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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy right ear...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy right ear that has been bothering him for the past five days. During the examination, he winces in pain when the outer ear is touched. Can you identify which part of the ear is considered the outer ear?

      Your Answer: Pinna

      Explanation:

      Earache: Types and Anatomy of the Ear

      Earache can be categorized into two types: otitis media and otitis externa. Otitis media refers to the inflammation of the middle ear, while otitis externa is the inflammation of the outer ear and/or canal. Pain on touch or gentle pulling of the outer ear is commonly associated with otitis externa.

      The outer ear is composed of the visible part of the ear, called the pinna, and the external auditory meatus near the tragus. The external auditory meatus extends from the pinna around 26 mm to the tympanic membrane. On the other hand, the middle ear reaches from the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the cochlea. This space contains three ossicles, namely the malleus, incus, and stapes, which transmit sound waves to the inner ear.

      The inner ear is made up of the cochlea, which is responsible for hearing, and the vestibular apparatus, which helps maintain balance. The vestibular apparatus consists of three semicircular canals and the vestibule.

      the anatomy of the ear and the different types of earache can help in identifying and treating ear problems. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing ear pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A clinical research group is conducting a study on diabetes epidemiology. As part...

    Correct

    • A clinical research group is conducting a study on diabetes epidemiology. As part of the study, researchers are collecting data on the age profile of a sample population in India.

      Among the various data collected, one of the variables was the age of a person. This was divided into four categories: under 18, 18-30, 30-50, and over 50. Respondents were asked to select one of these four options.

      What is this type of variable called?

      Your Answer: Ordinal categorical variable

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Data

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the different types of variables that can be encountered. One such variable is socio-economic status, which is not a numerical value but can be categorized into four ordinal categories. Ordinal categorical data has a logical order to its categorization, but mathematical functions cannot be performed with the numbers assigned to each category.

      Continuous metric data, on the other hand, can take any value and allows for mathematical functions to be performed. Examples of continuous data include height and weight. Discrete metric data is numerical but only takes certain values, such as the number of children in a family. Nominal categorical data has no hierarchy or gradation, such as blood group or yes/no questions.

      Normal parametric data assumes that variables are normally distributed, but this may not be the case for small sample populations. It is important to note that data can often fall into multiple categories. For example, systolic blood pressure can be considered continuous metric data, but in practice, it is often recorded as integers, making it somewhat like a discrete variable. Additionally, if a cut-off point is used, such as 140 mmHg, the data may become dichotomous and fall into the nominal category. the different types of data is crucial for accurate analysis and interpretation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department by her father due...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department by her father due to breathing difficulties. He suspects that she may have ingested a small toy while he was not looking.

      Which of the following statements accurately describes the lower respiratory tract?

      Your Answer: The right main bronchus is more vertical than the left

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Bronchial Tree

      The trachea divides into two bronchi at the sternal angle, with the right bronchus being wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left. This anatomical difference makes it more likely for foreign objects to become lodged in the right bronchus. However, this difference only occurs after the age of one, so younger children are at equal risk for foreign body aspiration in either bronchus.

      Each main bronchus further divides into lobar bronchi, with the left having two and the right having three. These lobar bronchi then give rise to tertiary or segmental bronchi, which supply a specific bronchopulmonary segment. These segments are anatomically and functionally separate from each other and can be removed without affecting the surrounding lung tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 17-year-old female is seeking a termination and she is currently 16 weeks...

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    • A 17-year-old female is seeking a termination and she is currently 16 weeks pregnant.
      At what point in the pregnancy does the law impose more restrictions on obtaining a termination?

      Your Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      Abortion Law in the UK

      The Abortion Act 1967, which was amended by the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act 1990, governs the law on abortion in the UK. According to this law, an abortion can be carried out until 24 weeks of pregnancy if two doctors agree that continuing with the pregnancy would pose a risk to the physical or psychological health of the mother or her existing children.

      If the pregnancy has progressed beyond 24 weeks, an abortion can only be carried out if two doctors agree that the woman’s health is gravely threatened by the pregnancy or if the infant is likely to be born with severe physical or mental abnormalities. It is important to note that there is no time limit on procuring an abortion if these criteria are met.

      In summary, the law on abortion in the UK allows for abortions to be carried out up to 24 weeks if there is a risk to the mother’s health or the health of her existing children. After 24 weeks, an abortion can only be carried out if the woman’s health is at risk or if the infant is likely to be born with severe physical or mental abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the more commonly recognized name for the compound referred to as...

    Correct

    • What is the more commonly recognized name for the compound referred to as vitamin E?

      Your Answer: Alpha tocopherol

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E and Other Essential Nutrients

      Vitamin E is a group of compounds that includes alpha tocopherol, beta tocopherol, gamma tocopherol, and delta tocopherol. While each of these compounds contains vitamin E activity, alpha tocopherol is the most biologically active and abundant form of vitamin E in the diet. Vitamin E plays a crucial role in protecting cells and proteins from oxidative damage by removing free radicals. It also has antithrombotic effects, which means it impairs the action of thromboxane and thrombin, reducing blood clotting and platelet aggregation.

      Adults are recommended to consume at least 15 mg of vitamin E daily, but larger quantities may also be beneficial. Good sources of vitamin E in the diet include sunflower oil, wheatgerm, and unprocessed cereals. In addition to vitamin E, other essential nutrients include alpha 1 antitrypsin, which prevents alveolar damage and lung dysfunction, beta carotene, which is responsible for vision development, boron, which is important for bone health, and thiamine, which can lead to polyneuropathy and heart failure if deficient. these essential nutrients and their roles in the body can help individuals make informed decisions about their diet and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the daily recommended amount of carbohydrates to consume? ...

