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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?

      Your Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:

      1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.

      2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.

      3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.

      4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.

      5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.

      Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for the treatment of her rheumatoid arthritis. She is informed that she will require frequent liver checks and eye exams due to the potential side-effects of these medications. What is the most probable combination of treatment she will receive for her condition?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate plus hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Medication Combinations for Treating Rheumatoid Arthritis

      When treating rheumatoid arthritis, the first-line medication is a DMARD monotherapy with methotrexate. Short-term steroids may also be used in combination with DMARD monotherapy to induce remission. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used, but patients should be closely monitored for visual changes as retinopathy and corneal deposits are common side effects.

      Etanercept is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, and methotrexate should not be given in combination with a TNF-alpha inhibitor like etanercept. Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine is an appropriate medication combination for treating rheumatoid arthritis, but regular eye checks are not required as neither medication affects vision.

      If a patient has failed treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine may be a regimen to consider trialling. However, it is important to note that new-onset rheumatoid arthritis should be treated with a DMARD monotherapy first line, with the addition of another DMARD like methotrexate as the first-line option.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old science teacher is diagnosed with tenosynovitis of the fingers of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old science teacher is diagnosed with tenosynovitis of the fingers of the left hand, although she is not experiencing any tenderness or swelling of the affected fingers.
      In which one of the following conditions can tendinitis/tenosynovitis present without being swollen and tender?

      Your Answer: Disseminated gonococcal infection

      Correct Answer: Systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Types of Arthritis and Infections that can Cause Tenosynovitis

      Tenosynovitis is a condition where the tendon sheath becomes inflamed, causing pain and swelling. It can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections. Here are some of the most common causes:

      Systemic Sclerosis: This autoimmune disease causes fibrosis of connective tissue, resulting in hard and thickened skin, swollen digits, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Tenosynovitis in systemic sclerosis is non-tender and without swelling of the tendons.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Tenosynovitis due to rheumatoid arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons. It usually involves the interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints, and can cause deformities such as swan neck and Boutonnière’s deformity.

      Gout: Gout can cause tenosynovitis, which is very painful and presents with redness and swollen tendons. It typically affects the metatarsophalangeal joints.

      Disseminated Gonococcal Infection: This infection can cause acute migratory tenosynovitis, especially in younger adults. Women may be asymptomatic, while men may present with urethral discharge or dysuria.

      Reactive Arthritis: This type of arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons, commonly affecting the knees or sacrum. It is an acutely inflammatory process and would therefore be swollen and tender.

      In conclusion, tenosynovitis can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue. She reports experiencing dysphagia, a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue. She reports experiencing dysphagia, a dry mouth, a gritty feeling in her eyes, and heightened sensitivity to light.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sjögren syndrome

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Symptoms: Sjögren Syndrome, Haemochromatosis, Hepatitis C Virus Infection, Oesophageal Carcinoma, and Polymyositis

      Sjögren syndrome is a condition that causes inflammation and destruction of exocrine glands, resulting in dry and gritty eyes, dry mouth, photosensitivity, fatigue, and joint pain. Patients may also experience excessive watering or deposits of dried mucous in the corner of the eye, recurrent attacks of conjunctivitis, and parotid swelling. On examination, xerostomia can be detected as a diminished salivary pool, a dried fissured tongue, and chronic oral candidiasis.

      Haemochromatosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a pigmented (tanned) appearance and may cause dry mouth and thirst due to diabetes.

      Hepatitis C virus infection can be associated with a secondary Sjögren syndrome, but there is no indication of this in the question.

      Oesophageal carcinoma is unlikely to cause ocular symptoms.

      Polymyositis does not present with any history of muscle weakness.

