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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man is referred to a Rapid Access Neurology Service due to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is referred to a Rapid Access Neurology Service due to severe headache. He gives a history of recurrent rapid-onset severe right-sided headache and eye pain. It sometimes wakes him up at night. He claims the eye itself becomes watery and red during the periods of pain. He also claims that side of his face feels hot and painful during episodes. They normally last 60 minutes. However, he says they can be shorter or longer. There is no significant medical history. He is a smoker. He is pain-free during the consultation and examination is non-contributory.
      Which of the following is most likely to be of value in relieving pain?

      Your Answer: Oxygen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cluster Headaches and Treatment Options

      Cluster headaches are a rare and severe form of headache with an unknown cause, although it is believed to be related to serotonin hyperreactivity in the superficial temporal artery smooth muscle and an autosomal dominant gene. They are more common in young male smokers but can affect any age group. Symptoms include sudden onset of severe unilateral headache, pain around one eye, watery and bloodshot eye, lid swelling, facial flushing, and more. Attacks can occur 1-2 times a day and last 15 minutes to 2 hours. Treatment options include high-flow 100% oxygen, subcutaneous sumatriptan, and verapamil or topiramate for prevention. Other treatments, such as amitriptyline for trigeminal neuralgia or high-dose prednisolone for giant cell arthritis, are not appropriate for cluster headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the definition of Nissl bodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of Nissl bodies?

      Your Answer: The neurone's Golgi apparatus

      Correct Answer: Granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      Nissl Bodies: Stacks of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

      Nissl bodies are named after the German neurologist Franz Nissl and are found in neurones following a selective staining method known as Nissl staining. These bodies are composed of stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum and are a major site of neurotransmitter synthesis, particularly acetylcholine, in the neurone. Therefore, the correct answer is that Nissl bodies are granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum. It is important to note that the other answer options are incorrect as they refer to entirely different organelles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of facial pain and diplopia. Clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of facial pain and diplopia. Clinical examination reveals CN III, CN IV and CN VI palsies, a Horner’s syndrome, and facial sensory loss in the distribution of the V1 (ophthalmic) and V2 (maxillary) divisions of the trigeminal cranial nerve.
      Where is the causative abnormality located?

      Your Answer: Meckel’s cave

      Correct Answer: Cavernous sinus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Cranial Nerves and the Cavernous Sinus

      The cavernous sinus is a crucial location for several cranial nerves and blood vessels. Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, as well as the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) divisions of the V cranial nerve, pass through the cavernous sinus with the internal carotid artery. The V2 division of the trigeminal nerve exits via the foramen rotundum, while the rest of the cranial nerves enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure.

      Damage to these nerves can result in ophthalmoplegia, facial pain, and sensory loss. Involvement of sympathetic nerves around the internal carotid artery can lead to Horner’s syndrome. Tolosa Hunt syndrome is an idiopathic inflammatory process that affects the cavernous sinus and can cause a cluster of these symptoms.

      Dorello’s canal carries cranial nerve VI (abducens) from the pontine cistern to the cavernous sinus. The zygomatic branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure. Meckel’s cave houses the trigeminal nerve ganglion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent...

    Incorrect

    • What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent migraine episodes?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Agents for Migraine Treatment

      Migraine is a neurological condition that causes severe headaches, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. While Sumatriptan is an effective treatment for acute migraine attacks, it does not prevent them from occurring. Therefore, prophylactic agents are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks.

      First-line prophylactic agents include beta-blockers without partial agonism and Topiramate. Beta-blockers are used if there are no contraindications, while Topiramate is a medication that is specifically approved for migraine prevention. Second-line prophylactic agents include Sodium valproate and Amitriptyline, which is used when migraine coexists with tension-type headache, disturbed sleep, or depression. Clinical experience in migraine treatment is currently greater with valproate.

      Third-line prophylactic agents include Gabapentin, Methysergide, Pizotifen, and Verapamil. These medications are used when first and second-line treatments have failed or are not tolerated. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that has been shown to be effective in reducing the frequency of migraine attacks. Methysergide is a serotonin receptor antagonist that is used for chronic migraine prevention. Pizotifen is a serotonin antagonist that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks.

