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  • Question 1 - After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having...

    Correct

    • After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having difficulty raising his right arm. The weakness is found to be of abduction of the right shoulder with particular difficulty initiating the movement. The movement at the shoulder that can be elicited is not particularly painful and there is no loss of cutaneous sensation.
      Which one of the following structures is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The suprascapular nerve arises from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are involved in shoulder abduction and external rotation. It also supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the posterior aspect of the shoulder. Injury to this nerve often results from repetitive overhead lifting, and athletes involved in sports like tennis and volleyball are at particular risk. In the case of the patient described, the injury is likely due to repetitive compression of the nerve from his backpack while hiking. Damage to the axillary nerve would result in loss of motor and sensory function to the deltoid and teres minor muscles, while injury to the deltoid muscle would result in difficulty of shoulder abduction and pain. Damage to the subacromial bursa would not significantly impair shoulder function but would be painful. The infraspinatus muscle is not responsible for initiating shoulder abduction and a muscle lesion would likely be painful, making it an unlikely option for the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
      Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and runs alongside the deep brachial artery in the spiral groove of the humeral shaft. It is susceptible to damage during midshaft humeral fractures, resulting in loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the hand and weakness in wrist extension. The ulnar nerve is located medially to the radial nerve and is not typically affected by midshaft humeral fractures. However, it can be injured by a fracture of the medial epicondyle, resulting in weakness in wrist flexion and loss of adduction and sensation in the medial aspect of the hand. The axillary nerve branches closer to the shoulder and is prone to injury with shoulder dislocation, causing weakness in the deltoid muscle. The median nerve is not located near the midshaft of the humerus but can be injured in various ways, resulting in sensory and motor deficits. The musculocutaneous nerve passes over the brachialis muscle and can be affected by entrapment or upper brachial plexus injury, causing weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination and sensory loss on the radial aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying and holding her elbow. She had been playing on the monkey bars when she fell and landed on her outstretched arm. On examination, she is holding her elbow in slight flexion and the forearm is pronated. There is no obvious deformity or swelling over the elbow, but there is localised pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect. Radiographs are normal and there are no obvious fractures.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Perform a closed reduction of a suspected radial head subluxation

      Explanation:

      Closed Reduction of Radial Head Subluxation in Children: Procedure and Management

      Subluxation of the radial head, commonly known as nursemaid’s elbow, is a common injury in children aged 2 to 5 years. It occurs when longitudinal traction is applied to an extended arm, causing subluxation of the radial head and interposition of the annular ligament into the radiocapitellar joint. The child typically presents with pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect of the elbow, holding the elbow in slight flexion and forearm pronation. Radiographs are usually negative, and the treatment of choice is a closed reduction of radial head subluxation.

      The closed reduction procedure involves manually supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow past 90 degrees of flexion while holding the arm supinated. The doctor then applies pressure over the radial head with their thumb while maximally flexing the elbow. A palpable click is often heard on successful reduction. Another technique that can be attempted is hyperpronation of the forearm while in the flexed position.

      It is important to reassure parents that there is no fracture and only simple analgesia and rest are required. Splinting and immobilisation are not necessary, and the child may immediately use the arm after reduction of the subluxation. There is no role for a bone scan or elbow arthroscopy in diagnosing or managing subluxation of the radial head.

      In conclusion, closed reduction of radial head subluxation is a simple and effective procedure that can be performed in the clinic setting. With proper management and follow-up, children can quickly return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      16.8
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and twisted his leg. As a result, he is experiencing difficulty in extending his knee and it is locked in 30 degree flexion. Upon examination, his knee is swollen and painful.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniscal tear

      Explanation:

      A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that occurs most frequently in young athletes and the elderly. It is caused by a rotational injury to the knee and can result in knee locking. The menisci play an important role in knee stability, weight bearing, shock absorption, and protection of the articular cartilage. To diagnose a meniscal tear, a doctor may perform McMurray’s’s test, which involves rotating the knee and extending it to identify pain or an audible pop. An MRI is the most sensitive imaging method to confirm the diagnosis.

      A posterior cruciate ligament tear is often part of a larger injury to other ligaments and is caused by hyperextension or hyperflexion of the knee. Symptoms include knee swelling and mild restriction in flexion, and a positive posterior drawer test can help with diagnosis.

      Collateral ligament tears are typically caused by a sudden forced twist or direct blow to the knee and present with pain, swelling, and a feeling of the knee giving way on the medial or lateral side, depending on which ligament is affected.