      In summary, while some symptoms may overlap between these conditions, a thorough examination and medical history are necessary to accurately diagnose and differentiate them.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man presents for review, complaining of pain in his knees. There...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents for review, complaining of pain in his knees. There is also stiffness in his fingers and he finds it difficult to use his computer. There is a history of hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine 10 mg, and type II diabetes, for which he takes metformin. He had been given a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis some years ago but has had no recent symptoms. On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 34; blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and he has swelling and bony deformity of both knees. There is crepitus and anterior knee pain on flexion. Examination of the hands reveals Heberden’s nodes.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 120 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Rheumatoid factor Negative
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      X-ray of both knees reveals reduced joint space, subchondral sclerosis and cyst formation and osteophytes within the joint space.
      Which of the following fits best with the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      The woman in the picture appears to have osteoarthritis, which is commonly seen in overweight individuals affecting weight-bearing joints like the knees. The changes in her hands also suggest osteoarthritis. Treatment options include weight reduction, pain relief medication like paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, or knee replacement surgery. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely as her ESR and rheumatoid factor are normal. Seronegative arthritis is also unlikely as it is associated with raised inflammatory markers, which are not present in this case. Enteropathic arthropathy is unlikely as there are no recent symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease. Osteoporosis is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause knee or finger pain, but rather presents following a fracture.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing shortness of breath during light activity and has developed a dry cough. Upon testing, her oxygen saturation was found to be 87% while breathing normally. A chest x-ray revealed a diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrate. Despite an extensive infection screening, no infections were found, leading doctors to believe that her symptoms are a result of a drug she is taking. Which medication is the most likely culprit for this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Potential Side Effects of Common Rheumatoid Arthritis Medications

      Methotrexate, a commonly prescribed medication for rheumatoid arthritis, has been known to cause acute pneumonitis and interstitial lung disease. Although this is a rare complication, it can be fatal and should be closely monitored. Azathioprine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression and increase the risk of infection. Cyclosporin, often used in combination with other medications, can cause neurological and visual disturbances. Hydroxychloroquine, while generally well-tolerated, can lead to abdominal pain and visual disturbances in cases of toxicity. Sulfasalazine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can affect liver function tests and cause bone marrow suppression, requiring careful monitoring.

      It is important for patients to be aware of the potential side effects of their medications and to communicate any concerns with their healthcare provider. Regular monitoring and follow-up appointments can help to identify and manage any adverse effects. With proper management, the benefits of these medications can outweigh the risks for many patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency...

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    • A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency department. He has been experiencing a painful and swollen left knee for the past 24 hours. He denies any history of joint problems or trauma. Additionally, he has noticed redness and soreness in both eyes over the last two days. He is a non-smoker, married, and consumes about 10 units of alcohol weekly. He recently returned from a business trip to Amsterdam two weeks ago.

      During examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, and he has a brown macular rash on the soles of his feet. His left knee is hot, swollen, and tender to palpate, while no other joint appears to be affected.

      Investigations reveal Hb 129 g/L (130-180), WBC 14.0 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 75 mm/hr (0-15), Plasma sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Blood cultures without growth after 48 hours, and Urinalysis without blood, glucose, or protein detected. Knee x-ray shows soft tissue swelling around the left knee.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive Arthritis

      Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is typically characterized by a combination of three symptoms: urethritis, conjunctivitis, and seronegative arthritis. This type of arthritis usually affects the large weight-bearing joints, such as the knee and ankle, but not all three symptoms are always present in a patient. Reactive arthritis can be triggered by either a sexually transmitted infection or a dysenteric infection. One of the most notable signs of this condition is the appearance of a brown macular rash known as keratoderma blennorrhagica, which is usually seen on the palms and soles.

      The main treatment for reactive arthritis involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications can help to alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Additionally, antibiotics may be prescribed to individuals who have recently experienced a non-gonococcal venereal infection. This can help to reduce the likelihood of that person developing reactive arthritis. Overall, the symptoms and treatment options for reactive arthritis can help individuals to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman with a 12-year history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with a 12-year history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted with a ‘flare’. She is a familiar patient to the ward and has previously been prescribed methotrexate, gold and sulphasalazine. The last two medications were effective for the first two years but then became less helpful even at higher doses. She is currently taking oral steroids.
      On examination: there is active synovitis in eight small joints of the hands and the left wrist.
      What is the most appropriate next course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Maintain on steroids and add a bisphosphonate

      Correct Answer: Enrol in biological therapy programme

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Severe Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Severe rheumatoid arthritis can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief. In such cases, biological therapies may be recommended. Here are some treatment options for severe rheumatoid arthritis:

      Enrol in Biological Therapy Programme
      Patients with highly active disease despite trying three previous agents for a therapeutic treatment duration may be candidates for biological treatments. TNF-alpha inhibitors and anti-CD20 are examples of biological treatments that are routinely used in the UK.

