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  • Question 1 - Regarding pressures and airflow during the normal breathing cycle, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding pressures and airflow during the normal breathing cycle, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: During expiration both intrapleural pressure and alveolar pressure rise.

      Correct Answer: Negative intrapleural pressure causes dynamic compression of the airways.

      Explanation:

      Dynamic compression occurs during forced expiration, when as the expiratory muscles contract, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is known to have a chronic hepatitis B infection.Which of the following hepatitis B serology results is consistent with a patient that is chronically infected? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: HBsAg negative, anti-HBs negative, anti-HBc negative

      Correct Answer: HBsAg positive, anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HBc negative

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:Susceptible to infection:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = NegativeAnti-HBs = NegativeImmune due to natural infection:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = PositiveImmune due to vaccination:HBsAg = NegativeAnti-HBc = NegativeAnti-HBs = PositiveAcute infection:HBsAg = PositiveAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = NegativeIgM anti-HBc = PositiveChronic infection:HBsAg = PositiveAnti-HBc = PositiveAnti-HBs = NegativeIgM anti-HBc = Negative

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 72 year old man is brought to ED by ambulance with sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old man is brought to ED by ambulance with sudden onset chest pain, palpitations and shortness of breath. His HR is 160 bpm and BP 90/65. ECG demonstrates new-onset fast atrial fibrillation. Which of the following is the first-line treatment option in this case:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synchronised DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      All patients with adverse features suggesting life-threatening haemodynamic instability (shock, syncope, heart failure, myocardial ischaemia) caused by new onset atrial fibrillation should undergo emergency electrical cardioversion with synchronised DC shock without delaying to achieve anticoagulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a cohort study used...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a cohort study used to investigate the relationship between exposure to a risk factor and a future outcome:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Particularly suitable for rare diseases

      Explanation:

      Advantages: ideal for studying associations between an exposure and an outcome when the exposure is uncommon, the time sequence of events can be assessed, they can provide information on a wide range of disease outcomes, the absolute and relative risk of disease can be measured directly, they can give a direct estimation of disease incidence ratesDisadvantages: costly and can take long periods of time if the outcome is delayed, subject to subject-selection and loss to follow-up bias, large sample size required for rare outcome of interest so it is not useful for rare diseases, prone to confounding

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Study Methodology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following pathogens is the common cause of diarrhoea in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathogens is the common cause of diarrhoea in a patient who has had a prolonged course of a broad spectrum of antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is the most likely cause of diarrhoea after a long course of broad-spectrum antibiotic treatment. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea appeared to be linked to an increase in the usage of third-generation cephalosporins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited range of motion in the right elbow for the past two days. On examination, the right elbow is extremely tender with erythema and warmth of the overlying skin due to acute inflammation. Which ONE of the following statements is true with regards to acute inflammation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils are activated and adhere to the endothelium as a result of interaction with endothelial cell adhesion molecules

      Explanation:

      Acute inflammation is defined as inflammation occurring within minutes to hours in response to an injury lasting for less than two weeks. Acute inflammation Rapid onset (minutes to hours)Quick resolution (usually days)Chronic inflammationMay last weeks, months, or yearsThere are five cardinal signs of inflammation:1) Pain2) Redness3) Warmth4) Oedema5) Loss of functionDuring acute inflammation, neutrophils are activated and attracted to the site of inflammation in response to various interleukins and cytokines. This process takes place via the following mechanism:1) MarginationNeutrophils flow nearer the vessel wall rather than in the axial stream, which is referred to as margination2) Rolling along the surface of vascular endothelium3) Adhesion to the endothelium by interaction with adhesion molecules (ICAMS and VCAMS)4) Diapedesis is the movement of neutrophils from the endothelial cells into the interstitial space by squeezing through the gaps between adjacent endothelial cellsBradykinin and histamine are both responsible for vasodilation which causes oedema and decreases intravascular osmotic pressure.Neutrophils dominate early (2 days)- Live longer- Replicate in tissues

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 2nd-year medical student is solving an exam paper with questions about the...

