-
Question 1
Correct
-
In the proximal third of the upper arm, where is the musculocutaneous nerve situated?
Your Answer: Between the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles
Explanation:The biceps and brachialis muscles are located on either side of the musculocutaneous nerve.
The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway
The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.
The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
In the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction is scabies an example of?
Your Answer: Type IV reaction
Explanation:The intense itching caused by scabies is a result of a delayed type IV hypersensitivity reaction that occurs about a month after being infested.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of diarrhoea lasting for 5 months. She reports the presence of blood in her stool and feeling excessively fatigued.
During abdominal examination, tenderness is noted in the lower left quadrant.
The patient is referred for a colonoscopy and biopsy.
What characteristic would you anticipate finding based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Inflammation from rectum extending proximally
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that usually manifests with symptoms like fatigue, left lower quadrant pain, and bloody diarrhoea. The inflammation associated with ulcerative colitis starts at the rectum and extends proximally, but it does not spread beyond the ileocaecal valve.
Unlike Crohn’s disease, ulcerative colitis does not typically present with a cobblestone appearance during colonoscopy.
While diverticula can cause rectal bleeding and abdominal pain, they are more common in older patients and would not be expected in a patient of this age.
In Crohn’s disease, skip lesions are present, whereas in ulcerative colitis, the inflammation is continuous.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 27-year-old man with Von Willebrand's disease is scheduled for an intravenous infusion of desmopressin acetate. The medication works by triggering the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which enhances factor VIII and the creation of the platelet plug in clotting. What substance is responsible for maintaining blood solubility and preventing platelet activation in individuals without clotting disorders?
Your Answer: Prostacyclin
Explanation:Understanding the coagulation cascade is crucial, but it’s also important to know the substances that the body secretes to maintain normal blood vessel function and prevent excessive clotting. In primary haemostasis, the formation of a platelet plug is a critical step, and several substances in the blood vessels work against platelet activation to keep the blood flowing smoothly.
Prostacyclin, which is produced from arachidonic acid, inhibits platelet activation. Nitric oxide prevents platelet adhesion to the vessel wall and also dilates blood vessels to increase blood flow. Endothelial ADPase inhibits ADP, which is a platelet activator.
Fibrinogen, a large and soluble compound, is the precursor to fibrin, which forms an insoluble mesh to trap blood cells and platelets within a clot. This is the final step of the coagulation cascade, and the clot is further strengthened by fibrin-stabilising factor. Thromboxane, produced by activated platelets, increases platelet activation and constricts blood vessels, making it another thrombotic agent. Aggregated platelets produce ADP, which further enhances platelet aggregation.
The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation
The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.
The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.
Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old male with end stage critical ischaemia is scheduled for an axillo-femoral bypass. Which structure is not in close proximity to the axillary artery?
Your Answer: Pectoralis minor muscle
Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior muscle
Explanation:The axillary artery originates from the subclavian artery and is flanked by the brachial plexus cords, which are named after it. The axillary vein runs parallel to the axillary artery for its entire course.
Anatomy of the Axilla
The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.
One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.
The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man presents to the hepatology clinic after his general practitioner detected abnormal liver function on routine blood tests. He has been experiencing intermittent pain in the right upper quadrant for the past 3 months. He denies any history of intravenous drug use or recent travel. He has a medical history of depression and takes citalopram daily.
During the examination, the patient exhibits tenderness in the right upper quadrant. There is no visible jaundice, but he has dark rings around his iris.
What investigation finding is associated with the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Raised free serum copper
Explanation:Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the liver, which can present as acute hepatitis with symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and jaundice. Unlike other conditions such as Wilson’s disease, neuropsychiatric and eye signs are not typically observed in autoimmune hepatitis.
Haemochromatosis, on the other hand, is an autosomal recessive disorder that results in the accumulation and deposition of iron. A raised transferrin saturation is a sign of this condition, which can cause hepatitis, liver cirrhosis, fatigue, arthralgia, and bronze-colored skin pigmentation. If psychiatric symptoms are present, Wilson’s disease may be more likely.
α1-antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited disorder that occurs when the liver does not produce enough of the protease enzyme A1AT. This condition is primarily associated with emphysema, although liver cirrhosis may also occur. However, if there are no respiratory symptoms, α1-antitrypsin deficiency is unlikely to be the cause.
Understanding Wilson’s Disease
Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes excessive copper accumulation in the tissues due to metabolic abnormalities. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13. Symptoms usually appear between the ages of 10 to 25 years, with children presenting with liver disease and young adults with neurological disease.