      Maintain on Steroids and Add a Bisphosphonate
      Short-term treatment with glucocorticoids may be offered to manage flares in people with recent-onset or established disease. However, long-term treatment with glucocorticoids should only be continued when the long-term complications of glucocorticoid therapy have been fully discussed and all other treatment options have been offered.

      Commence Leflunomide
      Severe disease that has not responded to intensive therapy with a combination of conventional DMARDs should be treated with biological agents. Leflunomide is one of the DMARDs that can be used in combination therapy.

      Use Methotrexate/Leflunomide Combination
      Patients who have not responded to intensive DMARD therapy may be prescribed a biological agent, as per NICE guidelines. Methotrexate and leflunomide are two DMARDs that can be used in combination therapy.

      Avoid Commencing Penicillamine
      DMARD monotherapy is only recommended if combination DMARD therapy is not appropriate. Patients without contraindications to combination therapy should not be prescribed penicillamine.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old married man was on a business trip in Thailand when he...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old married man was on a business trip in Thailand when he developed diarrhoea that lasted for 1 week. He returned to the United States and, a few weeks later, visited his primary care physician (PCP) complaining of pain in his knee and both heels. His eyes have become red and he has developed some painless, red, confluent plaques on his hands and feet, which his PCP has diagnosed as psoriasis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis

      Reactive arthritis is a condition characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. It typically occurs 1-3 weeks after an initial infection, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter being the most common causative agents. In addition to the classic triad of symptoms, patients may also experience keratoderma blennorrhagica and buccal and lingual ulcers.

      When considering differential diagnoses, it is important to note that inflammatory arthritides can be seropositive or seronegative. Seronegative spondyloarthritides include ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, enteropathic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and gonococcal arthritis.

      Gonococcal arthritis is a form of septic arthritis that typically affects a single joint and presents with a hot, red joint and systemic signs of infection. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, does not present with any clinical features in this patient. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, which is less likely in a patient with a recent history of travel and diarrhea. Psoriatic arthritis is unlikely to present simultaneously with psoriasis in a young, previously healthy patient without any prior history of either condition.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 11 - A 61-year-old man presented to his general practitioner with complaints of pain in...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man presented to his general practitioner with complaints of pain in his right big toe. He reported experiencing severe pain that disturbed his sleep at night. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking thiazide diuretics. He consumes alcohol most nights of the week. During his last visit to the doctor, he was prescribed antibiotics for painful urination. Upon examination, the doctor observed tenderness, redness, and warmth in the right first metatarsophalangeal joint. The doctor decided to perform joint aspiration.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Common Joint Disorders and Infections

      Gout, psoriatic arthritis, pseudogout, septic arthritis, and osteomyelitis are all joint disorders and infections that can cause pain, swelling, and redness in affected joints. Gout is caused by crystal deposition in the joint, most commonly in the big toe, and can be triggered by certain medications, trauma, infection, surgery, and alcohol consumption. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with DIPJs being the most commonly affected joints. Pseudogout occurs due to the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals in the joint and usually affects knee joints in patients with previous joint damage. Septic arthritis is caused by joint infection, with gonococci being the most common organism in young patients and Staphylococcus aureus in older patients with pre-existing joint damage. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone caused by various organisms and presents with redness, swelling, pain, and tenderness over the affected bone.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She experiences constant aching in her arms and shoulders and jaw pain when chewing. She has also lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 84 beats/min, and BP is 125/80 mmHg. Investigations reveal abnormal blood results. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Importance of Diagnosis

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as proximal muscle pain, stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. It is also common for the condition to have systemic involvement, including fever, malaise, and weight loss. One of the key indicators of this condition is a very high ESR.

      The main reason for diagnosing and treating polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is to prevent blindness. This condition can cause inflammation in the blood vessels that supply the eyes, leading to vision loss. Therefore, early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent this complication.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful left hip and groin and is...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful left hip and groin and is struggling to weight-bear. She completed therapy for acute myeloblastic leukaemia some six months earlier.
      On examination, she walks with a limp and there is limitation of hip flexion, internal and external rotation.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 191 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 12 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      The left hip X-ray shows joint sclerosis with collapse of the femoral head.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Avascular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arthritis Types: Avascular Necrosis, Gout, Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, and Septic Arthritis

      Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. However, there are different types of arthritis, each with its own causes, symptoms, and treatments. Here are some key points to differentiate between avascular necrosis, gout, osteoarthritis, pseudogout, and septic arthritis:

      Avascular necrosis is a condition where the bone tissue dies due to a lack of blood supply. It can be caused by corticosteroid use, malignancy, or trauma. Femoral head collapse is a classic radiographic change in avascular necrosis.

