. Recent studies have identified nine specific genetic loci associated with dyslexia, labeled as DYX1 to DYX9. These loci are located on various chromosomes, with DYX1 on chromosome 15 at location 15q21.3, DYX2 and DYX4 on chromosome 6, DYX3 on chromosome 2, DYX5 on chromosome 3, DYX6 on chromosome 18, DYX7 on chromosome 11, DYX8 on chromosome 1, and DYX9 on Xq27.3. These findings provide important insights into the genetic basis of dyslexia and may lead to improved diagnosis and treatment options in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the recommended duration of treatment for patients with schizophrenia who are starting on an antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1-2 years
Explanation:Schizophrenia and Duration of Treatment
The NICE guidelines do not provide a specific recommendation on the duration of treatment for schizophrenia. However, they do caution patients about the risks of stopping medication.
According to the guidelines, patients should be informed that there is a high risk of relapse if they stop taking their medication within the next 1-2 years. This suggests that long-term treatment may be necessary to manage symptoms and prevent relapse. It is important for patients to understand the potential consequences of stopping medication and to work closely with their healthcare provider to develop a treatment plan that meets their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blocks 5HT2A, 5HT2C and 5HT3 serotonin receptors
Explanation:Duloxetine boosts serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine levels by functioning as a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). On the other hand, Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and specific serotonergic agent (NaSSA) that acts as an alpha 2 antagonist, increasing serotonin and norepinephrine levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the most probable cause of medial temporal lobe atrophy on structural neuroimaging in an elderly individual with cognitive decline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's dementia
Explanation:Medial temporal lobe atrophy (MTA) is prevalent in 80% to 90% of individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer’s dementia, and can also be present in other forms of dementia, albeit less frequently and severely. MTA is an early and relatively reliable indicator of Alzheimer’s disease, although it is not exclusive to this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In what region of the brain is the dentate gyrus located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe
Explanation:The hippocampal formation includes the dentate gyrus, which is located in the medial temporal lobe. The cerebrum, which is the largest part of the brain, is divided into four lobes: frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital. The frontal lobe is situated at the front of the cerebrum, while the temporal lobes are on the sides, the parietal lobe is on the top, and the occipital lobe is at the back.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological Examination
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not describe a typical trait of narcolepsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anosognosia
Explanation:Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hallucinations during sleep onset of awakening. While hypnagogic hallucinations have been traditionally linked to narcolepsy, both hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations can occur.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which scales require evaluation by a healthcare professional?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hamilton anxiety rating scale
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A child with a learning disability is observed to have prominent ears and a stretched-out face. They seem extremely timid and exhibit minimal eye contact. What trinucleotide repeats do you anticipate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CGG
Explanation:Fragile X is a genetic syndrome that results in mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and enlarged testicles (in males). Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, have difficulty making eye contact, and struggle with reading facial expressions. They may also exhibit stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. The cause of fragile X is a mutation in the FMR1 gene, which is crucial for neural development and functioning. This gene is located at Xq27, and in individuals with fragile X, there are excessive trinucleotide repeats (CGG) at this gene. Similar to other trinucleotide repeat disorders (such as Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, and spinocerebellar ataxia), the severity of the condition increases with the number of repeats.
Trinucleotide Repeat Disorders: Understanding the Genetic Basis
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that arise due to the abnormal presence of an expanded sequence of trinucleotide repeats. These disorders are characterized by the phenomenon of anticipation, which refers to the amplification of the number of repeats over successive generations. This leads to an earlier onset and often a more severe form of the disease.