The disease is characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues, particularly in the brain, liver, and cornea. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioural problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism, Kayser-Fleischer rings, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails.
To diagnose Wilson’s disease, doctors may perform a slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings, measure serum ceruloplasmin and total serum copper (which is often reduced), and check for increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion. Genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene can confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for Wilson’s disease typically involves chelating agents such as penicillamine or trientine hydrochloride, which help to remove excess copper from the body. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation. With proper management, individuals with Wilson’s disease can lead normal lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
During a cranial nerve examination of a 75-year-old female, it is observed that her tongue deviates to the right when she is asked to stick it out. Which cranial nerve could be affected in this case?
Your Answer: Left hypoglossal
Explanation:When the hypoglossal nerve is affected, it can cause the tongue to deviate towards the side of the lesion. This is due to the unopposed action of the genioglossus muscle, which makes up most of the tongue, on the unaffected side. If the patient’s history indicates that their tongue is deviating towards the left, it can be ruled out that the issue is affecting the right cranial nerves. The hypoglossal nerve is responsible for innervating the majority of the tongue’s muscles, including both the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles.
Cranial nerve palsies can present with diplopia, or double vision, which is most noticeable in the direction of the weakened muscle. Additionally, covering the affected eye will cause the outer image to disappear. False localising signs can indicate a pathology that is not in the expected anatomical location. One common example is sixth nerve palsy, which is often caused by increased intracranial pressure due to conditions such as brain tumours, abscesses, meningitis, or haemorrhages. Papilloedema may also be present in these cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old patient is brought into GP by her mother with concerns that she has not yet entered puberty. The patient reports experiencing bullying amongst her peers due to her appearance, short height, and recent weight gain despite eating very little. She also reports feeling low and no longer enjoying activities she used to like. The patient is worried about being the only girl in her class who has not yet experienced periods and the lack of breast development with widely spaced nipples.
During examination, the patient is found to have a webbed neck and a high-arched palate. The patient is referred to a paediatrician who then refers her to the genetics team. As part of their assessment, the genetics team orders a karyotype.
What results would be expected from the karyotype given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: 47,XXY
Correct Answer: 45,X0
Explanation:This patient’s clinical presentation is consistent with Turner syndrome, which is typically caused by a karyotype of 45,XO. Symptoms may include short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck, and high-arched palate. Patients with Turner syndrome are also at higher risk for hypothyroidism, which can cause weight gain, lethargy, and depressive symptoms. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) and Edwards’ syndrome (trisomy 18) have distinct clinical features that differ from those seen in Turner syndrome. Klinefelter syndrome is not relevant to this patient’s presentation.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
The school you teach at is on high alert after a suspected gas leak in the chemistry lab. Twenty five students have been evacuated from the building. The students are experiencing severe symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath.
You are informed by the school administration that the most probable gas involved is chlorine gas.
What is the mode of action of chlorine gas?Your Answer: Anticholinergic
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by sarin gas, a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound, leads to an increase in acetylcholine (ACh) levels. This can cause various symptoms, which can be remembered using the acronym DUMBELLS: Diarrhoea, Urination, Miosis/muscle weakness, Bronchorrhea/Bradycardia, Emesis, Lacrimation, and Salivation/sweating. The treatment for organophosphate poisoning involves the use of the antimuscarinic drug atropine.
Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.
The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not an extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn's disease?
Your Answer: Clubbing
Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which of the cranial nerves listed below is least likely to carry parasympathetic fibers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: II
Explanation:Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman is visiting the cardiology clinic due to experiencing shortness of breath. She has been having difficulty swallowing food, especially meat and bread, which feels like it is getting stuck.
During the examination, a mid-late diastolic murmur is detected, which is most audible during expiration.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Left atrial enlargement in mitral stenosis can lead to compression of the esophagus, resulting in difficulty swallowing. This is the correct answer. Aortic regurgitation would present with an early diastolic murmur, while mitral regurgitation would cause a pansystolic murmur. Pulmonary regurgitation would result in a Graham-Steel murmur, which is a high-pitched, blowing, early diastolic decrescendo murmur.
Understanding Mitral Stenosis
Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.
Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.
Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.
Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old alcoholic has been brought to the emergency department by his sister. His sister reports that he has been disoriented for the past few days and has had a few falls. Upon examination, he displays an unstable gait. He is unable to recall the name of the first female prime minister of the UK or the trip to the emergency department. He insists that he went to the beach yesterday - which his sister denies. Based on the presented symptoms, what is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a complication of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, include anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. This patient initially presented with confusion and an unsteady gait, which are signs of ataxia associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy. However, the presence of anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation suggests that the patient’s condition has progressed to Korsakoff’s syndrome.