      Gout is a type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints, such as the big toe, ankle, or knee. It is caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint, leading to sudden attacks of pain, redness, and swelling.

      Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that occurs when the cartilage that cushions the joints wears down over time. It is more common in older adults and can affect any joint, but femoral head collapse does not occur in osteoarthritis.

      Pseudogout is another type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints. It is caused by the buildup of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joint, leading to similar symptoms as gout.

      Septic arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint that can cause severe pain, swelling, and fever. It is a medical emergency and requires prompt treatment with antibiotics. While septic arthritis should always be considered in a monoarthritis, it is less likely in cases where there are classic radiographic changes of avascular necrosis, risk factors, and a normal CRP without history of fever.

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  • Question 14 - A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting the right knee and left ankle. On further questioning, he complained of dysuria and had woken with both eyes ‘stuck together’ for the last three days. He thinks that his urinary symptoms may be linked to the unprotected sex he had three weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Reactive Arthritis Symptoms

      A patient presents with arthropathy, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, which are classic symptoms of reactive arthritis. The probable underlying cause is chlamydial infection or gonorrhea, as the patient has had recent unprotected sex. Primary syphilis, genital herpes, trichomoniasis, and E. coli infection are unlikely differential diagnoses. Syphilis causes a painless sore on the genitals, while genital herpes presents with blisters and is not associated with arthropathy. Trichomoniasis is commonly asymptomatic and presents with dysuria, frequency, and balanitis in men. E. coli is a common cause of UTI, but the patient’s symptoms are broader than those of a typical UTI.

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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 5 days. She complains of fatigue and feelings of lack of energy. She mentions a dry cough and shortness of breath on exertion, lasting for more than a year. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits, except for the presence of a mild fever. There are several reddish, painful, and tender lumps on the anterior of the lower legs. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar masses of ,1 cm in diameter.
      Which of the following test results is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer: Elevated double-stranded (ds) DNA antibody

      Correct Answer: Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Elevated Serum Markers in a Patient with Arthropathy and Hilar Lymphadenopathy

      The presence of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy in a patient can be indicative of various underlying conditions. In this case, the patient’s elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses.

      Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is a common finding in sarcoidosis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with or without pulmonary fibrosis is the most typical radiological sign of sarcoidosis. Additionally, acute arthropathy in sarcoidosis patients, known as Löfgren syndrome, is associated with erythema nodosum and fever.

      On the other hand, elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA) is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with necrotising granulomatous lesions in the upper and lower respiratory tract and renal glomeruli. It is not typically associated with hilar lymphadenopathy.

      Hyperuricaemia and elevated double-stranded (ds) DNA antibody are not relevant to this case, as they are not associated with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperglycaemia is also not a factor in this case.

      In conclusion, the combination of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses, such as sarcoidosis and GPA.

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  • Question 17 - A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling...

    Correct

    • A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling at the base of their big toe.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Indomethacin

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs for Gout Treatment

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to treat acute attacks of gout. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the most frequently prescribed due to its potent anti-inflammatory properties. However, it is important to note that aspirin and aspirin-containing products should be avoided during acute gout attacks as they can actually trigger or worsen the condition. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication for gout, especially during an acute attack. Proper use of NSAIDs can help alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with gout, improving the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 18 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing sinusitis. Upon chest X-ray, multiple cavitating lung lesions are discovered. The medical team suspects granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). What is the most effective blood test to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and their Associated Diseases

      Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly target and attack the body’s own tissues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the diseases they are associated with:

      1. c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody): GPA, a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs.

      2. Antimitochondrial antibody: primary biliary cholangitis.

      3. Anti Glomerular basement membrane antibody: Goodpasture’s syndrome, a rare autoimmune disease that affects the lungs and kidneys.

      4. p-ANCA (perinuclear ANCA): Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (previously known as Churg–Strauss syndrome), a rare autoimmune disease that affects the blood vessels.

      5. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody: myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue.

      Understanding the association between autoantibodies and their associated diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 19 - You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history of recurrent episodes of asymmetrical joint pains involving his knees, ankles and elbows. Two to four joints tend to be affected at any one time and each joint may be affected from two to four weeks each time.

