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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the name of the intercellular junctional mechanism that allows cells to be electrically connected?
Your Answer: Desmosome
Correct Answer: Gap junction
Explanation:Cell Junctions: Types and Functions
Gap junctions are found where two adjacent cell membranes meet, allowing for electrical communication between cells. Desmosomes are specialized proteins that help cells stick together, particularly in epithelial tissue. Tight junctions prevent water and solutes from leaking out of cells. Zonula adherens junctions are cell junctions that connect to the actin cytoskeleton. These different types of cell junctions play important roles in maintaining the structure and function of tissues in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Correct
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Which intrinsic muscles of the thumb are located in the thenar compartment of the hand?
Your Answer: Abductor pollicis
Explanation:Muscles of the Hand
The hand is a complex structure composed of various muscles that allow for its intricate movements. One of the compartments in the hand is the thenar compartment, which contains the abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis. The adductor pollicis, although not part of the thenar group, is located deeper and more distal to the flexor pollicis brevis. Its primary function is rotation and opposition, and it is supplied by the ulnar nerve.
Another muscle found in the hand is the first dorsal interosseous, which is located in the dorsum of the hand and innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve. The first lumbrical is situated lateral to the flexor digitorum tendon of the first digit. Finally, the flexor digitorum superficialis is found in the anterior compartment of the arm.
the muscles of the hand is crucial in diagnosing and treating hand injuries and conditions. Each muscle has a specific function and innervation, and any damage to these muscles can result in impaired hand movements. Therefore, it is essential to have a thorough knowledge of the hand’s anatomy to provide proper care and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old farmer injures his hand on barbed wire and visits his GP after four days with a painful wound. The wound is swollen, tender, and hot to the touch. Which chemical mediator is responsible for increasing vascular permeability during acute inflammation?
Your Answer: Complement components C5b - C9
Correct Answer: Leukotrienes C4, D4, E4 (LTC4, D4, E4)
Explanation:Increased vascular permeability is a key aspect of acute inflammation, caused by chemical mediators such as histamine, serotonin, complement components C3a and C5a, leukotrienes, oxygen free radicals, and PAF. LTB4 causes chemotaxis of neutrophils, TNF causes fever, and glycine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that does not affect vascular permeability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is having a carotid endarterectomy due to recurrent TIAs and the external carotid artery is visible. What is the initial branch of the external carotid artery?
Your Answer: The superior thyroid artery
Explanation:The Superior Thyroid Artery and its Branches
The superior thyroid artery is the initial branch of the external carotid artery. It descends downwards along the side of the pharynx before turning anteriorly to provide blood supply to the upper part of the thyroid gland. The external carotid artery has several branches, which are arranged in a descending order from inferior to superior. These branches include the superior thyroid, lingual, facial, occipital, posterior auricular, superficial temporal, and maxillary arteries.
The superior thyroid artery is responsible for supplying blood to the upper pole of the thyroid gland. It is one of the first branches of the external carotid artery and runs downwards along the side of the pharynx before turning anteriorly. The external carotid artery has several branches, which are arranged in a descending order from inferior to superior. These branches include the superior thyroid, lingual, facial, occipital, posterior auricular, superficial temporal, and maxillary arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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To which major food group does the molecule CH3CH(NH2)COOH belong?
Your Answer: Fat
Correct Answer: Protein
Explanation:The Basics of Amino Acids and Alanine
Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which are essential for the functioning of living organisms. One such amino acid is alanine, also known as CH3CH(NH2)COOH. The basic structure of an amino acid consists of an amine group (NH2) and a carboxylic acid group (COOH), which are both acidic and basic, respectively. These groups combine to give proteins a unique set of characteristics.
Alanine is a simple amino acid with a methyl group in its R region. The formula for proteins is R-CH-NH2COOH, where R is a variable region. Amino acids combine to form dipeptides and polypeptides, which make up proteins. the basics of amino acids and their structures is crucial in the complex nature of proteins and their functions in living organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl complains of fainting on exertion and her teacher noticed a bluish tinge to her skin before one episode. She says she can prevent fainting by squatting down. During examination, a mid-systolic murmur is heard and her fingernails are clubbed. What is a possible cardiac reason for her clubbing?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:The causes of clubbing are varied and complex. Clubbing is a medical condition that affects the fingers and toes, causing them to become enlarged and rounded. Although the exact cause of clubbing is not fully understood, it is commonly associated with respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular disorders.
Among the cardiovascular causes of clubbing, two main conditions stand out: infective endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart disorder that is characterized by four malformations in the heart. These include ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, over-riding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.
