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  • Question 1 - A pregnant woman at 39 weeks gestation with a history of type 2...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman at 39 weeks gestation with a history of type 2 diabetes begins to experience labor. An attempt is made for a vaginal delivery, but during the process, the baby's left shoulder becomes stuck despite gentle downward traction. Senior assistance is called and arrives promptly, performing an episiotomy. What is the appropriate course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: McRobert's manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is more likely to occur in women with diabetes mellitus. However, using forceps during delivery to pull the baby out can increase the risk of injury to the baby and cause brachial plexus injury. Therefore, it is important to consider alternative delivery methods before resorting to forceps.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man is found talking incoherently, confused and aggressive outside the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is found talking incoherently, confused and aggressive outside the local shopping centre late at night. Apparently, he has attended the Emergency Department on two previous occasions, one when he made a number of cuts to his forearms with a knife, and another when he was drunk and disorderly. When you question him in the Emergency Department, he tells you that he is a spy, that the TVs in the local department store are reading his thoughts and that voices are telling him to kill his mother as she is informing on him. He mentions that this has been going on for two months. He rambles when you talk to him and seems to have created a number of new words to describe his mission.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.6 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 203 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 31 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drug induced psychosis

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Schizophrenia from Other Mental Health Conditions

      The patient’s disordered speech, derogatory hallucinations, and delusions about the television reading his thoughts are indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are often accompanied by thoughts of persecution or paranoia, which are known as first rank symptoms.

      A manic episode is less likely as there is no history of overspending, pressured speech, or flight of thoughts. Similarly, endogenous depression is unlikely as neologisms and incoherent speech are not common presenting symptoms.

      Drug-induced psychosis is also unlikely as neologisms and delusions about being a spy are not typical symptoms. Alcohol intoxication is also less likely as there is no evidence of alcohol involvement in this presentation or previous visits to Casualty.

      Therefore, based on the symptoms presented, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations. Upon examination, her pulse rate is found to be 180 bpm and she appears warm and well perfused. Her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on air. Chest auscultation reveals no signs of cardiac failure, but an ECG shows a narrow complex tachycardia. Despite attempts at carotid massage and Valsalva manoeuvre, the rhythm disturbance persists. What is the appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: IV digoxin

      Correct Answer: IV adenosine

      Explanation:

      Management of Narrow Complex Supraventricular Tachycardia

      When a patient presents with narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia, the initial management would be to administer IV adenosine, provided there are no contraindications such as asthma. This medication creates a transient conduction delay, which may terminate the tachycardia or slow down the heart rate enough to identify the underlying rhythm. This information is crucial in determining the optimal antiarrhythmic therapy for the patient.

      However, if the patient experiences chest pain, hypotension, SBP <90 mmHg, or evidence of cardiac failure, then DC cardioversion would be necessary. It is important to note that if the patient is not haemodynamically compromised, IV adenosine is the preferred initial management for narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 85-year-old man with renal failure attends hospital for dialysis three times per...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man with renal failure attends hospital for dialysis three times per week. He presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath and is found to have suffered from a large anterior myocardial infarct. The medical team decides to discuss a DNACPR decision with him. When is it appropriate to consider a DNACPR order?

      Your Answer: Where successful CPR is likely to be followed by a length and quality of life that are not in the best interests of the patient to sustain

      Explanation:

      When to Consider DNACPR Orders: Factors to Consider

      Deciding whether or not to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a patient can be a difficult decision. While CPR can be life-saving, it is not always the best course of action. Here are some factors to consider when deciding whether to issue a Do Not Attempt Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (DNACPR) order:

      1. Length and quality of life: If successful CPR is likely to result in a poor quality of life for the patient, it may not be in their best interests to sustain it.

      2. Patient wishes: If a mentally competent patient has expressed a desire not to receive CPR, their wishes should be respected.

      3. Likelihood of success: If the patient’s condition indicates that CPR is unlikely to be successful, it may not be worth attempting.

      4. Shockable rhythms: If the patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia, CPR may be successful and should be attempted.

      5. Cost and resources: The cost and availability of facilities should not be a factor in deciding whether to perform CPR.

      6. Family wishes: If the patient is mentally competent, their family cannot make decisions regarding resuscitation.

      7. Age: Age alone should not be a factor in deciding whether to issue a DNACPR order, as a fit and healthy older person may have a good chance of survival.

      Considering these factors can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about whether or not to perform CPR on a patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolemia and takes metformin and atorvastatin. He smokes 25 cigarettes daily and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week.

      His left knee joint is erythematosus, warm, and tender. His temperature is 37.2ºC, his heart rate is 105 bpm, his respiratory rate is 18 /min, and his blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. Joint aspiration shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.

      What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measure synovial fluid urate level 2 weeks after inflammation settles

      Correct Answer: Measure serum urate 2 weeks after inflammation settles

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.

      To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What term describes a lack of pulses but regular coordinated electrical activity on...

    Incorrect

    • What term describes a lack of pulses but regular coordinated electrical activity on an ECG?