      In the last decade he has also had recurrent painful mouth sores. On this occasion, he also complains of a severe occipital headache, mild abdominal pain and some discomfort on passing urine.

      On examination, his temperature is 38°C. His left knee and right ankle joints are painful, swollen and tender. Superficial thrombophlebitis is noted in the right leg.

      Investigations show:

      Hb 99 g/L (130-180)

      WCC 11.6 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)

      ESR 60 mm/hr (0-15)

      Plasma sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 6.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 95 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Behçet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome

      Behçet’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a range of symptoms. These symptoms include recurrent oral and genital ulcers, uveitis, seronegative arthritis, central nervous system symptoms, fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. The condition is often marked by periods of exacerbations and remissions, which can make it difficult to manage.

      One of the most common symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome is the presence of oral and genital ulcers that recur over time. These ulcers can be painful and may make it difficult to eat or engage in sexual activity. Uveitis, or inflammation of the eye, is another common symptom of the condition. This can cause redness, pain, and sensitivity to light.

      Seronegative arthritis, which is a type of arthritis that does not show up on blood tests, is also associated with Behçet’s syndrome. This can cause joint pain and stiffness, as well as swelling and inflammation. Central nervous system symptoms, such as headaches, confusion, and seizures, may also occur.

      Other symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome include fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. These symptoms can vary in severity and may come and go over time. Managing Behçet’s syndrome can be challenging, but with proper treatment and care, many people are able to live full and active lives.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic complaining of cramp-like pain in the forefoot that has been bothering them for the past week. During the examination, tenderness was noted over the dorsal distal portion of the second metatarsal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lisfranc injury

      Correct Answer: March fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Foot Injuries and Their Causes

      March fracture, Lisfranc injury, Hallux Rigidus, Jones fracture, and proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture are all common foot injuries that can cause significant pain and discomfort. A March fracture is a stress fracture of one of the metatarsal bones caused by repetitive stress, often seen in soldiers and hikers. Lisfranc injury occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus due to excessive kinetic energy, such as in a traffic collision. Hallux Rigidus is degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, resulting in stiffness and pain. Jones fracture is a fracture in the fifth metatarsal of the foot, while proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion.

      Based on the onset of symptoms and tenderness over the distal portion of the second metatarsal, a March fracture is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention for any foot injury to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with widespread pain for the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with widespread pain for the past month. The pain radiates all over but is worse in her shoulders, neck and lower back. It tends to be worse in the mornings and in cold weather. She reports that she is not able to sleep and feels lethargic during the day. Her partner reports that she has been more forgetful recently. She has otherwise been well without recent illnesses. On examination, there is clear tenderness to the affected areas. There are no other significant findings.
      Which of the following is an appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aerobic exercise

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia Patients

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that causes widespread pain, increased sensitivity to pain, and psychological symptoms. Treatment options can be divided into generic and patient-focused treatments. Aerobic exercise is a first-line, generic treatment that has been shown to improve symptoms of pain and physical function. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a patient-focused treatment that may be considered for patients with pain-related depression, anxiety, catastrophizing, and/or passive or active coping strategies. Anaerobic exercise should be avoided as it may increase inflammation and oxidative stress. Duloxetine and pregabalin are pharmacotherapy options for patients with severe pain or sleep disturbance, but only after non-pharmacological treatments have failed. It is important to tailor treatment to each patient’s individual needs.

      Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia Patients

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 22 - What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy? ...

    Correct

    • What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?

      Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Heberden’s Nodules

      Heberden’s nodules are bony growths that form around the joints at the end of the fingers. These nodules are most commonly found on the second and third fingers and are caused by calcification of the cartilage in the joint. This condition is often associated with osteoarthritis and is more common in women. Heberden’s nodules typically develop in middle age.

      Overall, Heberden’s nodules can be a painful and uncomfortable condition for those who experience them. However, the causes and symptoms of this condition can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their symptoms effectively. With proper care and attention, it is possible to minimize the impact of Heberden’s nodules on daily life.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 23 - A 20-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and extensor surface...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and extensor surface of his lower limbs. He has dipstick haematuria.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Man with Purpura and Haematuria

      The patient in question presents with a purpuric rash on the back, buttocks, and extensor surfaces of the lower limbs, as well as haematuria. The following is a differential diagnosis of possible conditions that could be causing these symptoms.

