-
Question 1
Correct
-
Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:
Your Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5
Explanation:Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development in a 2-year-old child?
Your Answer: Congenital ptosis
Explanation:A drooping eyelid is called ptosis or blepharoptosis. In ptosis, the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. Severe ptosis may cover part or all of the pupil and interfere with vision, resulting in amblyopia.Visual development in a child can be permanently impaired when there is deprivation of visual stimulation or when the oculomotor function is impaired. Congenital ptosis can represent both these components
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which of the following congenital abnormalities are usually associated with a characteristic karyotype?
Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome is a sex chromosome disorder in boys and men that results from the presence of an extra X chromosome in cells. People typically have 46 chromosomes in each cell, two of which are the sex chromosomes. Females have two X chromosomes (46,XX), and males have one X and one Y chromosome (46,XY). Most often, boys and men with Klinefelter syndrome have the usual X and Y chromosomes, plus one extra X chromosome, for a total of 47 chromosomes (47,XXY).Cri-du-chat (cat’s cry) syndrome, also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, is a chromosomal condition that results when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing.Pierre Robin syndrome is not caused by a single gene defect but is a sequence.Meningomyelocele does not follow usual patterns of inheritance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after developing severe shortness of breath and chest pain at the gym. She has a history of asthma since childhood. Her skin colour looked normal; however, breath sounds were found to be diminished on auscultation of the right lung. Which investigation will you order first?
Your Answer: Capillary blood gases
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:Asthma patients have an increased risk of developing complications like pneumonia or collapsed lung. A clear visualization of the lungs through a CXR will define the management necessary for this patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?
Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
What is the average lifespan of an erythrocyte once it has entered the bloodstream?
Your Answer: 120 days
Explanation:Red blood cells (RBC) have a life span of 120 days in humans.Aging of RBC includes changes in many properties: decreased metabolic activity, morphological alterations, including decreased cell volume and changes in cell shape, and quantitative and qualitative modulations of the surface.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 6 year old child presents with a history of headache and a tonic-clonic seizure that lasted for three minutes. The doctor measures the blood pressure in all four limbs which is 180 mmHg. His creatinine is 60 ÃÄœmol/l and he looks dehydrated. The kidneys look small and echogenic on ultrasound. Which of the following steps is most appropriate?
Your Answer: Ophthalmology assessment is indicated
Explanation:The child requires frequent BP evaluation every 15 to 30 minutes. Normalisation of his BP should be achieved in a 48h interval. An ophthalmology assessment is indicated to check for acute injury of the blood vessels in the eye due to the elevated blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?
Your Answer: Serial intrauterine monitoring of HIV viral load is useful in predicting risk of transmission
Correct Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection
Explanation:To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of the following?
Your Answer: Cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Ipecac, or syrup of ipecac (SOI), is a medication once used to induce vomiting. Its medical use has virtually vanished, and it is no longer recommended for routine use in toxic ingestion. The abuse of SOI as a purgative in eating disorders, however, is increasing. Ipecac has a high safety profile. Common side effects include prolonged vomiting (greater than 1 hour), lethargy, somnolence, diarrhoea, fever, irritability. More severe complications can consist of aspiration pneumonia, Mallory-Weiss tears, pneumomediastinum, and gastric rupture.The abuse of syrup of ipecac by patients with major eating disorders have been shown to have toxic effects on the skeletal and cardiac muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?
Your Answer: Caecum
Explanation:The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Regarding crossover trials, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Are best for assessing the efficacy of different treatments in giving short-term relief of chronic conditions
Explanation:Crossover trials are characterized by the switching of study participants throughout the treatment groups, keeping a random order of switching. This randomization is important to determine any carry-over effect of different treatment modalities. The benefit of this study is the evaluation of the efficacy of various short-term treatment options for the relief of chronic conditions. The washout period is small in this type of study. Crossover studies are more efficient than the parallel studies, but they should be used according to the treatment options and outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
In a trial for a new treatment of lung disease, a traditional regime was given to 130 patients, 30 of whom died, while the new treatment was given to 125 patients, 20 of whom died. ššWhich of the following tools will be useful in calculating whether the above results are due to chance?
Your Answer: Correlation coefficient
Correct Answer: Chi-squared analysis
Explanation:The Chi squared test is used to find the relationship between two variables, determining whether they are not independent of each other. This test of statistical significance allows you to determine the degree of confidence with which you can accept or reject the null hypothesis. The student t test compares the significant differences in data means, while rank correlation, linear regression and the correlation coefficient all help to measure the linear relationship between variables.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta?
Your Answer: 70% of patients have bicuspid aortic valves
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases Occurring in about 1 in 2,500 births. It is characterized by a congenitally narrowed proximal thoracic aorta. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve in 70% of the cases and berry aneurysms in 10% of the cases. Coarctation of the aorta is commonly found in association with Turner’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, and Patau syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Which of the following developmental milestones would you expect to see in a normal 6-month-old baby?
Your Answer: Have lost the Moro reflex
Explanation:The Moro reflex is a normal primitive, infantile reflex. It can be seen as early as 25 weeks postconceptional age and usually is present by 30 weeks postconceptional age.6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (ah,Å¥ eh,Å¥ ohÅ¥) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with m,Å¥ bÅ¥) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
Which of the following descriptions qualifies as a diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: > 6 cafe au lait spots or hyperpigmented macules which are >5mm in children under age 10, and >15mm in children over 10
Explanation:Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more cafe-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm in postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring admission for phototherapy, and have lost 12% and 13% of their birthweights, respectively. They both have serum sodium levels of 145 mmol/L. What is the best advice about fluid management over the next 48 h?