      In conclusion, prophylactic agents are an important part of migraine treatment. The choice of medication depends on the patient’s medical history, the severity and frequency of migraine attacks, and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective prophylactic agent for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.4
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  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol,...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol, but after two weeks, he was discovered to be confused and drowsy. Upon examination, he was found to have a fever of 40.7°C, rigid muscles, and a blood pressure of 200/100 mmHg. What treatment would you recommend in this situation?

      Your Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious medical condition that is commonly caused by potent neuroleptics. Its major features include rigidity, altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction, fever, and high creatinine kinase. The condition can lead to potential complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute renal failure.

      The treatment of choice for NMS is dantrolene and bromocriptine. However, withdrawal of neuroleptic treatment is mandatory to prevent further complications. It is important to note that NMS can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize the symptoms and seek medical help as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.7
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  • Question 6 - An 82-year-old man attends the GP practice with his daughter, who is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man attends the GP practice with his daughter, who is concerned about her father's health and states that he has not been himself lately. For the past few months, he has had a reduced appetite and is spending most of his time in bed, despite waking up early each day. He is forgetting simple things like his grandson's name, appointments and conversations he has recently had, and seems uninterested in most things. He denies any visual or auditory hallucinations. He has a medical history of well controlled hypertension. His wife passed away several years ago. He scores 20 on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Cognitive Impairment: Depression, Alzheimer’s Disease, Vascular Dementia, Normal Ageing, and Normal Grief Reaction

      This patient is presenting with cognitive impairment, but the underlying cause is unclear. Several potential diagnoses should be considered, including depression, Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, normal ageing, and normal grief reaction.

      Depression is a likely diagnosis due to the patient’s lack of interest in activities, low appetite, early morning wakening, and diminished concentration. However, it is important to rule out dementia as a differential diagnosis, as depression can present similarly to cognitive impairments.

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function, with early changes in memory. Neurological examination is typically normal, and gait is rarely affected.

      Vascular dementia, on the other hand, is usually sudden onset and can occur after a TIA or stroke. Neurological deficits are often present, with executive function and gait being affected early, and memory later.

      Normal ageing does not present in the same way as this patient, as it is a more gradual decline without the depressive symptoms.

      Finally, a normal grief reaction is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s cognitive impairment, as his wife died several years ago.

      A comprehensive dementia workup, including a series of baseline blood tests, cognitive assessment, and potentially a brain scan, should be performed to determine the underlying cause of this patient’s cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.1
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  • Question 7 - An 81-year-old man comes to your clinic with his wife. He has been...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old man comes to your clinic with his wife. He has been experiencing memory loss for recent events and has gotten lost while out shopping. His cognitive abilities seem to fluctuate frequently, but overall, they appear to be declining. Additionally, he reports seeing small, fairy-like creatures running around, although he knows they are not real. He has also had several unexplained falls. Apart from increased muscle tone in all limbs, there are no other neurological symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Dementia: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Dementia is a progressive cognitive impairment that affects millions of people worldwide. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here are some of the most common types of dementia:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies
      This type of dementia is characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive function, with a particular emphasis on memory loss and disorientation. It is caused by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain, which are distributed more widely than in Parkinson’s disease. Diagnosis requires the presence of dementia, as well as two out of three core features: fluctuating attention and concentration, recurrent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism.

      Huntington’s disease
      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that typically presents in middle age. It causes a deterioration in mental ability and mood, as well as uncoordinated movements and jerky, random motions. Diagnosis is made through genetic testing.

      Multi-infarct dementia
      This type of dementia is caused by a history of interrupted blood supply to the brain, such as multiple strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.

      Pick’s disease
      Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, Pick’s disease is characterized by a loss of inhibitions and other behavioral changes.

      Alzheimer’s disease
      The most common type of dementia, Alzheimer’s is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function, including memory loss and disorientation. However, the presence of visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and a fluctuating course may indicate dementia with Lewy bodies instead.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of dementia and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes wakes up with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes wakes up with weakness in his right leg. Upon examination, there is weakness in ankle eversion and inversion and loss of dorsiflexion in the big toe. Knee reflexes are normal, and ankle jerks are present with reinforcement. He has also experienced a loss of sensation in his first toe. Where is the lesion located?

      Your Answer: Right sciatic nerve

      Correct Answer: Right L5 root

      Explanation:

      Nerve Lesions and Their Effects on Motor and Sensory Function in the Lower Limb

      The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles that work together to allow movement and sensation. When a nerve is damaged or compressed, it can lead to a variety of symptoms depending on the location and severity of the lesion. In the lower limb, there are several nerves that can be affected, each with its own unique pattern of motor and sensory deficits.

