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Question 1
Correct
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are prescribing ipratropium bromide for a patient who has presented with an exacerbation of her COPD. What is the mechanism of action of ipratropium bromide:
Your Answer: Beta-2 agonist
Correct Answer: Muscarinic antagonist
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It can provide short-term relief in chronic asthma, but short-acting β2agonists act more quickly and are preferred.The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) can be added to β2agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to β2 agonist therapy.The aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief in mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients who are not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug (e.g. tiotropium).Its maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use; its duration of action is 3-6 hours, and bronchodilation can usually be maintained with treatment three times per day.The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. It can also trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists but not with antimuscarinics. Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in: Men with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder-outflow obstruction (worsened urinary retention has been reported in elderly men), People with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stages 3 and above (because of the risk of drug toxicity), People with angle-closure glaucoma (nebulised mist of antimuscarinic drugs can precipitate or worsen acute angle-closure glaucoma)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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Glucagon is secreted by which of the following pancreatic cell types:
Your Answer: α cells
Explanation:Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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External haemorrhoids may cause anal pain. When explaining to your patient why it does so, which of the following nerves will you point out as being affected?
Your Answer: Genitofemoral nerve
Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The pain associated with external haemorrhoids is carried by a branch of the pudendal nerve, specifically the somatic fibres (S2-S4). It innervates the external anal sphincter and most of the skin over the perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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Regarding the phases of gastric secretion, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: A high pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion.
Explanation:A low pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion, therefore when the stomach is empty or when acid has been secreted for some time after food has entered it, there is inhibition of acid secretion. However, when food first enters the stomach, the pH rises, and this leads to release of the inhibition and causes a maximum secretion of gastrin. Thus gastric acid secretion is self-regulating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following clinical features would you least expect to see in a lesion of the frontal lobe:
Your Answer: Incontinence
Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Explanation:Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing results from damage to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe. Incontinence may occur due to damage of the cortical micturition centre in the prefrontal cortex. Primitive reflexes and inability to problem solve may occur due to damage to the prefrontal cortex. Motor weakness of the contralateral limb with UMN signs may occur due to damage of the primary motor cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is known to have a chronic hepatitis B infection.Which of the following hepatitis B serology results is consistent with a patient that is chronically infected? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: HBsAg positive, anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HBc negative
Explanation:Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:Susceptible to infection:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = NegativeAnti-HBs = NegativeImmune due to natural infection:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = PositiveImmune due to vaccination:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = NegativeAnti-HBs = PositiveAcute infection:HBsAg = PositiveAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = NegativeIgM anti-HBc = PositiveChronic infection:HBsAg = PositiveAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = NegativeIgM anti-HBc = Negative
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 8
Correct
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An 82 year old man taking warfarin as a maintenance medication comes in to your clinic because of an infection. Which antibiotic is the safest choice for this patient?
Your Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:Alterations in the international normalized ratio (INR) brought about by the concurrent use of antibiotics and warfarin may result in either excessive clotting or excessive bleeding if they are deemed to have a high risk for interaction. As such, there should be careful consideration of the class of antibiotic to be used. Antibiotics from the following drug classes should generally be avoided as they have a high risk for interaction with warfarin, possible enhancing the anticoagulant effects of warfarin resulting in bleeding: Fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin), Macrolides (e.g. clarithromycin, erythromycin, azithromycin), Nitroimidazoles (e.g. metronidazole), Sulphonamides (e.g. co-trimoxazole, a combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole), Trimethoprim, Tetracyclines (e.g. doxycycline). Low risk antibiotics that have low risk for interaction with warfarin includes cephalexin, from the cephalosporin class, and clindamycin which is a lincomycin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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Thyroid cancer has spread to the regional lymph nodes of a patient as seen in a staging CT scan. The lymph from the thyroid gland will drain directly to which of the following nodes?