      Patella tendon rupture is most commonly seen in men aged 30-40 and is caused by high tensile forces on a weakened tendon. Symptoms include knee pain or swelling, difficulty straightening the leg, and displacement of the patella on X-rays. Risk factors include chronic tendonitis, corticosteroid use, previous or overuse injury, chronic kidney disease, and diabetes mellitus.

      Achilles tendon rupture is characterized by an audible snap and sudden onset of pain at the back of the leg. The Simmonds’ test is used to diagnose the condition, and involves squeezing the calf muscles to see if it results in plantar flexion of the foot. In a partial or complete Achilles tendon rupture, this connection is disrupted and plantarflexion will not occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      35.7
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man fell off a ladder while painting a wall and dislocated...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man fell off a ladder while painting a wall and dislocated his right shoulder. X-rays showed an anterior dislocation but no fractures. The shoulder was easily reduced without complications, and post-reduction radiographs were satisfactory. At his 2-week follow-up with his general practitioner, he reports difficulty in abducting his right arm. There are no neurovascular defects, and he has full sensation and good radial pulses. What imaging modality would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the shoulder

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging for Shoulder Injuries: MRI, Bone Scans, CT Scans, X-rays, and EMG

      Shoulder injuries in patients over 40 years old are often associated with acute avulsion injuries and rotator cuff tears. These tears can be degenerative and not related to trauma. The incidence of rotator cuff tears after acute dislocation in patients over 40 years old is high. Ultrasound and MRI are the preferred diagnostic tools for rotator cuff disease.

      Bone scans are not useful in this scenario, and CT scans with iv contrast may reveal bony pathology but are not necessary. Repeat shoulder X-rays are also not beneficial if the post-reduction X-rays are normal.

      Axillary nerve and brachial plexus injuries can occur after acute shoulder dislocation, but EMG is not necessary if there is no sensory deficit or distal weakness. Overall, MRI is the most effective diagnostic tool for shoulder injuries in this patient population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      30.8
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  • Question 6 - A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm. He is taken to the Emergency Department where an X-ray reveals a mid-humeral shaft fracture. There is no sign of a growing haematoma, and the patient has a strong radial pulse with good perfusion. Doppler studies of the arm show no evidence of bleeding.
      What is the most probable condition that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Mid-Humeral Shaft Fractures

      Mid-humeral shaft fractures can result in nerve damage, leading to various symptoms. Here are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:

      1. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand: This is likely due to damage to the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      2. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle: This may occur in shoulder dislocation or compression of the axilla, leading to weakness of adduction and loss of sensation over a small patch of the lateral upper arm.

      3. Inability to flex the wrist: This is controlled by the median nerve, which is more likely to be damaged in a supracondylar fracture.

      4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which can be compressed at the medial epicondyle of the humerus, causing ulnar entrapment.

      While compartment syndrome can also occur with mid-humeral shaft fractures, it is unlikely if no major bleeding was observed. It is important to be aware of these potential nerve injuries and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      37
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old man presents to an Orthopaedic Outpatient Clinic with a knee injury...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to an Orthopaedic Outpatient Clinic with a knee injury sustained during a football game. He cannot recall the exact cause of the injury. During the examination, you note a positive McMurray's's test and tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. What imaging modality would be the most beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer: MRI scan of the knee

      Explanation:

      Best Imaging Modality for Knee Injury: MRI Scan

      When a patient presents with knee pain, a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. In this case, a young patient with a positive McMurray’s’s test and pain on the lateral aspect of the knee joint suggests a lateral meniscal tear. The best imaging modality for this patient is an MRI scan of the knee. This scan allows for visualization of soft tissues in the knee, making it more sensitive than a CT scan or X-ray. An ultrasound scan may also be useful for diagnosing soft tissue injuries, but a joint aspirate would not be indicated. A CT scan with contrast would not be helpful in this situation. Overall, an MRI scan is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing a knee injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      17.6
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot internally or externally rotate or abduct the shoulder. The patient has a history of diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Common Shoulder Conditions and Their Symptoms

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that allows for a wide range of movements. However, it is also prone to various conditions that can cause pain and limit mobility. Here are some common shoulder conditions and their symptoms:

      1. Adhesive capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder): This condition is characterized by stiffness and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint. It can last up to 18-24 months and is more common in diabetics.

      2. Rotator cuff tendonitis: This condition causes pain and tenderness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the arm. However, some degree of abduction (up to 120 degrees) is still possible.

      3. Subacromial impingement: This condition causes pain and discomfort when lifting the arm, especially during abduction. However, some degree of movement is still possible.