    Incorrect

    • A 2nd-year medical student is solving an exam paper with questions about the immune system. She comes across a question regarding innate immunity. Innate immunity is the immunity naturally present within the body from birth. Which ONE of the following is not a part of this type of immunity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibody production

      Explanation:

      Innate immunity, also called non-specific immunity, refers to the components of the immune system naturally present in the body at birth. The components of innate immunity include: 1) Natural Killer Cells 2) Neutrophils 3) Macrophages 4) Mast Cells 5) Dendritic Cells 6) Basophils. Acquired or adaptive immunity is acquired in response to infection or vaccination. Although the response takes longer to develop, it is also a more long-lasting form of immunity. The components of this system include: 1) T lymphocytes 2) B lymphocytes 3) Antibodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 4-year-old child has been convulsing for 20 minutes. She has received two...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child has been convulsing for 20 minutes. She has received two doses of lorazepam. She takes phenytoin for maintenance therapy, and you draw up a phenobarbitone infusion.What dose of phenobarbitone is advised in the treatment of the convulsing child that reaches that stage of the APLS algorithm? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes

      Explanation:

      If a convulsing child reaches step 3 of the APLS algorithm, then a phenytoin infusion should be set up at 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes. If they are already taken phenytoin as maintenance therapy, then a phenobarbitone infusion should be set up at 20 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient with pronounced tremor, muscle contractions, muscle spasms, and slowness of movement...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with pronounced tremor, muscle contractions, muscle spasms, and slowness of movement is brought in by his family. He has a long history of mental health issues for which he is currently treated with a variety of medications.Which of the medications listed below is most likely to be the cause of these side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Acute dyskinesias and dystonic reactions, tardive dyskinesia (rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw), Parkinsonism (tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity), akinesia, akathisia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are all examples of extrapyramidal side effects. They are caused by dopamine depletion or blockade in the basal ganglia; this lack of dopamine frequently mimics idiopathic extrapyramidal pathologies.The first-generation antipsychotics, which are strong dopamine D2 receptor antagonists, are the drugs most commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. Haloperidol and fluphenazine are the two drugs in this class that are most commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. Extrapyramidal adverse effects are less common in second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., olanzapine) than in first-generation antipsychotics.Other drugs are linked to extrapyramidal symptoms as well, but at a lower rate. Some antidepressants, lithium, various anticonvulsants, antiemetics, and, in rare cases, oral contraceptive agents are among them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient presents with severe vomiting. They take a maintenance dose of 12.5...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with severe vomiting. They take a maintenance dose of 12.5 mg of prednisolone daily for their COPD. They are unable to swallow or keep down tablets at present, and you plan on converting them to IV hydrocortisone.What dose of hydrocortisone is equivalent to this dose of prednisolone? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50 mg

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone is four times more potent than hydrocortisone, and therefore, a dose of 12.5 mg would be equivalent to 50 mg of hydrocortisone.The following table summarises the relative potency of the main corticosteroids compared with hydrocortisone:CorticosteroidPotency relative to hydrocortisonePrednisolone4 times more potentTriamcinolone5 times more potentMethylprednisolone5 times more potentDexamethasone25 times more potent

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the main route of transmission of Mumps? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main route of transmission of Mumps?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory droplet route

      Explanation:

      Mumps is primarily transmitted person to person via respiratory droplets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You examine a 50-year-old female who has a swollen, painful right big toe. She...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 50-year-old female who has a swollen, painful right big toe. She has a history of gout, and this discomfort is identical to prior relapses, according to her. She is currently taking 200 mg of allopurinol per day and has been for the last year. This is her second round of acute gout within this time period. She has no prior medical history to speak of and does not take any other medications. She doesn't have any known drug allergies.Which of the following management options is the SINGLE MOST APPROPRIATE? 

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue with the allopurinol and commence naproxen

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol should not be started during an acute gout episode because it can both prolong and trigger another acute attack. Allopurinol should be continued in patients who are currently taking it, and acute attacks should be treated as usual with NSAIDs or colchicine, as needed.Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs), such as naproxen, are the first-line treatment for acute gout attacks. Colchicine can be used in situations where NSAIDs are contraindicated, such as in patients with hypertension or those who have had a history of peptic ulcer disease. Because there is no reason for this patient to avoid NSAIDs, naproxen would be the medicine of choice from the list above.It would be reasonable to titrate up the allopurinol dose once the acute episode has subsided, targeting <6 mg/dl (<360 µmol/l) plasma urate levels .Febuxostat (Uloric) is a drug that can be used instead of allopurinol to treat persistent gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following could denote a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following could denote a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in a patient infected with HIV:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD4 count < 200 cells/uL