Your Answer: Deep lateral cervical lymph nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the thyroid gland involves the lower deep cervical, prelaryngeal, pretracheal, and paratracheal nodes. The paratracheal and lower deep cervical nodes, specifically, receive lymphatic drainage from the isthmus and the inferior lateral lobes. The superior portions of the thyroid gland drain into the superior pretracheal and cervical nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation period of less than 3 weeks?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Correct Answer: Diphtheria
Explanation:C. diphtheriae, which is the causative agent of diphtheria, is carried in the upper respiratory tract and spread by droplet infection or hand-to-mouth contact. The incubation period averages 2 to 5 days.Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The incubation period for EBV varies from 2 weeks to 2 months.The incubation for Hepatitis A virus is approximately 1 month.The incubation period for Hepatitis C ranges from 2 weeks to 6 months.The period from infection to development of anti-HIV antibodies is usually less than 1 month but may be up to 3 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 11
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis two years ago. Her symptoms have been steadily deteriorating, with no intervals of remission in sight.Which of the following aspects of nerve conduction is disrupted by multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Saltatory conduction
Explanation:Local currents propagate action potentials down the axons of neurons. This local current flow following depolarisation results in the depolarisation of the neighbouring axonal membrane, and when this region approaches the threshold, more action potentials are generated and so forth. Due to the refractory period, portions of the membrane that have recently depolarized will not depolarize again, resulting in the action potential only being able to go in one direction.The square root of axonal diameter determines the velocity of the action potential; the axons with the biggest diameter have the quickest conduction velocities. When a neuron is myelinated, the speed of the action potential rises as well.The myelin sheath is an insulating coating that surrounds certain neural axons. By increasing membrane resistance and decreasing membrane capacitance, the myelin sheath improves conduction. This enables faster electrical signal transmission via a neuron, making them more energy-efficient than non-myelinated neuronal axons.Electrical impulses are quickly transmitted from one node to the next, causing depolarization of the membrane above the threshold and triggering another action potential, which is then transmitted to the next node. An action potential is rapidly conducted down a neuron in this manner. Saltatory conduction is the term for this.Multiple sclerosis is an example of a clinical disorder in which the myelin sheath is affected. It is an immune-mediated disorder in which certain nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord become demyelinated. The ability of some areas of the nervous system to properly transmit action potentials is disrupted by demyelination, resulting in a variety of neurological symptoms and indications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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Question 13
Correct
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Thiopental sodium is contraindicated in which of the following:
Your Answer: Acute intermittent porphyrias
Explanation:Barbiturates induce hepatic enzymes. The enzyme gamma aminolevulinic acid synthetase, which produces porphyrins, can be induced and in susceptible patients an attack of acute intermittent porphyria can occur. Thiopental is absolutely contraindicated in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the occipital lobe:
Your Answer: Homonymous hemianopia
Explanation:Homonymous hemianopia is a visual field defect involving either the two right or the two left halves of the visual fields of both eyes. It is caused by lesions of the retrochiasmal visual pathways, ie, lesions of the optic tract, the lateral geniculate nucleus, the optic radiations, and the cerebral visual (occipital) cortex
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Regarding loop diuretics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Lower initial doses of diuretics should be used in the elderly because they are particularly susceptible to the side effects.
Correct Answer: The risk of hypokalaemia is greater with loop diuretics than with an equipotent dose of a thiazide diuretic.
Explanation:Hypokalaemia can occur with both thiazide and loop diuretics. The risk of hypokalaemia depends on the duration of action as well as the potency and is thus greater with thiazides than with an equipotent dose of a loop diuretic. Hypokalaemia is dangerous in severe cardiovascular disease and in patients also being treated with cardiac glycosides. Often the use of potassium-sparing diuretics avoids the need to take potassium supplements. In hepatic failure, hypokalaemia caused by diuretics can precipitate encephalopathy, particularly in alcoholic cirrhosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A possible diagnosis of Cushing's illness is being investigated in an overweight patient with resistant hypertension. A CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone) test is scheduled.Which of the following statements about corticotropin-releasing hormone is correct?Â
Your Answer: It is secreted from the anterior pituitary
Correct Answer: It is produced by cells within the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
Explanation:Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) is a neurotransmitter and peptide hormone. It is generated by cells in the hypothalamic paraventricular nucleus (PVN) and released into the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system at the median eminence through neurosecretory terminals of these neurons. Stress causes the release of CRH.The CRH is carried to the anterior pituitary through the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system, where it activates corticotrophs to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Cortisol, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and DHEA are all produced in response to ACTH.Excessive CRH production causes the size and quantity of corticotrophs in the anterior pituitary to expand, which can lead to the creation of a corticotrope tumour that generates too much ACTH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following globin chains makes up normal adult haemoglobin (HbA)?