In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease typically affects memory in a gradual and progressive manner.
Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. This condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which leads to damage and haemorrhage in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often follows untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is another condition caused by thiamine deficiency.
The primary features of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to acquire new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.
Understanding Korsakoff’s syndrome is crucial for individuals who have a history of alcoholism or thiamine deficiency. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage and improve the individual’s quality of life. Proper nutrition and abstinence from alcohol are essential for managing this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the GP with a 72-hour history of left ear pain. She has had a cough with coryzal symptoms for the past four days. She has no past medical history, allergies or current medications, and she is up-to-date with her vaccinations. Her temperature is 38.5ºC. No abnormality is detected on examination of the oral cavity. Following otoscopy, what is the most likely causative pathogen for her diagnosis of otitis media?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Otitis media is primarily caused by bacteria, with viral URTIs often preceding the infection. The majority of cases are secondary to bacterial infections, with the most common culprit being…
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
What distinguishes articular cartilage from other types of hyaline cartilage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular arrangement of collagen fibres
Explanation:Types of Cartilage
Hyaline cartilage is a type of cartilage that is firm and is composed of type II collagen. It is found in various parts of the body such as the nose, the cartilaginous rings of the trachea, the foetal skeleton, and lines synovial joints in a specialized form known as articular cartilage. Articular cartilage has a more regular arrangement of collagen fibers and slightly more elastin, which makes it less frictional and facilitates the movement of synovial joints.
Fibrocartilage, on the other hand, is made up of type I collagen and is much more solid. It is used to hold bones together, such as in the pubic symphysis. Lastly, elastic cartilage has a rich elastin content and forms the pinna of the ear.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Histology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications
Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.
On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of charged particles or solutes in a liquid medium due to an electric field?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electrophoresis
Explanation:Electrophoresis: Separating Molecules Based on Charge and Mass
Electrophoresis is a technique that separates solutes, molecules, or nucleic acids based on their mass and charge. It involves the migration of charged particles in a liquid medium under the influence of an electric field. The apparatus consists of two electrodes placed at either end of a support medium, or gel, which is suspended in a buffer solution. The sample is inserted into a well and a current is applied. Over time, positively charged solutes move towards the negative electrode, while negatively charged substances move towards the positive electrode. Once the migration is complete, the gel is removed and stained to color the substance being tested for, such as protein.
This technique is widely used in medical testing, but it requires a higher degree of operational and interpretive skill than many other tests, which is why it often takes longer to get a result. Electrophoresis has various uses and adaptations, such as standard electrophoresis for protein detection in the diagnosis of myeloma, identification of unusual lipid fractions in patients with inherited diseases, and detection of viral DNA through Southern Blotting. There is also Northern blotting, primarily a research technique at present, which uses electrophoresis to separate RNA. Additionally, Western blotting is used to test for the presence of antibodies to DNA through protein separation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents with acute closed angle glaucoma and is urgently seen by an ophthalmologist. The doctor prescribes a medication that acts as a muscarinic agonist and reduces intraocular pressure. What is the name of the medication prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pilocarpine
Explanation:Pilocarpine is the only drug that functions as a muscarinic agonist, making it the correct answer. By causing the sphincter pupillae muscle to contract, pilocarpine reduces resistance to aqueous outflow from the anterior chamber through the canals of Schlemm.
Oxybutynin, on the other hand, is a muscarinic antagonist and is therefore not the correct answer.
While physostigmine does enhance muscarinic activity, it does so by acting as an anticholinesterase rather than a muscarinic agonist.
Apraclonidine, an alpha-adrenergic agonist, both reduces aqueous production and increases uveoscleral outflow of aqueous.
Drugs Acting on Common Receptors
The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.
For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.
Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.
Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old diabetic man comes in with a heart attack and undergoes a coronary angiogram. What coronary artery/arteries provide blood supply to the anterior septum of the heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left Anterior Descending
Explanation:The heart receives blood supply from the coronary arteries, which originate from the left side of the heart at the root of the aorta as it exits the left ventricle.
The left coronary artery (LCA) provides blood to the left atrium and ventricle, as well as the interventricular septum. The circumflex artery, a branch of the LCA, supplies the lateral aspect of the left heart by following the coronary sulcus to the left. The left anterior descending artery (LAD), another major branch of the LCA, supplies the anteroseptal part of the heart by following the anterior interventricular sulcus around the pulmonary trunk.