The table below lists the trinucleotide repeat disorders and the specific repeat sequences involved in each condition:
Condition Repeat Sequence Involved
Fragile X Syndrome CGG
Myotonic Dystrophy CTG
Huntington’s Disease CAG
Friedreich’s Ataxia GAA
Spinocerebellar Ataxia CAGThe mutations responsible for trinucleotide repeat disorders are referred to as ‘dynamic’ mutations. This is because the number of repeats can change over time, leading to a range of clinical presentations. Understanding the genetic basis of these disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis, genetic counseling, and the development of effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is referred by their GP to the psychiatric out-patient clinic. The GP feels that they have depression, and reports that they smoke 50 per day. When you see them you notice that their left eyelid is drooping, and that the drooping becomes more pronounced on sustained upgaze. The pupils appear normal. On further questioning the patient reports intermittent double vision. Which of the following do you most suspect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:The presence of fluctuating double vision and ptosis are characteristic symptoms of extraocular muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. The Simpson test, which involves observing fatigue during sustained lid and eye elevation, is also indicative of myasthenia. Unlike myotonic dystrophy, ptosis in myasthenia gravis worsens with sustained upgaze and is typically unilateral. Additionally, the absence of abnormal pupil size suggests that conditions such as Horner’s syndrome, diabetes-related III nerve palsy, and Pancoast tumor are not present.
Myasthenia Gravis and Psychiatric Disorders
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that results from the binding of circulating antibodies to acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. This condition is characterized by weakness and fatigue, which typically starts in the extraocular muscles, leading to ptosis and diplopia. However, in addition to these physical symptoms, psychiatric disorders are also common in patients with myasthenia gravis.
Depressive and anxiety disorders are the most frequently reported psychiatric conditions in individuals with myasthenia gravis. These disorders can significantly impact the quality of life of patients, and may even worsen the physical symptoms of the disease. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for psychiatric comorbidities in patients with myasthenia gravis and to provide appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is a licensed treatment for PTSD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:While NICE recommends mirtazapine for the treatment of PTSD, its license only permits its use for major depression.
Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)
The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.
– Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
– Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
– Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
– Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
– Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
– Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
– OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
– Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
– PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is a subset of the WAIS that measures perceptual reasoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Block Design
Explanation:The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Memantine is an NMDA antagonist
Explanation:Due to its extended half-life, Donepezil is administered once daily and functions as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following pairs of acronyms is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: YMRS - Yates Mental Retardation scale
Explanation:The acronym YMRS stands for the Young Mania Rating Scale.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 31
Incorrect
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During what time frame is social smiling typically observed in child development?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6-8 weeks
Explanation:The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants
Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.
Child Development Milestones:
4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
6 weeks Begins social smiling*
3 months Holds head steady on sitting
6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
5 years Copies a triangle, skips -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of developing Alzheimer's disease (AD) in an individual with one copy of the apoE4 allele compared to those without any copies of the allele?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Three times higher (odds ratio = 3)
Explanation:First degree relatives of patients with Alzheimer’s disease (AD) have a threefold higher risk of developing the disease compared to non-relatives. The most significant genetic risk factor for AD is the apolipoprotein E (apo E) gene, located on chromosome 19q, which has three codominant alleles: e2, e3, and e4. The e4 allele, which is overrepresented, and the e2 allele, which is underrepresented, are associated with AD. In Caucasians, individuals who are homozygous for e4 have 14.9 times greater odds of developing AD, while those who are heterozygous for e3/e4 have 3.2 times greater odds compared to those who are homozygous for e3. Additionally, e4 homozygotes tend to develop AD at an earlier age, by approximately two decades.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the pharmacokinetics during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The glomerular filtration rate increases during pregnancy
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are significant changes in maternal physiology that can affect the pharmacokinetics of drugs. These changes are most pronounced in the third trimester. One of the most notable changes is an increase in plasma volume, which can lead to haemodilution and a decrease in the concentration of plasma albumin. As a result, the total plasma concentrations of albumin-bound drugs may decrease during pregnancy. Additionally, lipophilic drugs may have an increased volume of distribution due to the increase in plasma volume.
Progesterone levels are also elevated during pregnancy, which can lead to delayed gastric emptying and reduced small intestine motility. This may affect the absorption of drugs, but the overall impact on bioavailability is likely to be relatively small.
The activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes can also change during pregnancy. Estrogens and progesterone can induce some CYP enzymes and inhibit others, leading to altered drug metabolism.