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of AIDS can be made in a patient infected with HIV if the patient has a CD4 count < 200 cells/uL, or an AIDS-defining illness. Antiretroviral treatment should be considered in patients with CD4 counts < 350 cells/uL. Oral candidiasis is not an AIDS defining illness – candidiasis of the bronchi, trachea or lungs or of the oesophagus is an AIDS defining illness. A positive p24 antigen test seen in early HIV infection and does not indicate the development of AIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Approximately what proportion of lymphocytes are B-cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Approximately what proportion of lymphocytes are B-cells:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      B-cells (20% of lymphocytes) mature in the bone marrow and circulate in the peripheral blood until they undergo recognition of antigen. B-cell immunoglobulin molecules synthesised in the cell are exported and bound to the surface membrane to become the B-cell receptor (BCR) which can recognise and bind to a specific antigen (either free or presented by APCs). The BCR is also important for antigen internalisation, processing and presentation to T helper cells. Most antibody responses require help from antigen-specific T helper cells (although some antigens such as polysaccharide can lead to T-cell independent B-cell antibody production). When the B-cell is activated, the receptor itself is secreted as free soluble immunoglobulin and the B-cell matures into a memory B-cell or a plasma cell (a B-cell in its high-rate immunoglobulin secreting state). Plasma cells are non-motile and are found predominantly in the bone marrow or spleen. Most plasma cells are short-lived (1 – 2 weeks) but some may survive much longer. A proportion of B-cells persist as memory cells, whose increased number and rapid response underlies the augmented secondary response of the adaptive immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with symptoms suggesting an anaphylactic reaction.Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with symptoms suggesting an anaphylactic reaction.Which of these statements about anaphylaxis is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The immunoglobulin-antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells.

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction. It is IgE mediated. It requires a prior exposure to the antigen. The initial exposure sensitizes the body to the antigen and a second exposure to that antigen leads to an anaphylactic reaction.Massive calcium influx into the cells leads to mast cell degranulation. The Immunoglobulin antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells. The result is mast cell degranulation and release of histamine, proteoglycans and serum proteases from cytoplasmic granules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old patient is intubated and has a central venous catheter inserted after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient is intubated and has a central venous catheter inserted after being diagnosed with septic shock. You keep track of her central venous pressure.The normal value for central venous pressure is which of the following? 

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0-8 cmH 2 O

      Explanation:

      The pressure measured in the right atrium or superior vena cava is known as central venous pressure (CVP). In a spontaneously breathing subject, the usual CVP value is 0-8 cmH2O (0-6 mmHg).At the conclusion of expiration, the CVP should be measured with the patient resting flat. The catheter’s tip should be at the intersection of the superior vena cava and the right atrium. An electronic transducer is installed and zeroed at the level of the right atrium to measure it (usually in the 4th intercostal space in the mid-axillary line).CVP is a good predictor of preload in the right ventricle. Hypovolaemia is indicated by a volume challenge of 250-500 mL crystalloid eliciting an increase in CVP that is not sustained for more than 10 minutes.CVP is influenced by a number of factors, including:Mechanical ventilation (and PEEP)Pulmonary hypertensionPulmonary embolismHeart failurePleural effusionDecreased cardiac outputCardiac tamponadeCVP is reduced by the following factors:Distributive shockNegative pressure ventilationHypovolaemiaDeep inhalation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibody detection

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through detection of HIV antibody and p24 antigen. Viral load (viral PCR) and CD4 count are used to monitor progression of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are about to perform a blood test on a patient suspected of...

    Incorrect

    • You are about to perform a blood test on a patient suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus. Which antibodies will indicate a positive result of systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-nuclear antibodies

      Explanation:

      Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are autoantibodies to the cells’ nucleus. The ANA test is the most sensitive diagnostic test for verifying the disease’s diagnosis. Other autoantibodies that may be found in SLE patients include rheumatoid factor, antiphospholipid antibodies, and antimitochondrial antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a traffic accident. Upon examination, there was tenderness and erythema on the right acromioclavicular joint, with notable step deformity. On radiographic imaging, there is a superior elevation of the clavicle, a twice than normal coracoclavicular distance, and absence of fracture.Which of the following structure/s is/are likely to have ruptured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acromioclavicular ligament, coracoclavicular ligament and joint capsule