As a result of these malformations, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the patient’s body, leading to low blood oxygen saturation. This can cause a range of symptoms, including sudden cyanosis followed by syncope, which is commonly referred to as tet spells in children. In older children, squatting can help relieve these symptoms by reducing circulation to the legs and relieving syncope.
Understanding the causes of clubbing is important, particularly for medical examinations, as it can help identify underlying conditions that may require further investigation and treatment. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of clubbing, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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What clinical sign in a newborn would indicate a plasma glucose level below the normal range of 2.2 mmol/L, such as 1.6 mmol/L?
Your Answer: Hypotonia
Explanation:Hypoglycaemia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Hypoglycaemia occurs when the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level. This condition is diagnosed when Whipple’s triad is satisfied, which includes the presence of hypoglycaemia, symptoms consistent with hypoglycaemia, and resolution of symptoms when the blood glucose level normalises. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia are caused by sympathetic activity and disrupted central nervous system function due to inadequate glucose.
Assessing hypoglycaemia in neonates and infants can be challenging as they cannot communicate early symptoms. Infants may experience hypotonia, jitteriness, seizures, poor feeding, apnoea, and lethargy. On the other hand, adults and older children may experience tremor, sweating, nausea, lightheadedness, hunger, and disorientation. Severe hypoglycaemia can cause confusion, aggressive behaviour, and reduced consciousness.
Neonates with prematurity, poor feeding, or born to mothers with diabetes, gestational diabetes, or eclampsia are at high risk of hypoglycaemia. Many neonates or infants with hypoglycaemia will secrete inappropriately high amounts of insulin, such as neonatal transient hyperinsulinism or persistent hyperinsulinism. Neonates born to diabetic mothers have hyperinsulinism, which developed in utero following exposure to high amounts of glucose from the mother that cross the placenta. This usually settles within several days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Correct
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What type of cell is responsible for the production of gastric acid in the stomach?
Your Answer: Parietal cell
Explanation:Types of Cells and Their Functions in the Body
There are different types of cells in the body that perform specific functions. One of these is the Amine Precursor Uptake and Decarboxylation (APUD) cells, which are endocrine cells that secrete hormones such as gastrin and cholecystokinin. These hormones aid in the digestion process. Another type of cell is the Chief cells, which produce pepsinogen to help break down food in the stomach. Kupffer cells, on the other hand, are a specialized form of macrophage found in the liver. They play a crucial role in removing bacteria and other harmful substances from the blood. Lastly, mucous cells produce mucous, which helps protect and lubricate the body’s internal organs. the functions of these different types of cells is important in maintaining overall health and wellness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which Korotkoff sound indicates that the diastolic pressure has been reached during blood pressure measurement?
Your Answer: Second
Correct Answer: Fifth
Explanation:Korotkoff Sounds
Korotkoff sounds are the sounds heard when taking blood pressure readings. There are five phases of Korotkoff sounds, each indicating different stages of blood pressure. The first phase is a tapping sound, which indicates the systolic pressure. The second phase is a swooshing sound or murmurs. The third phase is a crisp tapping sound, while the fourth phase is a muffled, blowing sound. The fifth and final phase is silence.
Older textbooks used to state that the fourth Korotkoff sound indicate diastolic pressure, but now the fifth sound is used preferentially. To take a blood pressure reading, the cuff is inflated and then slowly reduced. The first tapping sound heard is the systolic pressure. The cuff is then further deflated until silence is heard, which indicates the diastolic pressure. Korotkoff sounds is important for accurate blood pressure readings and proper diagnosis and treatment of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Correct
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Which cell type gives rise to all germ cells through differentiation?
Your Answer: Epiblast
Explanation:Embryonic Development and Tissue Formation
During embryonic development, the epiblast layer, which originates from the inner cell mass, is located above the hypoblast. As the process of gastrulation occurs, the epiblast layer differentiates into three embryonic germ layers, namely the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. The ectoderm is responsible for forming various bodily systems such as the brain, retina, and anal canal. On the other hand, the mesoderm gives rise to the myotome, which is a tissue formed from somites that forms the body muscle wall. Additionally, the sclerotome, which is also part of the somite, develops to form most of the skull and vertebrae.
Furthermore, a dermatome is an area of skin that is supplied by a single spinal nerve. These dermatomes are important in the diagnosis of certain medical conditions that affect the skin. the different tissues formed during embryonic development is crucial in comprehending the various bodily systems and functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What muscles are responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle joint?
Your Answer: Gastrocnemius
Correct Answer: Tibialis anterior
Explanation:Muscles Involved in Ankle and Toe Movements
The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, which means it helps lift the foot upwards towards the shin. On the other hand, the tibialis posterior, soleus, and gastrocnemius muscles are involved in plantar flexion, which is the movement of pointing the foot downwards. These muscles work together to push the foot off the ground during walking or running.