Finally, renal blood flow and the glomerular filtration rate increase during pregnancy, which can enhance the elimination of some drugs. The GFR can increase by up to 50% during pregnancy. These changes in pharmacokinetics during pregnancy must be taken into account when prescribing drugs to pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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From which amino acid is noradrenaline (norepinephrine) derived?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tyrosine
Explanation:Catecholamines are a group of chemical compounds that have a distinct structure consisting of a benzene ring with two hydroxyl groups, an intermediate ethyl chain, and a terminal amine group. These compounds play an important role in the body and are involved in various physiological processes. The three main catecholamines found in the body are dopamine, adrenaline, and noradrenaline. All of these compounds are derived from the amino acid tyrosine. Overall, catecholamines are essential for maintaining proper bodily functions and are involved in a wide range of physiological processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What drug works by increasing the release of dopamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amphetamine
Explanation:Amphetamine induces the direct release of dopamine by stimulating it, while also causing the internalization of dopamine transporters from the cell surface. In contrast, cocaine only blocks dopamine transporters and does not induce dopamine release.
Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What parenting style is most likely to result in children who are both happy and successful?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Authoritative
Explanation:Parenting Styles
In the 1960s, psychologist Diana Baumrind conducted a study on over 100 preschool-age children and identified four important dimensions of parenting: disciplinary strategies, warmth and nurturance, communication styles, and expectations of maturity and control. Based on these dimensions, she suggested that most parents fall into one of three parenting styles, with a fourth category added later by Maccoby and Martin.
Authoritarian parenting is characterized by strict rules and punishment for noncompliance, with little explanation given for the rules. These parents prioritize status and obedience over nurturing their children. This style tends to result in obedient and proficient children, but they may rank lower in happiness, social competence, and self-esteem.
Authoritative parents are similar to authoritarian parents, but they tend to be more responsive to their children. They set strict rules but provide explanations for them and nurture their children when they fail to meet expectations. The focus is on setting standards while also being supportive. This style tends to result in happy, capable, and successful children.
Permissive parents rarely discipline their children and avoid confrontation, allowing their children to self-regulate. They prefer to take on the role of a friend rather than a disciplinarian. This style often results in children who rank low in happiness and self-regulation, experience problems with authority, and perform poorly in school.
Uninvolved parenting is characterized by little involvement and few demands. This style ranks lowest across all life domains, with children lacking self-control, having low self-esteem, and being less competent than their peers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about dopamine receptors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activation of D1 receptors activates adenylyl cyclase
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which brain structure is located next to Broca's and Wernicke's areas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sylvian sulcus
Explanation:Understanding the sylvian (lateral) sulcus is crucial in comprehending the perisylvian language area and distinguishing between perisylvian and extrasylvian types of aphasias.
Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 35 year old woman, with a history of severe depression, who has just given birth asks for your opinion on the safety of continuing her antidepressant medication while breastfeeding. She is currently taking sertraline 25 mg daily. What advice should you give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment of maternal illness is the highest priority
Explanation:Although there is a potential risk of infants being exposed to antidepressants through breast milk, leaving mental illness untreated can pose greater risks. The safety of psychotropic medication during breastfeeding is not well-established. Nonetheless, sertraline is considered one of the safest antidepressants for breastfeeding mothers as it is excreted in low levels. Therefore, if treatment is necessary, sertraline is a suitable option for breastfeeding mothers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What is the primary role of the proteasome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To degrade cellular proteins
Explanation:Nissl substance is composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum with free ribosomes and is responsible for synthesizing proteins. The Golgi apparatus modifies, organizes, and packages macromolecules for either secretion of internal use. Mitochondria are involved in producing energy for the cell. Microfilaments and microtubules provide structural support and aid in transportation within the cell. Lysosomes are spherical structures that contain digestive enzymes, which break down cellular waste and protect against threats such as viruses.