      4. Medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow): This condition affects the elbow and causes pain and tenderness on the inner side of the elbow.

      5. Shoulder dislocation: This is an acute condition that causes severe pain and requires emergency medical attention.

      Treatment for these conditions may include painkillers, anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroid injections, physiotherapy, and gentle exercise. It is important to seek medical advice if you experience any shoulder pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      12.7
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  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department following a fall. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department following a fall. The patient is conscious and aware of her surroundings. She explains that she stumbled over a rug and used her right hand to break her fall. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications or supplements. She typically drinks one glass of wine per day and is a non-smoker. There is no relevant family history. Upon examination, there is tenderness in the right wrist, and a CT scan confirms the diagnosis.
      Which bone is most likely to be fractured?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      An elderly woman fell on an outstretched hand and is at risk for osteopenia/osteoporosis. This history suggests a scaphoid fracture, which can lead to avascular necrosis of the proximal portion of the bone if left untreated. A distal radial fracture, or Colles’ fracture, is also a possibility. The pisiform, a sesamoid bone on the ulnar aspect of the wrist, can be injured through a fall and may present with chronic wrist pain, grip weakness, or restricted wrist movement. The hook of the hamate, which forms the ulnar border of the carpal tunnel, can be fractured by hitting a club or bat onto a hard surface. Triquetrum and capitate fractures are less common but can occur following a fall on an outstretched hand and may be associated with a scaphoid fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      17.8
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  • Question 10 - A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his outstretched arm, resulting in a heavy fall. The team doctor examines him and notices a loss of contour in his right shoulder. Additionally, the man experiences numbness in the C5 dermatome of his right shoulder, which is commonly referred to as the regimental badge area. Which nerve is the most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in Upper Limb Trauma

      The upper limb is susceptible to various nerve injuries following trauma. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries that can occur in the upper limb:

      Axillary nerve: Shoulder dislocation can cause injury to the axillary nerve, which innervates the deltoid muscle. Sensation in the skin innervated by the superior lateral cutaneous nerve can be tested as an alternative.

      Radial nerve: Mid-humeral shaft fractures can damage the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      Ulnar nerve: Cubital tunnel syndrome and fracture of the medial epicondyle can cause ulnar nerve injury, leading to weakness in wrist flexion and a claw hand deformity.

      Median nerve: Supracondylar humerus fractures, wearing a tight forearm case, wrist laceration, or carpal tunnel syndrome can injure the median nerve, causing sensory loss and motor deficits such as loss of pronation in the forearm, weakness in wrist flexion, and loss of thumb opposition.

      Musculocutaneous nerve: The musculocutaneous nerve gives rise to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm, while the cutaneous distribution of the median and ulnar nerves is located more distally to the hand.

      In conclusion, understanding the common nerve injuries that can occur in upper limb trauma is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      38.1
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  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and is brought to the...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and is brought to the Emergency Department with a painful and deformed wrist that looks like a dinner fork. A radiograph shows a dorsally displaced, dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Her past medical history includes osteoporosis, type II diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this fracture?

      Your Answer: Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Distal Radial Fracture in an Elderly Patient

      Distal radial fractures, commonly known as Colles’ fractures, are often seen in elderly patients with poor bone quality. There are several treatment options available for this type of fracture, but the choice of treatment depends on various factors, including the patient’s age, overall health, and the severity of the fracture.

      Closed Reduction and Below-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
      This is the most common treatment option for distal radial fractures. The fracture can be reduced with closed manipulation following a haematoma block, and then immobilized with a below-elbow backslab (half cast).

      Skeletal Traction
      Skeletal traction is not practical for distal radial fractures as it can cause stiffness in the limb.

      Open Reduction and Internal Fixation
      While open reduction and internal fixation can provide the most anatomical reduction, it comes with risks that may outweigh the benefits, especially in elderly patients with poor bone quality and co-morbidities.

      Intramedullary Rod
      An intramedullary rod is rarely used for upper limb fractures.

      Closed Reduction and Above-Elbow Backslab (Half Cast)
      Although an above-elbow backslab can stabilize the joint above and below the fracture, it is not recommended as it can cause stiffness and difficulty in regaining full use after removal.