    Correct

    • What is the daily recommended amount of carbohydrates to consume?

      Your Answer: 50 g

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Carbohydrates in the Diet

      Carbohydrates are essential for the body as they provide fuel for the brain, red blood cells, and the renal medulla. Although the average daily intake of carbohydrates is around 180 g/day, the body can function on a much lower intake of 30-50 g/day. During pregnancy or lactation, the recommended minimum daily requirement of carbohydrates increases to around 100 g/day.

      When carbohydrate intake is restricted, the body can produce glucose through gluconeogenesis, which is the process of making glucose from other fuel sources such as protein and fat. However, when carbohydrate intake is inadequate, the body produces ketones during the oxidation of fats. While ketones can be used by the brain as an alternative fuel source to glucose, prolonged or excessive reliance on ketones can lead to undesirable side effects. Ketones are acidic and can cause systemic acidosis.

      It is important to note that most people consume 200-400 g/day of carbohydrates, which is much higher than the recommended minimum daily requirement. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a balanced diet that includes carbohydrates in the appropriate amount to ensure optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What role do chylomicrons serve in the body? ...

    Correct

    • What role do chylomicrons serve in the body?

      Your Answer: To move lipids from the gut to the liver

      Explanation:

      The Role of Chylomicrons in Lipid Transport

      Chylomicrons play a crucial role in transporting lipids from the gut to the liver. When fats from the diet are absorbed in the small intestine, they form chylomicrons for transportation to the liver. These large lipoproteins are capable of transporting relatively large amounts of lipid compared to other lipoproteins.

      Lipid digestion begins in the stomach, where partial digestion and emulsification occur. As the chyle enters the small intestine, it mixes with biliary and pancreatic secretions, including pancreatic lipase and other lipases that further digest the lipid. The bile contains more cholesterol than the diet usually, and this cholesterol is also absorbed in a process known as the enterohepatic circulation.

      Digested triglyceride particles form micelles in the intestinal lumen, which aid in the absorption of the lipids into the enterocytes of the brush border. Once inside the enterocyte, triglycerides are packaged into chylomicrons, which enter the lymphatic circulation and then the bloodstream.

      Chylomicrons are modified by the enzyme lipoprotein lipase on endothelium and become chylomicron remnants. The chylomicron remnants are taken up by the liver and used to produce other lipoproteins. Overall, chylomicrons are essential for the efficient transport of lipids from the gut to the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A pregnant woman in her late 20s has been admitted to the hospital...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman in her late 20s has been admitted to the hospital with suspected pre-eclampsia.

      Which electrolyte is effective in treating pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Hypermagnesaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hypermagnesaemia is a condition that occurs when there is an excess of magnesium in the body. Although hypomagnesaemia is more common in hospital inpatients, certain situations can lead to hypermagnesaemia. These include renal impairment, rhabdomyolysis, excessive oral or intravenous magnesium intake, and excessive rectal magnesium intake.

      One of the treatment options for pre-eclampsia is intravenous magnesium infusion, which can also lead to hypermagnesaemia if overdosed. The clinical features of hypermagnesaemia include neuromuscular depression, respiratory depression, nausea and vomiting, flushing, hypersomnia, hypotension, and cardiac arrest. It is important to monitor magnesium levels in patients who are at risk of hypermagnesaemia to prevent any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In which location do most intracerebral hemorrhages take place? ...

    Correct

    • In which location do most intracerebral hemorrhages take place?

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      Types and Locations of Intracranial Bleeds

      Intracranial bleeds refer to any type of bleeding that occurs within the cranium. There are four main types of intracranial bleeds: extradural, subdural, subarachnoid, and intracerebral. Extradural bleeds occur outside the periosteal dura mater, while subdural bleeds occur between the meningeal dura mater and arachnoid mater. Subarachnoid bleeds occur between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, where cerebrospinal fluid circulates. Intracerebral bleeds, on the other hand, occur within the cerebral tissue itself.

      Of all the types of intracranial bleeds, intracerebral bleeds are the most common. They typically occur deep within the cerebral hemispheres, affecting the basal ganglia, such as the caudate nucleus and putamen. These types of bleeds are usually caused by hypertension, rather than trauma or atherosclerosis. While it is possible for bleeds to occur in any area of the brain, those that occur in the brainstem are particularly debilitating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old man recovering in hospital from a knee replacement experiences increasing difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man recovering in hospital from a knee replacement experiences increasing difficulty breathing. He also has a fever and has started coughing. The medical team suspects he may have a lower respiratory tract infection.
      Which of the following anatomical features is not susceptible to a lower respiratory tract infection?

      Your Answer: Pharynx

      Explanation:

      The Respiratory Tract and its Infections

      The respiratory tract can be divided into two parts: the upper and lower respiratory tract. The upper respiratory tract consists of the nose, nasal passages, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. On the other hand, the lower respiratory tract includes the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli, which are all located distal to the trachea.

      Acute upper respiratory tract infections are usually caused by viruses and can affect the nose, sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. These infections include rhinosinusitis, pharyngitis, and laryngitis. Symptoms of these infections may include coughing, sneezing, sore throat, and nasal congestion.

      Lower respiratory tract infections, on the other hand, are more severe and can affect the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli. These infections include pneumonia, bronchitis, and lung abscesses. Symptoms of lower respiratory tract infections may include coughing, chest pain, shortness of breath, and fever.

      It is important to understand the different parts of the respiratory tract and the infections that can affect them. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and promote recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.2
      Seconds

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Clinical Sciences (10/10) 100%
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