      Explanation:

      Acromioclavicular joint injuries account for more than forty percent of all shoulder injuries. Mild injuries are not associated with any significant morbidity, but severe injuries can lead to significant loss of strength and function of the shoulder. Acromioclavicular injuries may be associated with a fractured clavicle, impingement syndromes, and more rarely neurovascular insults.The AC joint is a diarthrodial joint defined by the lateral process of the clavicle articulating with the acromion process as it projects anteriorly off the scapula. The joint is primarily stabilized by the acromioclavicular ligament, which is composed of an anterior, posterior, inferior, and superior component. Of note, the superior portion of the AC ligament is the most important component for the stability of the AC joint. Supporting structures include two coracoclavicular ligaments (trapezoid and conoid ligaments), which provide vertical stability, as well as the coracoacromial ligament.Patients with an AC joint injury typically present with anterosuperior shoulder pain and will describe a mechanism of injury of blunt trauma to the abducted shoulder or landing on an outstretched arm, suggestive of this type of injury. They may describe pain radiating to the neck or shoulder, which is often worse with movement or when they try to sleep on the affected shoulder. On examination, the clinician may observe swelling, bruising, or a deformity of the AC joint, depending on the degree of injury. The patient will be tender at that location. They may have a restriction in the active and passive range of motion secondary to pain. Piano key sign may be seen, with an elevation of the clavicle that rebounds after inferior compression.Standard X-rays are adequate to make a diagnosis of acromioclavicular joint injury and should be used to evaluate for other causes of traumatic shoulder pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Pressure across the wall of a flexible tube (the transmural pressure) increases wall...

    Incorrect

    • Pressure across the wall of a flexible tube (the transmural pressure) increases wall tension and extends it.Which law best describes transmural pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laplace’s law

      Explanation:

      The transmural pressure (pressure across the wall of a flexible tube) can be described by Laplace’s law which states that:Transmural pressure = (Tw) / rWhere:T = Wall tensionw = Wall thicknessr = The radiusA small bubble with the same wall tension as a larger bubble will contain higher pressure and will collapse into the larger bubble if the two meet and join.Fick’s law describes the rate of diffusion in a solutionPoiseuille’s law is used to calculate volume of flow rate in laminar flowDarcy’s law describes the flow of a fluid through a porous medium.Starling’s law describes cardiac haemodynamics as it relates to myocyte contractility and stretch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old patient has a mild exacerbation of his asthma. His steroid inhaler...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient has a mild exacerbation of his asthma. His steroid inhaler ran out a couple of weeks ago, and he has not replaced it.Which of these statements describes the mechanism of action of corticosteroids in asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction of bronchial inflammation

      Explanation:

      Inhaled corticosteroids suppresses airway inflammation seen in asthma by downregulating pro-inflammatory proteins.They also appear to reverse components of asthma-induced structural changes (airway remodelling), including increased vascularity of the bronchial wall.Corticosteroids reduces the number of inflammatory cells (eosinophils, T lymphocytes, mast cells, and dendritic cells) in the airways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The following statements about cross-sectional studies are true EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements about cross-sectional studies are true EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They can be used to determine the relative risk of a condition

      Explanation:

      The UK national census is an example of a cross-sectional study.Cross-sectional studies can be used to assess the prevalence of a condition, and support or refute inferences of cause and effect.Cross-sectional studies are observations of the frequency and characteristics of a disease in a given population at one particular point in time. Cross-sectional studies do not differentiate between cause and effect and also do not establish the sequence of events.Cross-sectional studies cannot be used to calculate the relative risk of a condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
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  • Question 23 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology team recently discharged him. He underwent a procedure and was given several medications, including abciximab, during his stay. Which of the following statements about abciximab is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The platelet count should be checked 2-4 hours after starting treatment

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.It’s approved for use as a supplement to heparin and aspirin in high-risk patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention to prevent ischaemic complications. Only one dose of abciximab should be given (to avoid additional risk of thrombocytopenia).

      Before using, it is recommended that baseline prothrombin time, activated clotting time, activated partial thromboplastin time, platelet count, haemoglobin, and haematocrit be measured. 12 and 24 hours after starting treatment, haemoglobin and haematocrit should be measured again, as should platelet count 2-4 hours and 24 hours after starting treatment.