      In conclusion, the treatment of distal radial fractures in elderly patients should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s overall health and the severity of the fracture. Closed reduction and below-elbow backslab (half cast) is the most common treatment option, while other options should be considered on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      22.1
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  • Question 12 - A 57-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of back and hip...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of back and hip pain. He has been experiencing pain for a few months and has been taking paracetamol for relief. However, the pain has worsened and is now affecting his quality of life. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolaemia, which are managed with regular metformin and simvastatin. He has never been hospitalized before. Blood tests reveal normal calcium and phosphate levels, but a significantly elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level while the other hepatic aminotransferases are normal. No other blood abnormalities are detected. What condition is most consistent with these blood test results in this patient?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Bone and Joint Pain: Paget’s Disease

      Paget’s disease is a musculoskeletal pathology that can cause bone and joint pain. This disease is often asymptomatic for many years before being diagnosed through abnormal blood tests or X-ray images. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include constant, dull bone pain, joint pain, stiffness, and swelling. Shooting pain, numbness, tingling, or loss of movement may also occur.

      Other potential causes of bone and joint pain were considered and ruled out. Primary hyperparathyroidism, osteoporosis, and osteoarthritis were all unlikely due to normal calcium, phosphate, and ALP levels. Osteomalacia, a condition caused by vitamin D deficiency, can also cause bone and joint pain, but it is accompanied by low calcium and phosphate levels and a raised ALP.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and blood test results, Paget’s disease is the most likely diagnosis for their bone and joint pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      23
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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he sustained while playing basketball. Upon examination, you discover an anterior dislocation of his right shoulder. What pre- and post-relocation test must you perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examine axillary nerve function in the affected arm

      Explanation:

      Assessing Vascular and Nerve Injury in Anterior Shoulder Dislocation: Important Tests to Consider

      When examining a patient with anterior shoulder dislocation, it is crucial to assess for vascular and nerve injury in the affected arm. One way to test nerve function is by assessing sensation in the regimental patch area over the deltoid muscle. An X-ray before and after relocation is necessary to check for fractures and confirm successful reduction. If there is vascular injury, it will be evident from the examination of the limb, and urgent referral to surgeons is required. Checking the brachial pulse is acceptable to assess for vascular injury, and examining axillary nerve function before and after relocation is mandatory. Ultrasound of the affected limb may be helpful in identifying soft tissue injuries, but it is not as crucial as the other tests mentioned. Overall, a thorough assessment of vascular and nerve function is essential in managing anterior shoulder dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after injuring his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after injuring his right upper arm while playing at the park. According to his friend who witnessed the incident, the boy fell off the monkey bars and landed on his right side. The boy is experiencing significant pain and is hesitant to move his arm.
      What is the most frequent observation in patients with a Salter-Harris fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Salter-Harris Fractures: Types and Characteristics

      Salter-Harris fractures are a common type of injury in children that involve the growth plate. These fractures are classified into five different types based on their characteristics. The most common type is a type II fracture, which involves a fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis. This type of fracture occurs in up to 75% of all Salter-Harris fractures.

      Another type of fracture is a transverse fracture through the growth plate, which is relatively rare and occurs in approximately 5% of all cases. A crush fracture, known as a Salter-Harris type V, is an uncommon type of injury that damages the growth plate by direct longitudinal compression. This type of fracture carries a poorer prognosis than the other classes.

      It is important to note that Salter-Harris fractures can only occur in children before the fusion of the physis and must involve the growth plate by definition. However, greenstick fractures, which are incomplete fractures that only involve one of the bony cortices, do not affect the growth plate and are not included in the classification.

      In summary, understanding the different types and characteristics of Salter-Harris fractures is crucial in diagnosing and treating these injuries in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old woman experiences severe lumbar back pain that radiates around to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman experiences severe lumbar back pain that radiates around to the waist after a coughing fit. She is not taking any medications and her clinical observations are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporotic wedge fracture

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Back Pain in a 72-Year-Old Woman

      Back pain is a common complaint in primary care, and its differential diagnosis can be challenging. In this case, a 72-year-old woman presents with back pain after a coughing fit. The following conditions are considered and ruled out based on the available information:

      – Osteoporotic wedge fracture: postmenopausal women are at increased risk of osteoporosis, which can lead to vertebral fractures from minor trauma. This possibility should be considered in any older patient with back pain, especially if there is a history of osteoporosis or low-trauma injury.
      – Herniated lumbar disc prolapse: This condition typically causes sciatica, which is pain that radiates down the leg to the ankle. The absence of this symptom makes it less likely.
      – Mechanical back pain: This is a common cause of back pain, especially in older adults. It is usually aggravated by heavy lifting and prolonged standing or sitting, but not necessarily by coughing.
      – Osteoarthritis: This condition can cause back pain, especially in the lower back, but it is not typically associated with coughing. It tends to worsen with activity and improve with rest.
      – Osteomyelitis: This is a serious infection of the bone that can cause severe pain and fever. It is less likely in this case because the patient’s clinical observations are normal.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for back pain in a 72-year-old woman includes several possibilities, such as osteoporotic fracture, herniated disc, mechanical pain, osteoarthritis, and osteomyelitis. A thorough history and physical examination, along with appropriate imaging and laboratory tests, can help narrow down the possibilities and guide the management plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old woman fell down stairs and arrived at the Emergency Department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman fell down stairs and arrived at the Emergency Department with a painful left hip and difficulty walking. Imaging revealed a fracture of the left femoral head and a compression fracture of the T10 vertebra. She had no significant medical history prior to this incident.
      What is the most probable underlying condition in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteoporosis: A Disease of Reduced Bone Mass

      Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by reduced bone mass, leading to increased porosity of the skeleton and a higher risk of fractures. This patient is likely suffering from osteoporosis with accelerated bone loss, which can be exacerbated by physical inactivity and decreased muscle mass. While osteoporosis can be localized to a specific bone or region, it can also affect the entire skeleton as a manifestation of a metabolic bone disease. The most common forms of osteoporosis are senile and postmenopausal osteoporosis, which are characterized by critical loss of bone mass that makes the skeleton vulnerable to fractures.

      Other conditions, such as osteogenesis imperfecta, acute osteomyelitis, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, and metastatic breast carcinoma, can also affect bone health but present differently and have different underlying causes. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of osteoporosis to prevent and manage this disease effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after he notices that his right foot is ‘dropping’ as he walks. Upon examination, you observe that he is unable to dorsiflex his foot, although plantar flexion is normal. Additionally, he exhibits weakness of ankle eversion and some loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of his calf. After conducting a full systemic examination, you find no other abnormalities. The patient has no significant past medical history, except for a distal tibial fracture, which was in a plaster cast until 3 days ago. He works as a builder and consumes approximately 40 units of alcohol per week. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy: Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Explanation: The patient in question is experiencing a foot drop, which is a classic symptom of common peroneal nerve palsy in the right foot. This nerve is responsible for the sensory aspect of the lateral calf and dorsal aspect of the foot, as well as the muscles that evert and dorsiflex the foot and dorsiflexion the toes. Patients with this condition are unable to walk on their heels.

      Common causes of common peroneal nerve palsy include compression of the nerve at the head of the fibula, which is often superficial. In this case, the patient’s plaster cast following a fracture may have caused the compression.

      Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are unlikely causes, as the patient has no joint pain. Peripheral neuropathy, which typically presents with numbness and tingling in a glove and stocking distribution, is also unlikely as the patient’s symptoms are localized to the common peroneal nerve.

      A lateral ligament complex injury of the ankle may cause difficulty in eversion, but it would be preceded by an ankle injury and would be very painful, without any neurological symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 18 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain, swelling, and bruising after an inversion injury while playing football. What clinical signs would indicate the need for an ankle X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to weight-bear and pain over the lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules for X-rays in Ankle and Foot Injuries

      The Ottawa ankle rules are used to determine whether an X-ray is necessary for ankle and foot injuries. If there is pain in the malleolar zone plus bony tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or inability to weight-bear immediately post-injury and in the ED, an ankle X-ray is required. However, inability to weight-bear alone is not an indication for an X-ray, but a thorough assessment is necessary to rule out a bony injury. For foot X-rays, pain in the midfoot and bony tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal or navicular bone, or inability to weight-bear, are indications. Pain alone is not an indication for an ankle X-ray, and bony tenderness at the base of the first metatarsal does not warrant an X-ray. Understanding these rules can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about X-rays for ankle and foot injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 19 - A 38-year-old teacher and mother of two presents with back pain. This started...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher and mother of two presents with back pain. This started after lifting some heavy boxes during a move. The pain was initially limited to her lower back but now she has shooting pains radiating down the back of her thigh, the lateral aspect of her leg and into the lateral border of her left foot. The pain can wake her at night if she moves suddenly but does not otherwise disturb her sleep. She is well, without past medical history of note. She reports no lower limb weakness, disturbance of sphincter function, nor any saddle symptoms. Examination reveals a tender lumbar spine, numbness to the lateral border of the left foot and pain on straight leg raise at 40 degrees on the left. There is no limb weakness.
      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give analgesia and refer for physiotherapy, with a review after 8 weeks to consider onward referral to a spinal surgeon or musculoskeletal medicine specialist if no better

      Explanation:

      Management of Sciatica: Analgesia and Referral for Physiotherapy

      Sciatica, also known as lumbar radiculopathy, is a common condition caused by a herniated disc, spondylolisthesis, or spinal stenosis. It is characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness that typically extends from the buttocks down to the foot. Diagnosis is made through a positive straight leg raise test. Management involves analgesia and early referral to physiotherapy. Bed rest is not recommended, and patients should continue to stay active. Symptoms usually resolve within 6-8 weeks, but if they persist, referral to a specialist may be necessary for further investigation and management with corticosteroid injections or surgery. Red flag symptoms, such as major motor weakness, urinary/faecal incontinence, saddle anaesthesia, night pain, fever, systemic symptoms, weight loss, past history of cancer, or immunosuppression, require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral bisphosphonates. She expresses concern about the potential side-effects of the medication.
      What is the most frequent side-effect she may encounter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent bone loss and treat conditions such as Paget’s disease, hypercalcaemia, and metastatic bone disease. However, they can cause side-effects such as oesophagitis, gastritis, and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Patients are advised to take bisphosphonates with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30-60 minutes after ingestion to reduce the risk of upper gastrointestinal symptoms. Other side-effects include fever, myalgias, and arthralgias, which are more common with intravenous bisphosphonate therapy. Hypercalcaemia is not a common side-effect, and bisphosphonates can actually help treat it. Atrial fibrillation and femoral shaft fractures are not commonly associated with bisphosphonate use, but osteonecrosis of the jaw is a rare but well-known side-effect that can be reduced with antibiotic prophylaxis before dental interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 21 - What is the next step in the management of Mary, a 19-year-old army...

    Incorrect

    • What is the next step in the management of Mary, a 19-year-old army recruit who is experiencing bilateral anterior shin pain during her basic military training? Mary reports a diffuse pain along the middle of her shin with tenderness along the anterolateral surface of the tibia and pain on resisted dorsiflexion. Her pain is more severe at the beginning of exercise but decreases during training.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radiographs of bilateral tibia/fibula

      Explanation:

      Tibial Stress Syndrome: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Tibial stress syndrome is a common overuse injury that affects the shin area. It is often seen in athletes and military recruits who engage in high-impact activities or over-train. The condition is caused by traction periostitis of either the tibialis anterior or tibialis posterior on the tibia.

      Diagnosis of tibial stress syndrome involves obtaining basic radiographs to rule out any stress fractures or periosteal exostoses. If a stress fracture or other soft tissue injury is suspected, an MRI or bone scan may be indicated. However, ultrasound does not play a role in the imaging of tibial stress syndrome.

      The first step in managing tibial stress syndrome is activity modification. This involves decreasing the intensity and frequency of exercise, engaging in low-impact activities, modifying footwear, and regularly stretching and strengthening the affected area. In most cases, these measures are successful in treating the condition.

      In severe cases that have failed non-operative treatment, a deep posterior compartment fasciotomy and release of the painful portion of the periosteum may be indicated.

      It is important to reassure the patient and advise them to rest and ice their shins after exercise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients with tibial stress syndrome can return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 22 - An older man tries to lift a heavy shopping bag but experiences sudden...

    Incorrect

    • An older man tries to lift a heavy shopping bag but experiences sudden pain in his shoulder. As a result, he feels soreness in the area of the greater tuberosity of the humerus. He notices that he cannot initiate abduction when he tries to move his shoulder, but can continue to abduct once the arm is lifted away from his side. The shoulder flexion and extension can be performed normally, and the humerus medial and lateral rotation is also unaffected. What is the most probable diagnosis for the tendon injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      Muscles of the Shoulder: Functions and Roles

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that relies on several muscles to perform its various movements. Here are some of the key muscles involved in shoulder movement and their functions:

      Supraspinatus: This muscle initiates the first 15-20 degrees of abduction of the arm. After this point, the middle fibers of the deltoid take over. The supraspinatus is also part of the rotator cuff.

      Infraspinatus: Along with the teres minor, the infraspinatus is a lateral rotator of the humerus. It is also part of the rotator cuff.

      Deltoid: The deltoid muscle assists with shoulder abduction after the first 15-20 degrees, which is initiated by the supraspinatus.

      Subscapularis: This muscle inserts into the lesser tuberosity of the humerus and is a medial rotator of the humerus. It also helps stabilize the shoulder joint as part of the rotator cuff.

      Biceps brachii: This muscle is responsible for flexion of the arm and forearm, as well as supination of the forearm. However, it does not play a role in abduction of the humerus.