Your Answer: Two alpha and two beta chains
Explanation:Total adult haemoglobin comprises about 96 – 98 % of normal adult haemoglobin (HbA). It consists of two alpha (α) and two beta (β) globin chains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 18
Correct
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The risk of renal impairment in a patient on ACE inhibitor therapy is increased by concomitant treatment with which of the following drug classes:
Your Answer: NSAIDs
Explanation:Concomitant treatment with NSAIDs increases the risk of renal damage, and with potassium-sparing diuretics (or potassium-containing salt substitutes) increases the risk of hyperkalaemia. Hyperkalaemia and other side effects of ACE inhibitors are more common in the elderly and in those with impaired renal function and the dose may need to be reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Many of the chemical digestion and absorption takes place in the small intestine. Most digestive enzymes in the small intestine are secreted by the pancreas and enter the small intestine through the pancreatic duct.Which of these digestive enzymes is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into monosaccharides?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glucoamylase
Explanation:Majority of carbohydrates are broken down into monosaccharides (glucose, fructose galactose) and are absorbed by the small intestine. Enzymes released from the brush border break down carbohydrate. Some carbohydrates, such as cellulose, are not digested at all, despite being made of multiple glucose units. This is because the cellulose is made out of beta-glucose that makes the inter-monosaccharide bindings different from the ones present in starch, which consists of alpha-glucose. Humans lack the enzyme for splitting the beta-glucose-bond.The principal brush border enzymes are dextranase and glucoamylase. Other brush border enzymes are maltase, sucrase, and lactase.Pancreatic amylase breaks down some carbohydrates (notably starch) into oligosaccharides. Dextranase and glucoamylase, then further break down oligosaccharides.Trypsin aids in digestion of protein.Chymotrypsin is a proteolytic enzyme that digests proteinCarboxypeptidase hydrolyses the first peptide or amide bond at the carboxyl or C-terminal end of proteins and peptides
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 29 year old patient with known inflammatory bowel disease presents to ED with surgical complications following his recent ileocaecal resection. Removal of the terminal ileum may result in the malabsorption of which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:On ingestion, vitamin B12 is bound to R protein found in saliva and gastric secretions, which protects it from digestion in the stomach. Intrinsic factor is secreted by gastric parietal cells. Receptors for the IF-B12 complex are present in the membrane of epithelial cells of the terminal ileum, which bind the complex and allow uptake of vitamin B12 across the apical membrane by endocytosis. Vitamin B12 is then transported across the basal membrane into the portal blood where it is bound to transcobalamin II and processed by the liver. In pernicious anaemia, there are autoantibodies against gastric parietal cells and intrinsic factor, resulting in vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A man suffered from a back injury due to a fall from a ladder. Significant bruising was found to be overlying his latissimus dorsi muscle.Which of the following statements regarding the latissimus dorsi muscle is considered correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It raises the body towards the arm during climbing
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi muscle is a broad, flat muscle that occupies the majority of the lower posterior thorax. The muscle’s primary function is of the upper extremity but is also considered to be a respiratory accessory muscle.Latissimus dorsi is a climbing muscle. With the arms fixed above the head, it can raise the trunk upwards, together with the help of pectoralis major. Functionally, the latissimus dorsi muscle belongs to the muscles of the scapular motion. This muscle is able to pull the inferior angle of the scapula in various directions, producing movements on the shoulder joint (internal rotation, adduction and extension of the arm). It is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6 – C8) from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, which enters the muscle on its deep surface.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman was brought in an ambulance to the Emergency Department with a 1-hour history of left-sided weakness and dysphasia. A CT scan is performed, and primary intracerebral haemorrhage is excluded as a possible cause. She is prepared for thrombolysis when her blood pressure is recorded at 200/115 mmHg.Out of the following, which step would be the most appropriate as the next step in her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Labetalol 10 mg IV
Explanation:A patient suffering from acute ischemic stroke can commonly present with hypertensive emergencies. Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in a patient with:1. Systolic blood pressure greater than 185 mmHg2. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 110 mmHgBut delaying thrombolytic therapy is associated with increased morbidity in patients with acute ischemic stroke. Managing high blood pressure in acute ischemic stroke requires a slower and more controlled reduction in BP. In the presence of an ischaemic stroke, rapid reduction of MAP can compromise blood flow, causing further ischemia and worsening of the neurological deficit.Intravenous labetalol is the agent of choice. The dose is 10 mg IV over 1-2 minutes. This dose can be repeated, or an infusion can be set up that runs at 2-8 mg/minute. Thrombolysis can be performed once the blood pressure is brought down to less than 180/105 mmHg.A nitrate infusion (for example, Isoket) can be used as an alternative in patients with contraindications to the use of beta-blockers (e.g., asthma, heart block, cardiac failure).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Regarding penicillin antibiotics, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with a history of atopy are at higher risk of hypersensitivity reactions.