The right coronary artery (RCA) follows the coronary sulcus and supplies blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the inferior aspect of the heart. The marginal arteries, which arise from the RCA, provide blood to the superficial portions of the right ventricle. The posterior descending artery, which branches off the RCA on the posterior surface of the heart, runs along the posterior portion of the interventricular sulcus toward the apex of the heart and supplies the interventricular septum and portions of both ventricles.
The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.
Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman with a history of endometriosis is having a hysterectomy. During the procedure, the gynaecology registrar observes the position of the ureter in relation to the uterus. Can you describe the location of the ureter in relation to the nearby blood vessels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ureter passes underneath uterine artery
Explanation:Long Term Complications of Vaginal Hysterectomy
Vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair can lead to enterocoele and vaginal vault prolapse as common long term complications. While urinary retention may occur immediately after the procedure, it is not typically a chronic complication. These complications can cause discomfort and affect the quality of life of the patient. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment if necessary. Additionally, patients should be educated on the potential risks and benefits of the procedure before undergoing a vaginal hysterectomy. Proper postoperative care and follow-up can help prevent or manage these complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which of the metastatic bone tumours mentioned below is most susceptible to pathological fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peritrochanteric lesion from a carcinoma of the breast
Explanation:Fracture risks are highest in peritrochanteric lesions due to loading. Lytic lesions from breast cancer are at greater risk of fracture compared to the sclerotic lesions from prostate cancer.
Understanding the Risk of Fracture in Metastatic Bone Disease
Metastatic bone disease is a condition where cancer cells spread to the bones from other parts of the body. The risk of fracture in this condition varies depending on the type of metastatic bone tumour. Osteoblastic metastatic disease has the lowest risk of spontaneous fracture compared to osteolytic lesions of a similar size. However, lesions affecting the peritrochanteric region are more prone to spontaneous fracture due to loading forces at that site. To stratify the risk of spontaneous fracture for bone metastasis of varying types, the Mirel Scoring system is used. This system takes into account the site of the lesion, radiographic appearance, width of bone involved, and pain. Depending on the score, the treatment plan may involve prophylactic fixation, consideration of fixation, or non-operative management. Understanding the risk of fracture in metastatic bone disease is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements relating to malignant mesothelioma is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is linked to cigarette smoking independent of asbestos exposure.
Explanation:This type of cancer is not associated with smoking cigarettes. The preferred treatment option is a complete removal of the tumor if caught early. Radiation therapy is commonly administered before or after surgery, but this type of cancer is not highly responsive to radiation. The most effective treatment involves a combination of chemotherapy drugs, with many regimens utilizing cisplatin.
Occupational cancers are responsible for 5.3% of cancer deaths, with men being more affected than women. The most common types of cancer in men include mesothelioma, bladder cancer, non-melanoma skin cancer, lung cancer, and sino-nasal cancer. Occupations that have a high risk of developing tumors include those in the construction industry, coal tar and pitch workers, miners, metalworkers, asbestos workers, and those in the rubber industry. Shift work has also been linked to breast cancer in women.
The latency period between exposure to carcinogens and the development of cancer is typically 15 years for solid tumors and 20 years for leukemia. Many occupational cancers are rare, such as sino-nasal cancer, which is linked to wood dust exposure and is not strongly associated with smoking. Another rare occupational tumor is angiosarcoma of the liver, which is linked to working with vinyl chloride. In non-occupational contexts, these tumors are extremely rare.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male visits his family doctor complaining of a red, scaly rash around his eyes, nose, and mouth. He has no notable medical history. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a biotin deficiency. What physical manifestation may have been observed during the examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alopecia
Explanation:Biotin deficiency is associated with alopecia, while muscle weakness and anergia are common features of thiamine deficiency. Bleeding gums and prolonged wound healing are characteristic of vitamin C deficiency, while pellagra, diarrhoea, and dermatitis are associated with niacin deficiency. Iodine deficiency can lead to goitre and mental disability in children.
Biotin, also known as vitamin B7, is a type of water-soluble B vitamin that serves as a cofactor for various carboxylation enzymes. Its primary function is to assist in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins. However, excessive consumption of raw eggs can lead to biotin deficiency, which can cause symptoms such as alopecia and dermatitis. Therefore, it is important to maintain a balanced diet and avoid overconsumption of certain foods to prevent biotin deficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 44-year-old man has been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus but cannot tolerate metformin therapy. What is the mechanism of action of alogliptin, which has been prescribed as an alternative?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce the peripheral breakdown of incretins
Explanation:Gliptins (DPP-4 inhibitors) work by inhibiting the enzyme DPP-4, which reduces the breakdown of incretin hormones such as GLP-1. This leads to a glucose-dependent increase in insulin secretion and a reduction in glucagon secretion, ultimately regulating glucose homeostasis. However, gliptins do not increase the production of GLP-1, directly stimulate the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells, inhibit the SGLT2 receptor, or reduce insulin resistance.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old girl, previously healthy, presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and confusion. The patient's father reports his child appearing fatigued, and having increased thirst and urinary frequency over the past few days. Upon laboratory analysis, the patient's serum glucose is found to be 25 mmol/L and urinalysis is positive for ketones. The medical team initiates fluid resuscitation and insulin therapy.