      Understanding the functions and roles of these muscles can help with injury prevention and rehabilitation, as well as improving overall shoulder strength and mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her right femur. Fracture of the femoral neck may lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head as a result of the interruption of which artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Lower Body: Functions and Importance

      The lower body is supplied with blood by various arteries, each with its own specific function. The medial circumflex femoral artery, for instance, is responsible for providing blood to the femoral neck. However, in cases of femoral neck fractures, this artery may be ruptured, leading to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

      The first perforating branch of the deep femoral artery, on the other hand, supplies the posterior compartment of the thigh, including the hamstrings. Meanwhile, the inferior epigastric artery, a branch of the external iliac artery, is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall.

      The internal pudendal artery, on the other hand, is the primary source of blood to the perineum. Lastly, the lateral circumflex femoral artery supplies the lateral thigh and hip, although the primary supply to the head of the femur usually comes from the medial femoral circumflex. Understanding the functions and importance of these arteries is crucial in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to the lower body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 24 - A 29-year-old professional tennis player experiences sudden shoulder pain while serving during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old professional tennis player experiences sudden shoulder pain while serving during a match. The tournament doctor evaluates him on the sideline and the player reports difficulty with raising his arm. Upon examination, the doctor finds that the patient is unable to initiate abduction of the arm, but is able to continue the motion when the doctor assists with a few degrees of abduction.

      What is the probable reason for the player's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tear

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing difficulty initiating abduction of their affected arm, but is able to actively complete the range of motion if the initial stages of abduction are performed for them. This is consistent with a tear in the supraspinatus muscle, which is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The supraspinatus is responsible for the initial 15 degrees of abduction, after which the deltoid muscle takes over. In contrast, damage to the infraspinatus or teres minor muscles would typically affect lateral rotation or adduction, respectively. A tear in the subscapularis muscle, which is responsible for adduction and medial rotation, is a possible diagnosis given the patient’s symptoms. Dysfunction in the deltoid muscle or axillary nerve would prevent full abduction of the arm, but this is not the case for this patient. Deltoid tears are rare and usually associated with traumatic shoulder dislocation or large rotator cuff injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old accountant complains of chronic pain on the lateral aspect of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old accountant complains of chronic pain on the lateral aspect of his right elbow that worsens during tennis, particularly when executing a backhand. Upon examination, it is observed that the pain is triggered by resisted wrist extension while the elbow is fully extended.
      Which muscle attachment is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis: The Role of Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB)

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a prevalent overuse injury that causes tendinosis and inflammation at the origin of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) muscle. While several muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the elbow, the ECRB is the most commonly affected in this condition.

      Repetitive pronation and supination with the elbow in extension can cause microtears at the ECRB origin, leading to inflammation and even radial nerve entrapment syndrome. Radiographs are usually normal, and an MRI may show increased signal intensity at the ECRB tendon, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

      Non-operative treatment, including activity modification, rest, ice, NSAIDs, and physical therapy, is successful in 95% of patients. However, it may take up to a year to be effective. Operative release and debridement of the ECRB origin are only considered in rare cases when non-operative treatment fails.

      While other muscles, such as the extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and anconeus, also attach to the lateral epicondyle, they are less likely to be involved in lateral epicondylitis. Understanding the role of the ECRB in this condition can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 26 - A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved in a car accident. She is alert and receives initial resuscitation in the ED. She has an open fracture of the left tibia and is seen by the orthopaedic surgery team.
      Later during the day, she undergoes an intramedullary nailing procedure for fixing her fractured tibia. Seven days after the surgery, the patient complains of gradually worsening severe pain in the left leg.
      Upon examination, she is found to be febrile and the wound area is not markedly erythematosus and there is no discharge from the wound site. There is no left calf tenderness and no swelling. Blood tests reveal a raised white cell count and inflammatory markers, and a blood culture grows Staphylococcus aureus. An X-ray and leg Doppler ultrasound imaging reveal no subcutaneous gas. An urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) report prompts the surgeon to take this patient urgently back to theatre.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomyelitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Postoperative Patient with Severe Pain and Fever