Another muscle involved in foot movement is the flexor digitorum longus, which is responsible for flexion of the second to fifth toes. This muscle helps curl the toes downwards towards the sole of the foot. All of these muscles play important roles in the complex movements of the foot and ankle, allowing us to walk, run, jump, and perform other activities that require precise control of our lower limbs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Correct
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A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to the doctor's office. She has been researching online and is worried that her child may have a deficiency in vitamin B2 (riboflavin). What signs or symptoms would indicate a diagnosis of riboflavin deficiency?
Your Answer: Angular stomatitis and cheilosis
Explanation:Isolated Riboflavin Deficiency
Isolated riboflavin deficiency is a rare occurrence, as it is more common to have a deficiency of multiple B vitamins. Riboflavin plays a crucial role in the normal function of vitamins B3 (niacin) and B6 (pyridoxine), which can cause overlapping clinical features with deficiencies of B3 and B6.
When an individual experiences isolated riboflavin deficiency, they may suffer from various symptoms. These symptoms include itchy, greasy, and inflamed skin, angular stomatitis (cracking at the edge of the mouth), cheilosis (cracked lips), excessive light sensitivity with red and painful eyes, fatigue, and depression.
It is important to note that riboflavin deficiency can be prevented by consuming a balanced diet that includes foods rich in B vitamins, such as whole grains, dairy products, and leafy green vegetables. If an individual suspects they may have a riboflavin deficiency, they should consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Correct
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What function does lipoprotein lipase serve?
Your Answer: To split triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol
Explanation:Lipoprotein Lipase and its Role in Lipid Metabolism
Lipoprotein lipase (LPL) is a crucial enzyme that plays a significant role in lipid metabolism. It is found on various cells, including adipocytes, capillary endothelial cells, muscle cells, and cardiac cells. LPL is responsible for breaking down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol, which can then be utilized by the body’s cells for energy or stored for later use.
The form of LPL found on muscle cells can remove triglycerides even at low concentrations in the blood, while the form found on adipocytes only allows for uptake when triglyceride levels are high. This ensures that triglycerides are primarily used as a fuel source and only stored in adipocytes when levels are abundant.
Insulin plays a crucial role in regulating LPL secretion from adipocytes and promoting the storage of triglycerides as fat. This has clinical implications, as individuals with new-onset type 1 diabetes, who cease insulin production due to pancreatic damage, often experience weight loss. In contrast, individuals with established type 2 diabetes, who produce excessive amounts of insulin, are more likely to store excess calories as fat.
In summary, lipoprotein lipase is a vital enzyme in lipid metabolism, and its regulation by insulin has significant clinical implications. the role of LPL in the body can help inform strategies for managing weight and metabolic disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman has been experiencing vomiting for the past day due to food poisoning. What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur?
Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Acid Loss and Compensation in Vomiting
There are two possible approaches to the effects of vomiting on acid loss and compensation. The first, more simplistic way is to assume that vomiting leads to acid loss since the stomach contents contain acid. However, this overlooks the fact that vomiting also results in the loss of sodium, which can affect the body’s acid-base balance. Specifically, the sodium-/H+ antiporters in the kidneys may retain sodium at the expense of hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis.
Regardless of the mechanism, the resulting metabolic alkalosis would trigger compensatory responses in the body. One such response would be a decrease in respiratory rate, which would help retain CO2 and lead to a compensatory respiratory acidosis. Overall, the complex interplay between acid loss and compensation in vomiting requires a more nuanced approach that takes into account the various factors involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Correct
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What is the enzyme necessary for the production of glycogen?
Your Answer: Glycogen synthase
Explanation:Enzymes Involved in Glycogen Formation
Glycogen formation is a complex process that requires the involvement of several enzymes. One of the key enzymes involved in this process is glycogen synthase, which is responsible for extending the length of glucose chains within glycogen. This is achieved by creating α1-4 glycosidic linkages between glucose molecules to form a long chain.
However, the branching on the glycogen chain is created by another enzyme known as the branching enzyme or transferase enzyme. This enzyme produces α1-6 glycosidic linkages, which create branch points on the glycogen chain.
It is important to note that the debranching enzyme and glycogen phosphorylase are not involved in glycogen production but are instead used in the breakdown of glycogen. Similarly, phosphofructokinase is an enzyme in the glycolysis pathway, while pyruvate carboxylase is required for gluconeogenesis.
In summary, glycogen formation is a complex process that involves several enzymes, including glycogen synthase and the branching enzyme. These enzymes work together to create the long chains and branch points that make up glycogen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint?