Your Answer: Continue breast-feeding but give full top-ups via bottle/cup feeding
Explanation:Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding-this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner:
Your Answer: Thyroxine
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Hormones can be secreted in a number of different ways, thus plasma levels of each may vary throughout the day. Many of these exhibit intermittent secretion related to sleep (growth hormone, and prolactin), while others are released based on circadian rhythms (cortisol). Some are released in a pulsatile fashion throughout the day such as FSH, LH, Thyroxine, while others are stress related like cortisol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident. His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands. He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes. He tries to move away from the examining hand.What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?
Your Answer: 8
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS. Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):Spontaneous – 4To speech – 3To pain – 2No response – 1Best Verbal Response:Oriented – 5Words – 4Vocal sounds – 3Cries – 2No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):Obeys commands – 5Localises pain – 4Flexion to pain – 3 Extension to pain – 2No response – 1 The described child scores:Eye response – 1; Verbal response – 3; Motor response – 4Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
An 8 week old baby presents with a fever of 38 degrees. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Admit for infection screen and start IV antibiotic
Explanation:This temperature is considered to be a mild fever and is most often caused by a minor infection in children of this age. Therefore, an infection screen should be conducted and an IV antibiotic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and oedema. On cardiac auscultation, he has a displaced apical beat laterally and a profound right ventricular heave. On lung auscultation, he has bilateral basal crackles. X-ray of the chest reveals gross cardiomegaly. Heart ultrasound shows mitral valve prolapse. Finally, ECG shows a prolonged and widened QRS complex with a short PR interval. Doctors establish the diagnosis of a right bundle branch block with a dominant R wave in V1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Type A Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS)
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a pre-excitation syndrome characterised by re-entry tachycardia that most commonly presents as a recurrent supraventricular tachycardia. ECG will show a short PR interval and a prolonged QRS complex.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new brother. What are the chances that his brother develops the same disease after birth?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Since the first son is affected by the disease, it means that the mother is a carrier. The male children will inherit the Y chromosome from their father and the X chromosome from their mother, having 50% chances of inheriting the X chromosome with the affected gene.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy presents with a concern that he is the shortest in his class, and his voice has not 'broken' yet. A thorough examination reveals that his sexual development is within the normal range, and he is reassured that puberty occurs at different times for everyone. Which of the following cells in the testes secrete testosterone?
Your Answer: Sertoli cells
Correct Answer: Leydig cells
Explanation:The cells in the testes that secrete testosterone are the Leydig cells.Other cells in testes include:- Spermatogonia: These are undifferentiated male germ cells which undergo spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.- Sertoli cells: They are a part of the seminiferous tubule of the testes, cells are activated by FSH and nourish developing sperm cells.- Myoid: They are squamous contractile cells which generate peristaltic waves, they surround the basement membrane of testes.- Fibroblasts: Cells which synthesise collagen and the extracellular matrix.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?
Your Answer: Psoriasis and Vitamin D analogues
Explanation:One of the options of Psoriasis treatment is vitamin D analogues i.e. calcipotriol. Acne is exacerbated by steroids. Erythema nodosum can be caused by various diseases and the treatment of the primary condition resolves the symptoms. Lipomas requires surgery, whereas Steven-Johnson syndrome requires use of steroids and eliminating the culprit drug, which is one of the most common causes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following features suggest lichen sclerosus is more likely than lichen planus?
Your Answer: Propensity to involve the oral mucosa
Correct Answer: Presence of epidermal atrophy
Explanation:Lichen sclerosus is a common chronic skin disorder that most often affects genital and perianal areas. LS typically presents with vulval itching and clinical findings of pallor, epidermal atrophy (cigarette paper wrinkling), purpura, and/or erosions.Lichen sclerosus (LS) and lichen planus (LP) are both immunologically mediated diseases with a preference for the genitalia. The main difference between the two conditions is that LP has a propensity to involve the mucous membranes including the mouth and vagina which are rarely affected in LS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A screening test correctly identifies 90 of 100 individuals with disease and falsely identifies a further 15 of 300 individuals without disease. Which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: The sensitivity of the test is 90%
Explanation:The sensitivity of a screening test can be described in a variety of ways, typically such as sensitivity being the ability of a screening test to detect a true positive, being based on the true positive rate, reflecting a test’s ability to correctly identify all people who have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all people with a condition of interest by those people testing positive on the test.The specificity of a test is defined in a variety of ways, typically such as specificity is the ability of a screening test to detect a true negative, being based on the true negative rate, correctly identifying people who do not have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all patients who do not have the condition of interest by those people testing negative on the test.Sensitivity=[a/(a+c)]x100Specificity=[d/(b+d)]x100a: True positiveb: False Positivec: False negatived: True negative
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Edward's syndrome
Explanation:The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features represent the clues for the diagnosis in the perinatal period and include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot form a sentence. What is the best management strategy?
Your Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Not being able to form a sentence at the age of 18 months is quite normal. A combination of two words to form a sentence can be done by 2 years of age.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kallmann's syndrome
Explanation:Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Refractive errors
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing; therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary back-and-forthÅ¥ movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)