The Function of Proteasomes in Protein Degradation
Proteasomes play a crucial role in breaking down proteins that are produced within the cell. These cylindrical complexes are present in both the nucleus and cytoplasm of the cell. The process of protein degradation involves the tagging of proteins with a small protein called ubiquitin. The proteasome consists of a core structure made up of four stacked rings surrounding a central pore. Each ring is composed of seven individual proteins. This structure allows for the efficient degradation of proteins, ensuring that the cell can maintain proper protein levels and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male patient with a history of hallucinations and delusions was started on multiple medications by a psychiatrist. However, on the second day of treatment, he developed excessive sweating, fever, agitation, and aggressive behavior. The psychiatrist continued with the medications, which were eventually stopped after 4 days. Over the next few days, the patient's condition worsened, and he developed diarrhea and sustained high-grade fever. He was transferred to a hospital, where he was found to have hypertonia in all four limbs, mainly in the lower extremities, and hyper-reflexia, including bilateral sustained ankle clonus.
These signs and symptoms are most helpful in distinguishing between serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyper-reflexia
Explanation:Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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What is the most probable reason for the mixed martial artist's motivation to become a champion despite experiencing humiliation from his father as a child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:The man’s mother’s stance against violence prevented him from acting aggressively towards his father. Instead, he found an outlet for his aggression through martial arts, which was deemed socially acceptable. His success as a champion suggests that he sublimated his aggression into a positive pursuit, rather than displacing it onto others, which is a less mature defense mechanism. There is no indication that he repressed his feelings towards his father, as he was able to channel his aggression in a constructive manner.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 43
Incorrect
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What structure is situated in the middle cranial fossa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen lacerum
Explanation:The foramen lacerum is a opening located in the middle cranial fossa at the base of the skull.
Cranial Fossae and Foramina
The cranium is divided into three regions known as fossae, each housing different cranial lobes. The anterior cranial fossa contains the frontal lobes and includes the frontal and ethmoid bones, as well as the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The middle cranial fossa contains the temporal lobes and includes the greater wing of the sphenoid, sella turcica, and most of the temporal bones. The posterior cranial fossa contains the occipital lobes, cerebellum, and medulla and includes the occipital bone.
There are several foramina in the skull that allow for the passage of various structures. The most important foramina likely to appear in exams are listed below:
– Foramen spinosum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the middle meningeal artery.
– Foramen ovale: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
– Foramen lacerum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the small meningeal branches of the ascending pharyngeal artery and emissary veins from the cavernous sinus.
– Foramen magnum: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of the spinal cord.
– Jugular foramen: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI.Understanding the location and function of these foramina is essential for medical professionals, as they play a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A patient in her 60s with psoriasis has observed that her condition has deteriorated since commencing a new medication. What factor would you suspect to be the most likely cause of exacerbating her psoriasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Medications that can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms include:
– Lithium
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
– Beta blockers
– Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitorsLithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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What strategies can be used to distinguish between normal grief and major depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised guilt
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A teenage girl in the waiting room seems uneasy and confused. When questioned, she expresses that she senses that something is happening but is unsure of what it could be. She feels anxious and anticipates finding out soon.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional mood/atmosphere
Explanation:Typically, when a delusion arises, the patient feels a sense of relief from the preceding anxiety and tension. The delusional atmosphere is the perception that something is amiss, while the delusional mood refers to the accompanying feelings of anxiety and tension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 47
Incorrect
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What aspect of memory is typically impacted in individuals experiencing difficulties with procedural memory?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation:Memory Forms
Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.
Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).
Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.
Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).
Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which antidepressant is known for having a lower occurrence of sexual dysfunction as a side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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At what percentage of occupancy of striatal D2 receptors is the risk of extrapyramidal side-effects expected to increase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80%
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) as an assessment tool for depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Includes questions about thoughts of self-harm
Explanation:Depression screening can be done using two questions that ask about feeling down, depressed, of hopeless and having little interest of pleasure in doing things. A ‘yes’ answer to either question prompts a more in-depth assessment using tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale of the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9). The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, while the PHQ-9 asks about 9 problems over the last 2 weeks. NICE grades depression into ‘less severe’ and ‘more severe’ based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and >16, respectively. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold and mild to moderate and severe. It is important to assess depression severity to determine appropriate treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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