      Right L5 Root Lesion

      A lesion at the L5 nerve root will cause weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, and inversion, as well as loss of sensation over the medial border of the right foot. This specific pattern of motor and sensory pathology is only possible with an L5 nerve root lesion.

      Right Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in weakness of ankle dorsiflexors, foot evertor (but not invertor) and extensor hallucis longus, and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot, the medial border of the foot, and the anterolateral side of the lower leg. The ankle reflex will be preserved.

      Right Femoral Nerve Lesion

      A lesion at the femoral nerve, which incorporates roots L2, L3, and L4, will cause weakness of the hip flexors and knee extensors, as well as loss of the knee reflex.

      Right Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve, the largest nerve in the human body, is made from roots L4 to S2. Damage to this nerve will result in weakness in all muscles below the knee, loss of the ankle reflex, and sensory loss over the foot and the posterolateral aspect of the lower leg.

      Right Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh Lesion

      The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh has no motor supply and causes sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the thigh.

      In conclusion, understanding the effects of nerve lesions on motor and sensory function in the lower limb is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He has been intermittently treated with varying doses of oral prednisolone and chloroquine. On this occasion, he complains of drooping and weakness affecting the left-hand side of his face, blurred vision, thirst and polyuria. On examination, he has a left facial nerve palsy.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 149 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Ca2+ corrected 2.21 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Random glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 36 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Which of the following diagnoses fit best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Bell’s palsy

      Correct Answer: Neurosarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Neurological Symptoms: Neurosarcoidosis, Bacterial Meningitis, Bell’s Palsy, Viral Meningitis, and Intracerebral Abscess

      A man with a history of sarcoidosis presents with neurological symptoms, including polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision. These symptoms suggest the possibility of cranial diabetes insipidus, a consequence of neurosarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia and hyperglycemia are ruled out as potential causes based on normal glucose and calcium levels. Treatment for neurosarcoidosis typically involves oral corticosteroids and immunosuppressant agents.

      Bacterial meningitis, which presents with headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia, is ruled out as there is no evidence of infection. Bell’s palsy, an isolated facial nerve palsy, does not explain the patient’s other symptoms. Viral meningitis, which also presents with photophobia, neck stiffness, and headache, is unlikely as the patient’s white blood cell count is normal. An intracerebral abscess, which typically presents with headache and fever, is unlikely to produce the other symptoms experienced by the patient.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for this patient’s neurological symptoms includes neurosarcoidosis, bacterial meningitis, Bell’s palsy, viral meningitis, and intracerebral abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      92.7
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of paraesthesia in his feet and hands. He has also noticed weakness in his thighs, particularly when walking down stairs, and weakness affecting his shoulders. Prior to this, he had been well, except for a mild case of gastroenteritis after eating Chinese food. On examination, he appears anxious, but cranial nerve examination and fundoscopy are normal. Upper limb examination reveals reduced tone and absent reflexes bilaterally at both wrists. Lower limb examination shows 2/5 power, absent reflexes, and reduced sensation affecting both feet. A lumbar puncture is performed, yielding the following results: opening pressure 14 cmH2O (5-18), CSF protein 0.40 g/L (0.15-0.45), CSF white cell count 4 cells per ml (<5 cells), CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells), and negative CSF oligoclonal bands. What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Motor and Sensory Neuropathy

      His symptoms and signs suggest that he may be experiencing an acute motor and sensory neuropathy, which is commonly seen in Guillain-Barré syndrome following an infection. Patients with this condition often experience paraesthesias in their hands and feet, along with weakness. However, sensory abnormalities on examination are usually mild. Brainstem lesions are unlikely due to normal eye movements, and multiple sclerosis is a central demyelinating disorder that does not affect peripheral nerves. Wernicke’s encephalopathy typically presents as acute ataxia and ophthalmoplegia, while spinal cord lesions cause lower motor signs at the level of the lesion with upper motor signs below and a sensory level and bladder involvement. Although neurological complications can occur in systemic lupus erythematosus, including a peripheral neuropathy, the absence of common features such as joint or skin lesions makes this diagnosis unlikely. It is worth noting that cerebrospinal fluid protein is often normal at the onset of symptoms in Guillain-Barré syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (4/10) 40%
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