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
      The clinical presentation is entirely typical of HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria. It should be noted that platelet numbers are usually normal or raised in HSP, so thrombocytopaenia is not expected.

      Haemophilia A
      This condition is not likely as it results in joint and muscle bleeding, which is not present in this case. Additionally, haemophilia would not cause haematuria.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
      While purpura is a symptom of ITP, a reduced platelet count is typically present. Without a discussion of platelet levels, it is difficult to justify a diagnosis of ITP. Additionally, ITP would not result in haematuria.

      Leukaemia
      If acute leukaemia were causing the symptoms, thrombocytopaenia might be expected. However, the clinical presentation is more compatible with HSP, and thrombocytopaenia alone would not result in haematuria.

      Thalassaemia trait
      There is no indication in the history to suggest this condition, and it would not result in purpura. Thalassaemia trait is typically asymptomatic.

      In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old woman complains of bilateral knee pain that has persisted for 4...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of bilateral knee pain that has persisted for 4 months, despite taking paracetamol PRN. Her recent knee X-rays reveal moderate degenerative changes, and she has requested physiotherapy. What additional treatment should be initiated while waiting for physiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)

      Explanation:

      Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) are a good option for patients experiencing knee or hand symptoms. Regular paracetamol or oral NSAIDs are not provided as choices. Co-codamol is effective for moderate-to-severe pain, but should only be used after trying regular paracetamol and NSAIDs due to potential side-effects. Acupuncture is not recommended for osteoarthritis treatment as studies have shown little to no effectiveness. Capsaicin cream can be used if other treatments are ineffective. Glucosamine and chondroitin are not recommended by NICE for osteoarthritis treatment due to inconsistent research outcomes.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 25 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain and swelling in his...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain and swelling in his right elbow. He mentions feeling generally unwell for the past few days and remembers hitting his elbow while cycling the previous week. During the examination, his temperature is 37.7 °C, his heart rate is 78 bpm, and his blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg. There is a warm, erythematous swelling on the posterior aspect of his right elbow.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Infected Olecranon Bursitis

      Suspected infected olecranon bursitis requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following options are available:

      Option 1: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration
      Empirical antibiotics, such as oral flucloxacillin, should be started immediately to cover for staphylococci and streptococci. However, urgent same-day aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.

      Option 2: Arrange for corticosteroid injection
      If there are no signs of infection, corticosteroid injection may be considered after conservative measures have failed in aseptic olecranon bursitis. However, in suspected septic olecranon bursitis, urgent antibiotics and aspiration are required.

      Option 3: Oral flucloxacillin only
      Empirical oral flucloxacillin should be started as soon as possible in suspected infected olecranon bursitis. However, referral for urgent aspiration is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.

      Option 4: Oral amoxicillin and refer for urgent aspiration
      Flucloxacillin, not amoxicillin, should be given for suspected septic olecranon bursitis to cover the most common organisms. Urgent aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.

      Option 5: Refer for urgent aspiration
      Urgent aspiration is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility. Empirical antibiotics should be started first while awaiting culture results. If the patient is seen in the Emergency Department, aspiration may be done first before starting antibiotics.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old man presents with complaints of stiffness and pain in both shoulders....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with complaints of stiffness and pain in both shoulders. He has experienced a weight loss of one stone over the past eight weeks and reports feeling lethargic with a decreased appetite. Upon investigation, a positive rheumatoid factor, normochromic normocytic anaemia, and a significantly elevated ESR (100 mm/hr) were found. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disease that causes pain and stiffness in the shoulder and pelvic girdle muscles, along with systemic symptoms such as fever and weight loss. It is often associated with giant cell arthritis. Diagnosis can be difficult, but response to a moderate dose of steroids is a useful indicator. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are not recommended. Other inflammatory conditions should be excluded, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, polymyositis, and polyarteritis nodosa.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 27 - An 81-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with recurrent chest infections over...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with recurrent chest infections over the last year. She has suffered from rheumatoid arthritis for a long time and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine. On examination, there are some crepitations at the right lung base and splenomegaly. She has some abnormal discolouration on her legs.
      Full blood counts showed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 96 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 3.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Felty syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, neutropenia, and skin changes