Explanation:Allergic reactions to penicillins occur in 1 – 10% of exposed individuals; anaphylactic reactions occur in fewer than 0.05% of treated patients. Patients with a history of atopic allergy are at higher risk of anaphylactic reactions to penicillins. Patients with a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria, or rash immediately after penicillin use should not receive a penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics; about 0.5 – 6.5 % of penicillin-sensitive patients will also be allergic to the cephalosporins. Patients with a history of a more minor rash (i.e. non-confluent, non-pruritic rash restricted to a small area of the body) or delayed reaction (rash occurring more than 72 hours after penicillin administration), may not be truly allergic and may be considered for penicillin or beta-lactam treatment in severe infection (although possibility of allergy should be borne in mind). Other beta-lactam antibiotics (including cephalosporins) can be used in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited range of motion in the right elbow for the past two days. On examination, the right elbow is extremely tender with erythema and warmth of the overlying skin due to acute inflammation. Which ONE of the following statements is true with regards to acute inflammation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neutrophils are activated and adhere to the endothelium as a result of interaction with endothelial cell adhesion molecules
Explanation:Acute inflammation is defined as inflammation occurring within minutes to hours in response to an injury lasting for less than two weeks. Acute inflammation Rapid onset (minutes to hours)Quick resolution (usually days)Chronic inflammationMay last weeks, months, or yearsThere are five cardinal signs of inflammation:1) Pain2) Redness3) Warmth4) Oedema5) Loss of functionDuring acute inflammation, neutrophils are activated and attracted to the site of inflammation in response to various interleukins and cytokines. This process takes place via the following mechanism:1) MarginationNeutrophils flow nearer the vessel wall rather than in the axial stream, which is referred to as margination2) Rolling along the surface of vascular endothelium3) Adhesion to the endothelium by interaction with adhesion molecules (ICAMS and VCAMS)4) Diapedesis is the movement of neutrophils from the endothelial cells into the interstitial space by squeezing through the gaps between adjacent endothelial cellsBradykinin and histamine are both responsible for vasodilation which causes oedema and decreases intravascular osmotic pressure.Neutrophils dominate early (2 days)- Live longer- Replicate in tissues
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Regarding Clostridium tetani, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole is usually the antibiotic of choice for tetanus infection.
Explanation:Clostridium tetani infection is predominantly derived from animal faeces and soil. Â Clostridium tetani has exotoxin-mediated effects, predominantly by tetanospasmin which inhibits the release of GABA at the presynaptic membrane throughout the central and peripheral nervous system. Metronidazole has overtaken penicillin as the antibiotic of choice for treatment of tetanus (together with surgical debridement, tetanus toxoid immunisation, and human tetanus immunoglobulin).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 26
Incorrect
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All of the following statements is considered true regarding Streptococcus pneumoniae, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the commonest cause of erysipelas
Explanation:Erysipelas is a rare infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissues observed frequently in elderly patients. It is characterized by an acute spreading skin lesion that is intensely erythematous with a plainly demarcated but irregular edge. It is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Group A Streptococcus (GAS).GAS are susceptible to penicillin, which remains the drug of choice for treatment. For patients allergic to penicillin, erythromycin can be used.S. pyogenes colonizes the throat and skin on humans, making these sites the primary sources of transmission. Infections resulting from S. pyogenes include pharyngitis, scarlet fever, skin or pyodermal infections, and other septic infections. In addition, the sequelae rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis can occur as a result of infection with S. pyogenes.Agammaglobulinemia is mostly associated with S. pneumoniae.The M protein is attached to the peptidoglycan of the cell wall and extends tothe cell surface. The M protein is essential for virulence. The polysaccharide capsule is characteristic of S. pneumoniae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the temporal lobe:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Receptive dysphasia
Explanation:Damage to the Wernicke’s speech area in the temporal lobe can result in a receptive dysphasia. Hemispatial neglect is most likely to occur in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the occipital lobe. Expressive dysphasia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the Broca speech area in the frontal lobe. Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is most likely to occur in a lesion of the frontal lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Fenestrated capillaries are typically found where in the body:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal glomeruli
Explanation:Fenestrated capillaries, found in renal glomeruli, endocrine glands and intestinal villi, are more permeable than continuous capillaries with less tight junctions, and the endothelial cells are also punctured by pores which allow large amounts of fluids or metabolites to pass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following diseases is caused by a build-up of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a clonal (malignant) bone marrow disorder in which early lymphoid precursors multiply and replace the marrow’s normal hematopoietic cells. ALL is most common between the ages of 3 and 7, with 75 percent of cases occurring before the age of 6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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When a person changes from a supine to an upright position, which of the followingcompensatory mechanismsoccurs:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased contractility
Explanation:On standing from a prone position, gravity causes blood to pool in veins in the legs. Central venous pressure (CVP) falls, causing a fall in stroke volume and cardiac output (due to Starling’s law) and thus a fall in blood pressure. Normally this fall in BP is rapidly corrected by the baroreceptor reflex which causes venoconstriction (partially restoring CVP), and an increase in heart rate and contractility, so restoring cardiac output and blood pressure. Impaired autonomic nervous activity in the elderly accounts for the greater likelihood of postural hypotension. Any symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision or syncope is due to a transient fall in cerebral perfusion that occurs before cardiac output and mean arterial pressure (MAP) can be corrected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