      When used for high-risk patients undergoing angioplasty, the EPIC trial found that abciximab reduced the risk of death, myocardial infarction, repeat angioplasty, bypass surgery, and balloon pump insertion.The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:

      Internal bleeding is present.

      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.

      Stroke in the previous two yearsIntracranial tumour

      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation

      Haemorrhagic diathesis

      Vasculitis

      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

      The following are some of the most common abciximab side effects:

      Manifestations of bleeding

      Bradycardia

      Back ache

      Pain in the chest

      Vomiting and nausea

      Pain at the puncture site

      Thrombocytopenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding the partial pressure of oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the partial pressure of oxygen during respiration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exhaled PO 2 > Alveolar PO 2

      Explanation:

      Because of humidification, inspired PO2 in the airways is less than inhaled PO2. Because of gas exchange, alveolar PO2 is less than inhaled or inspired PO2.Because of mixing with anatomical dead space (air that has not taken part in gas exchange, exhaled PO2 is greater than alveolar O2, and therefore that has relatively higher PO2 on the way out, but is less than inhaled or inspired PO2.Typical values for a resting young healthy male (in kPa) are shown below:-Inhaled air: PO221.2, PCO20.0-Inspired air in airways (after humidification): PO219.9, PCO20.0-Alveolar air (after equilibrium with pulmonary capillaries): PO213.3, PCO25.3-Exhaled air (after mixing with anatomical dead space air): PO215.5, PCO24.3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 66-year-old patient attends the Emergency Department with chest pain. His ECG and...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old patient attends the Emergency Department with chest pain. His ECG and troponin are suggestive of a new myocardial infarction. You have explained the condition and the prognosis. He asks you about how the damaged area of his heart will heal following this.Which answer best describes the process of myocardial healing following myocardial infarction? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The damaged myocardium will form non-contractile scar tissue

      Explanation:

      Myocardial cells are unable to regenerate, they are unable to divide in response to tissue injury. The remain permanently in G0 and cannot progress to G1. If a segment of muscle dies, for example in myocardial infarction, this tissue will be replaced by scar tissue if the patient recovers. This scar tissue is non-contractile and therefore the remaining myocardium must work harder to maintain cardiac output. As a consequence the remaining undamaged myocardium undergoes compensatory hypertrophy without cell division.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left leg for the past 5 weeks arrives at the emergency department complaining of numbness on the dorsum of his left foot and an inability to dorsiflex or evert his foot. You know that his symptoms are due to fibular nerve compression. Where is the fibular nerve located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neck of fibula

      Explanation:

      Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot are innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the superficial fibular nerve, respectively. The common fibular nerve runs obliquely downward along the lateral border of the popliteal fossa (medial to the biceps femoris) before branching at the neck of the fibula. Thus, it is prone to being affected during an impact injury or fracture to the bone or leg. Casts that are placed too high can also compress the fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the...

    Incorrect

    • Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the gallbladder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neck

      Explanation:

      There is a significant association between the presence of Hartmann’s pouch and gallbladder stones. It is the most common location for gallstones to become lodged and cause cholestasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body: ...

    Incorrect

    • Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood-brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Continuous capillaries, found in the skin, lungs, muscles and CNS, are the most selective with low permeability, as junctions between the endothelial cells are very tight, restricting the flow of molecules with MW > 10,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old lady has suffered a serious brain injury. Her uvula has deviated...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady has suffered a serious brain injury. Her uvula has deviated to the right, according to inspection. Which of the following nerves is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      When the vagus nerve is damaged, the soft palate is paralyzed and the uvula is shifted away from the affected side. The vagus nerve innervates the uvulae muscle, which forms the uvula’s core. If only one side is innervated, contraction of the active muscle will draw the uvula towards it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
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  • Question 30 - A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated wound on the abdomen, situated above the umbilicus. A short segment of the small bowel has herniated through the wound.Which of these anatomic structures is the most superficial structure injured in the case above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Camper’s fascia

      Explanation:

      The following structures are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from the most superficial to the deepest layer:SkinFatty layer of the superficial fascia (Camper’s fascia)Membranous layer of the superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)Aponeurosis of the external and internal oblique musclesRectus abdominis muscleAponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominisFascia transversalisExtraperitoneal fatParietal peritoneum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
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