What electrolyte changes are anticipated following the treatment of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease in potassium levels
Explanation:The Na+/K+ ATPase pump is stimulated by insulin, leading to a decrease in serum potassium levels. This effect is particularly relevant in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis, who experience insulin deficiency and hyperkalemia. It is important to monitor serum potassium levels closely during the management of diabetic ketoacidosis to avoid the potential complications of hypokalemia. Insulin does not cause a decrease in sodium levels, and its effects on calcium and phosphate homeostasis are minimal. The resolution of ketoacidosis with insulin and fluids will result in an increase in serum bicarbonate levels back to normal range.
Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents with left foot drop and gradual weakness. He describes associated muscle twitching and cramping of the legs. On examination, there is marked weakness and hyperreflexia bilaterally. Left lower limb sensation is intact.
He is ultimately referred to a specialist team, who diagnose amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The patient asks about whether or not the condition is hereditary, as he has children. It is explained that ALS is familial in 5-10% of cases, but the rest are considered sporadic. After genetic testing, his condition is put down to a sporadic mutation affecting RNA splicing.
Where does this cellular process take place?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nucleus
Explanation:RNA splicing occurs in the nucleus of the cell, where introns are removed from pre-mRNA and exons are joined together to form mRNA. It does not take place in the cytoplasm, mitochondria, rough endoplasmic reticulum, or smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a breast lump that she has noticed for a few weeks. She is worried because her family has a history of breast cancer. She undergoes an urgent referral for further evaluation. A biopsy of the lump is performed to check for chromosomal abnormalities, specifically extra copies of the HER2 gene.
Which method is best suited for detecting these abnormalities?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluorescence in situ hybridisation
Explanation:Eastern blotting is a technique that can be used to study post-translational modifications of proteins, including the addition of lipids and phosphates. It is a valuable tool for investigating protein function and regulation.
Overview of Molecular Biology Techniques
Molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules such as DNA, RNA, and proteins. These techniques are used to detect and analyze these molecules in various biological samples. The most commonly used techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
Southern blotting is a technique used to detect DNA, while Northern blotting is used to detect RNA. Western blotting, on the other hand, is used to detect proteins. This technique involves the use of gel electrophoresis to separate native proteins based on their 3-D structure. It is commonly used in the confirmatory HIV test.
ELISA is a biochemical assay used to detect antigens and antibodies. This technique involves attaching a colour-changing enzyme to the antibody or antigen being detected. If the antigen or antibody is present in the sample, the sample changes colour, indicating a positive result. ELISA is commonly used in the initial HIV test.
In summary, molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules. These techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and ELISA. Each technique is used to detect specific molecules in biological samples and is commonly used in various diagnostic tests.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A pharmaceutical company is conducting tests on a new insulin formulation. As part of their analysis, they have verified that tyrosine kinase receptors are activated by insulin. What is the impact of these receptors on the target molecules?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Target molecule phosphorylation
Explanation:Activation of tyrosine kinase receptors leads to the phosphorylation of target molecules, which can result in various effects such as cell growth and differentiation. Insulin is an example of a drug that acts through tyrosine kinase receptors. It is important to note that target molecule oxidation, lysis, and reduction are not processes typically associated with tyrosine kinase receptor activation.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old male is suspected to have testicular torsion and requires scrotal exploration surgery. After making an incision in the skin and dartos muscle, what is the next layer of tissue that the surgeon will encounter during dissection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External spermatic fascia
Explanation:The layers that will be encountered in the given scenario are as follows, in sequential order:
1. The skin layer
2. The dartos fascia and muscle layer
3. The external spermatic fascia layer
4. The cremasteric muscle and fascia layer
5. (Unknown or unspecified layer)Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes
The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.
The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl with a history of anorexia nervosa is scheduled for removal of a lipoma. What nutritional deficiency is most likely to affect collagen formation during the wound healing process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of ascorbic acid
Explanation:The process of collagen cross linkage requires the presence of vitamin C, and when there is a deficiency of this vitamin, wound healing is known to be negatively affected.
Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders
Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.
Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)