Your Answer: Biceps femoris
Correct Answer: Psoas
Explanation:Muscles and their Functions in Joint Movement
The hip joint has three main flexors, namely the iliacus, psoas, and rectus femoris muscles. These muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint, which is the movement of bringing the thigh towards the abdomen. On the other hand, the gluteus maximus and medius muscles are involved in hip extension, which is the movement of bringing the thigh backward.
Moving on to the elbow joint, the bicep femoris muscle is one of the primary flexors. This muscle is responsible for bending the elbow, which is the movement of bringing the forearm towards the upper arm. Lastly, the adductor brevis muscle is responsible for adducting the leg at the hip joint, which is the movement of bringing the leg towards the midline of the body.
In summary, muscles play a crucial role in joint movement. the functions of these muscles can help in identifying and addressing issues related to joint movement and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the most powerful muscle for extending the hip?
Your Answer: Gluteus maximus
Explanation:Muscles Acting on the Hip Joint
The hip joint is a synovial ball and socket joint that allows for a wide range of movements. There are several muscles that act over the hip, each with their own primary movement and innervation. The hip extensors include the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings, which are responsible for extending the hip joint. The hip flexors include the psoas major, iliacus, rectus femoris, and pectineus, which are responsible for flexing the hip joint. The hip abductors include the gluteus medius and minimus, as well as the tensor fascia latae, which are responsible for abducting the hip joint. Finally, the hip adductors include the adductor magnus, brevis, and longus, as well as the gracilis, which are responsible for adducting the hip joint.
The gluteus maximus is the strongest hip extensor, earning it the nickname of the power extensor of the hip. The hamstrings, while partially responsible for hip extension, are primarily responsible for knee flexion. However, their long course leaves them vulnerable to sports injuries. the muscles that act on the hip joint is important for both athletes and healthcare professionals in order to prevent and treat injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Correct
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Which type of cell makes up the majority of yellow bone marrow?
Your Answer: Adipocytes
Explanation:Anatomy of Bones and Bone Marrow
Bones are composed of two types of bone tissue: compact bone and cancellous bone. The medullary cavity is located within the cancellous bone and contains trabeculae. Blood vessels and bone marrow are also present within the cavity. The bone marrow is responsible for producing blood cells, with red marrow being the site of active haematopoiesis. Yellow marrow, on the other hand, is predominantly made up of adipocytes and fibroblasts.
Chondrocytes are specialized cells found in cartilage that secrete the collagen matrix. Fibroblasts also contribute to the extracellular matrix by secreting collagen. Haematopoietic stem cells are found in bone marrow and are the common ancestor of all haematologic cells. Megakaryocytes, which are also found in bone marrow, are the precursor to platelets. the anatomy of bones and bone marrow is crucial in their functions and the processes that occur within them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Correct
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How does the incidence of male breast cancer compared to that of female breast cancer?
Your Answer: Incidence is lower - women are more likely to get breast cancer than men
Explanation:Breast Cancer in Men
Breast cancer is not just limited to women, as men can also develop this type of cancer. Although it is much rarer in men than in women, it is still possible for them to get it. Men have breast tissue, which means that they are susceptible to breast cancer. Approximately 1 in 100 breast cancers occur in men, and about 250 male breast cancers are diagnosed each year.
Men who are at an increased risk, such as those with a strong family history of breast cancer, are more likely to develop this form of cancer. It is important for men to be aware of the signs and symptoms of breast cancer, which include a lump or swelling in the breast, nipple discharge, and changes in the skin around the breast. Early detection is key to successful treatment, so men should not hesitate to seek medical attention if they notice any of these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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While taking a patient's medical history, you discover that there is a significant family history of a particular disease. Diseases that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner typically manifest in early adulthood due to structural gene abnormalities, with both males and females being affected equally. Which of the following diseases does not follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern?
Your Answer: von Hippel-Lindau disease
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Abnormal Binding Proteins Resulting in Iron Deposition and Multiple Organ Dysfunction
Iron deposition due to an abnormality in binding proteins can lead to various health complications. This condition is characterized by the deposition of iron in different organs, including the heart, liver, pancreas, and skin. The abnormality in binding proteins results in the accumulation of iron in these organs, leading to cardiomyopathy, cirrhosis, pancreatic failure, and skin pigmentation.
This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the condition. The recessive form of this condition is also known as infantile polycystic kidney disease, which predominantly affects children.
Overall, iron deposition due to an abnormality in binding proteins can cause multiple organ dysfunction and can be inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Early diagnosis and management of this condition are crucial to prevent further complications and improve the quality of life of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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