      Felty syndrome and other potential diagnoses

      Felty syndrome is a rare complication of rheumatoid arthritis that affects about 1% of patients. It is characterized by the presence of three main features: splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), neutropenia (low white blood cell count), and recurrent infections. Skin changes on the lower limbs, such as ulcers or nodules, are also common in Felty syndrome. The exact cause of this syndrome is unknown, but it is thought to be related to immune dysregulation and chronic inflammation.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and drug-induced neutropenia. CLL is a type of blood cancer that affects mainly older adults and causes the accumulation of abnormal lymphocytes in the blood, bone marrow, and lymph nodes. However, in this case, the patient’s white blood cell count is low, which is not typical of CLL. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are types of cancer that affect the lymphatic system and may cause lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes), fever, night sweats, and weight loss. However, there is no evidence of lymph node involvement or systemic symptoms in this scenario.

      Drug-induced neutropenia is a potential side effect of methotrexate, which is a commonly used medication for rheumatoid arthritis. However, splenomegaly is not a typical feature of methotrexate toxicity, and respiratory complications are more common than hematological ones. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is Felty syndrome, which requires close monitoring and management of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis. In severe cases, splenectomy (surgical removal of the spleen) may be considered to improve neutropenia and reduce the risk of infections.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 28 - A 79-year-old woman, with a history of recurrent falls, had a recent fall...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman, with a history of recurrent falls, had a recent fall on her outstretched right hand. An X-ray revealed a fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement. She has multiple risk factors for osteoporosis, and a DEXA scan was requested. What score is indicative of a diagnosis of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: T score: < −2.5

      Explanation:

      When it comes to bone density, T scores are an important measure to understand. A T score of less than -2.5 is indicative of osteoporosis, while a T score between -1 and -2.5 suggests osteopenia. On the other hand, a T score of 0-1 is considered normal, but may still require monitoring. A T score greater than 2.5 is also normal, but may not be the case if the patient has experienced a fragility fracture. It’s important to note that Z scores, which take into account age and gender, can also provide insight into bone density. Understanding T scores and their implications can help healthcare professionals and patients take preventative measures to maintain bone health.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 29 - A woman in her 20s starts experiencing consistent lower back pain and stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 20s starts experiencing consistent lower back pain and stiffness that improves with physical activity. As she enters her 30s, she develops arthritis in her hips and shoulders, and by her 40s, she notices reduced mobility in her lumbar spine. She has no significant medical issues. What condition is most commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described suggest a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis, a chronic form of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that primarily affects the axial skeleton. Diagnosis is made using the modified New York criteria, which includes clinical and radiological criteria. HLA-B27 and sacroiliitis on MRI play a major role in the recently proposed ASAS diagnostic algorithm. Radiographic sacroiliitis is required for eligibility for anti-TNF treatment. Other conditions, such as pseudogout, Lyme disease, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis, are unlikely diagnoses. Timely diagnosis requires a high index of suspicion.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 30 - A 44-year-old gardener comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain when kneeling...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old gardener comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain when kneeling on her right knee for the past month. She denies any fevers and is generally in good health. During the examination of her right knee, the doctor notices a slightly tender swelling in front of the patella that feels fluctuant. Although the knee is not red, it is warm to the touch, and the patient experiences some discomfort when flexing it. What are the probable results of joint aspiration?

      Your Answer: Clear/milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Prepatellar Bursitis: Understanding Joint Aspirate Results

      Prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, is a common condition caused by inflammation of the prepatellar bursa. This can result from repetitive microtrauma, such as prolonged kneeling. Patients typically present with localised, mildly tender swelling over the patella, which can be warm but not hot. Aspiration of the aseptic bursa will reveal a clear and/or milky aspirate that has negative Gram staining and normal microscopy.

      When examining joint aspirate results, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses. Gram-positive cocci, for example, would be grown in the case of Staphylococcus aureus infection, a common cause of septic bursitis. However, in the absence of fever, erythema, and reduced range of motion, septic arthritis is unlikely. Similarly, needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in gout, but this condition typically presents with acute pain, redness, and inflammation.

      Rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in pseudogout, which can affect the knee. However, this condition typically affects the entire knee joint and is more common in the elderly.

      In summary, a clear or milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture is consistent with prepatellar bursitis. Other potential diagnoses should be considered based on the patient’s history and examination findings.

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      • Rheumatology
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