      Your Answer: Nodal rhythm

      Correct Answer: Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pulseless Electrical Activity

      Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) occurs when there is a lack of pulse despite normal electrical activity on the ECG. This can be caused by poor intrinsic myocardial contractility or a variety of remediable factors. These factors include hypoxemia, hypovolemia, severe acidosis, tension pneumothorax, pericardial tamponade, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, poisoning with a calcium channel blocker, or hypothermia. Additionally, PEA may be caused by a massive pulmonary embolism. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of PEA in order to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her recent cervical screening test. The test showed normal cytology and was negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). In her previous screening test 18 months ago, she had normal cytology but tested positive for hrHPV. What guidance should you provide to the patient based on her latest screening test result?

      Your Answer: Repeat HPV test in a further 12 months

      Correct Answer: Return to routine recall in 3 years time

      Explanation:

      If the result of the first repeat smear for cervical cancer screening at 12 months is negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can resume routine recall. This means they should undergo screening every 3 years from age 25-49 years or every 5 years from age 50-64 years. However, if the repeat test is positive again, the patient should undergo another HPV test in 12 months. If there is dyskaryosis on a cytology sample, the patient should be referred for colposcopy.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A client's family purchases the ward a box of chocolates but presents you...

    Correct

    • A client's family purchases the ward a box of chocolates but presents you with a separate card containing a £50 voucher for all your assistance. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Give the voucher back to the family and thank them

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions for Accepting Monetary Gifts from Patients’ Families

      It is common for patients’ families to express gratitude towards healthcare professionals for their services. However, accepting monetary gifts can raise ethical concerns and is generally frowned upon by other staff members. Here are some appropriate actions to take when faced with such situations:

      Appropriate Actions for Accepting Monetary Gifts from Patients’ Families

      1. Give the voucher back to the family and thank them. This is the most appropriate action as it avoids any ethical concerns and maintains the professional relationship between the healthcare professional and the patient’s family.

      2. Share the voucher with the ward. While it may seem like a good idea to share the gift with colleagues, it is still not recommended to accept monetary gifts. It is best to return the gift to the family.

      3. Say nothing, you deserve it. This is not an appropriate action as accepting monetary gifts can create ethical concerns and impact the doctor-patient relationship.

      4. Donate the voucher to charity. While donating the gift to charity may seem like a good idea, it is still not recommended to accept monetary gifts. It is best to return the gift to the family.

      5. Ask the family for a bigger voucher, as £50 is not enough. This is highly unprofessional and should never be considered. Accepting monetary gifts of any amount is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man presents with mild jaundice following a flu-like illness. During a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with mild jaundice following a flu-like illness. During a review by a gastroenterologist, he has been told that a diagnosis of Gilbert’s syndrome is probable.
      Which of the following test results most suggests this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gilbert’s Syndrome: Absence of Bilirubin in Urine and Other Characteristics

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects 5-10% of the population in Western Europe. It is characterized by intermittent raised unconjugated bilirubin levels due to a defective enzyme involved in bilirubin conjugation. Despite this, patients with Gilbert’s syndrome have normal liver function, no evidence of liver disease, and no haemolysis. Attacks are usually triggered by various insults to the body.

      One notable characteristic of Gilbert’s syndrome is the absence of bilirubin in the urine. This is because unconjugated bilirubin is non-water-soluble and cannot be excreted in the urine. In unaffected individuals, conjugated bilirubin is released into the bile and excreted in the faeces or reabsorbed in the circulation and excreted in the urine as urobilinogen.

      Other characteristics that are not expected in Gilbert’s syndrome include decreased serum haptoglobin concentration, elevated aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity, and increased reticulocyte count. Haptoglobin is an acute phase protein that is decreased in haemolysis, which is not associated with Gilbert’s syndrome. AST activity is associated with normal liver function, which is also a characteristic of Gilbert’s syndrome. A raised reticulocyte count is observed in haemolytic anaemia, which is not present in Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Increased urinary urobilinogen excretion is also not expected in Gilbert’s syndrome as it is associated with haemolytic anaemia. Understanding the characteristics of Gilbert’s syndrome can aid in its diagnosis and management, which typically does not require treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old girl has had apparently normal appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, except...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl has had apparently normal appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, except that she has not menstruated. A pelvic examination reveals a mobile mass in her left labium major and a shallow, blind-ending vagina without a cervix, but otherwise normal female external genitalia. Ultrasound reveals no cervix, uterus or ovaries. Karyotype analysis reveals 46,XY.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)

      Explanation:

      Disorders of Sexual Development: An Overview

      Disorders of sexual development (DSD) are a group of conditions that affect the development of the reproductive system. Here are some of the most common DSDs:

      Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS)
      AIS is a condition where cells cannot respond to androgens, resulting in disrupted sexual development. Patients with complete AIS have a female phenotype with male internal genitalia, while those with partial or mild AIS may have a mix of male and female characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.

      Turner Syndrome
      Turner syndrome is a condition where patients are missing all or part of an X chromosome, resulting in premature ovarian failure and delayed puberty. Patients are phenotypically female with normal external genitalia.

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome
      Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where patients have an extra copy of an X chromosome, resulting in hypogonadism and infertility. Patients are phenotypically male with normal external genitalia.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later present with symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome or hyperpigmentation.

      5-α Reductase Deficiency
      5-α reductase deficiency is a condition where patients have a mutation in the SDR5A2 gene, resulting in disrupted formation of external genitalia before birth. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later show virilisation during puberty. Patients are infertile.

      Treatment for DSDs involves hormone replacement therapy and supportive care. It is important to provide psychosocial support for patients and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/2) 0%
Palliative Care (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Passmed