      Possible diagnoses for a postoperative patient with sudden onset of severe pain and fever include infection in the overlying tissue or in the bone itself. Cellulitis and necrotising fasciitis are less likely, while osteomyelitis is the most probable diagnosis, as indicated by the urgent request for an MRI and the need for surgical intervention. Osteomyelitis requires prolonged intravenous antibiotics and surgical debridement, and an MRI would typically show bone marrow oedema. A deep vein thrombosis is less likely due to the absence of clinical signs and ultrasound imaging findings. Cellulitis would present with superficial redness and less severe pain, while necrotising fasciitis would show subcutaneous gas on imaging. A surgical wound infection is possible but would typically involve pus discharge and not prompt urgent surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 27 - A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of severe pain at night due to her osteoarthritis. She has been suffering from this condition for the past 12 years and had a total knee replacement surgery on her right knee last year, which significantly improved her pain. However, for the past two months, she has been experiencing excruciating pain in her left knee. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and peptic ulcer disease and is currently taking 4 g of paracetamol daily. She tried using topical capsaicin last month, which provided some relief, but she is now seeking alternative pain management options. The patient has normal liver function tests and no history of liver disease.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add codeine

      Explanation:

      Pain Management Options for a Patient with Knee Osteoarthritis

      When managing the pain of a patient with knee osteoarthritis, it is important to consider their medical history and current medication regimen. In this case, the patient is already taking non-opioids and topical capsaicin is not providing sufficient relief. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) analgesic ladder, the next step would be to add a weak opioid such as codeine or tramadol.

      Offering morphine modified-release would not be appropriate as it is a strong opioid and should only be considered after trying a weak opioid first. Aspirin and ibuprofen are not recommended due to the patient’s history of peptic ulcer disease.

      While a total knee replacement may ultimately be necessary to alleviate the patient’s pain, a pharmacological approach should be attempted first. This will involve assessing the patient’s fitness for surgery and anesthesia before proceeding with any surgical intervention. By managing the patient’s pain with medication, their quality of life can be improved while they await further treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old woman has fallen and fractured the rib that contributes to the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has fallen and fractured the rib that contributes to the costal margin at the mid-axillary line on her left side.
      Which rib forms the costal margin at the mid-axillary line?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tenth rib

      Explanation:

      The Tenth Rib and the Costal Margin

      The tenth rib plays an important role in forming the costal margin. This margin is the lower edge of the ribcage, and it helps to protect the organs in the abdomen. Specifically, the tenth rib forms the costal margin at the mid-axillary line. It is important to note that the eighth, seventh, and ninth ribs do not form the costal margin. Additionally, the eleventh and twelfth ribs are shorter than the tenth rib and do not reach as far as the mid-axillary line. Understanding the anatomy of the ribcage and the costal margin can be helpful in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 29 - A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The patient notes that she also has symptoms of numbness and tingling of her right hand and wrist, which seem to be worse at night, but improve when she hangs her arm down by the side of the bed. She has also had some difficulty gripping objects and finds it increasingly difficult opening bottles and jars. The clinician suspects that she may have carpal tunnel syndrome.
      These clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome are due to compression of which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Related Nerves and Arteries

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, a canal located on the anterior side of the wrist. The tunnel is composed of carpal bones, with the flexor retinaculum forming its roof. The median nerve and tendons of flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus pass through this tunnel. Inflammation of the ulnar bursa sheath can compress the median nerve, leading to pain and weakness in the hand. However, the radial and ulnar arteries and nerves do not pass through the carpal tunnel. Compression of the radial or ulnar artery can result in ischaemic symptoms, while the ulnar nerve may become entrapped in the cubital tunnel, causing cubital tunnel syndrome. Understanding the anatomy and related conditions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of wrist and hand pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on a wet kitchen floor and fell onto her outstretched hand. Her X-ray shows a fracture within 2.5 cm of the distal radius, with dorsal displacement of the distal segment and avulsion of the ulnar styloid.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colles’ fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Fractures of the Wrist: Colles’, Smith’s, Barton’s, and Chauffeur’s Fractures

      Fractures of the wrist are common injuries, with the most frequent being the Colles’ fracture. This type of fracture occurs within 2.5 cm of the wrist and is often seen in elderly women who suffer a fall onto an outstretched hand. The Colles’ fracture is characterized by dorsal displacement of the distal fragment, radial displacement of the hand, radial shortening due to impaction, and avulsion of the ulnar styloid. Treatment involves assessing the patient’s neurovascular status, followed by reduction and fixation of the fracture with a Colles’ plaster.

      Another type of wrist fracture is the Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture with ventral displacement of the distal fragment. This injury often results from a fall onto the back of the hand. A Barton’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the distal radius with associated dorsal or volar subluxation of the distal fragment, similar to a Colles’ or reverse Colles’ fracture. Finally, a Chauffeur’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process.

      In conclusion, wrist fractures are common injuries that can be classified into different types based on their location and displacement. Proper assessment and treatment are essential for optimal recovery and function of the affected wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (11/12) 92%
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