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  • Question 1 - What factor is most strongly associated with violent behavior in adolescent males? ...

    Correct

    • What factor is most strongly associated with violent behavior in adolescent males?

      Your Answer: Drug misuse

      Explanation:

      While there is limited research on the relationship between Autistic Spectrum Disorder (ASD) and violent crime, current evidence does not suggest a strong association. However, ASD may be linked to other criminal behaviors such as arson. In contrast, drug misuse has been identified as the most significant independent risk factor for violent offending, with a relative risk estimate of 8.7. Other disorders such as schizophrenia, alcohol misuse, learning difficulties, and antisocial personality also have elevated relative risk estimates for violent crime.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following pairs of instincts proposed by Freud are correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pairs of instincts proposed by Freud are correct?

      Your Answer: Thanatos and eros

      Explanation:

      Aggression – Freud

      According to Freud, aggression is a result of the primary instinct called thanatos, also known as the death instinct. He believed that every individual possesses this drive, which aims to cause complete destruction and death. Additionally, Freud proposed the existence of an opposing instinct called eros, which is the life instinct. He also introduced the concept of catharsis, which is a process of releasing libidinal energy and inducing a sense of calmness. This process occurs when we witness an aggressive act of engage in a mildly aggressive act.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which statement accurately describes the diagnosis of PTSD according to the ICD-11 criteria?...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the diagnosis of PTSD according to the ICD-11 criteria?

      Your Answer: Can only be diagnosed when the symptoms arise within six months of the traumatic event

      Correct Answer: The traumatic event must be of a degree that would considered horrific in nature

      Explanation:

      The ICD-11 requires that the traumatic event be of an extremely threatening of horrific nature, which can be experienced directly of indirectly. There is no specific timeframe for when symptoms must occur after the event. To diagnose PTSD, three core elements must be present: re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Flashbacks can range from mild to severe, with mild flashbacks involving a brief sense of the event occurring again and severe flashbacks resulting in a complete loss of awareness of present surroundings.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which concept is commonly linked to the term 'mindfulness'? ...

    Correct

    • Which concept is commonly linked to the term 'mindfulness'?

      Your Answer: DBT

      Explanation:

      Dialectical Behavioural Therapy (DBT) is a form of psychotherapy that is tailored for patients with borderline personality disorder. It combines behavioural therapy with aspects of Zen Buddhism and dialectical thinking to help patients develop important interpersonal and emotional regulation skills. DBT has five functions, including enhancing behavioural capabilities, improving motivation to change, assuring new capabilities generalise to the natural environment, structuring the environment so that appropriate behaviours are reinforced, and enhancing motivation of the therapist.

      DBT uses a hierarchy of treatment targets to help the therapist determine the order in which problems should be addressed. The treatment targets in order of priority are life-threatening behaviours, therapy-interfering behaviours, quality of life behaviours, and skills acquisition. DBT skills include mindfulness, distress tolerance, interpersonal effectiveness, and emotion regulation. Overall, DBT is an effective form of therapy for patients with multiple problems, and it helps them develop the skills they need to achieve their goals and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - For a study comparing two chemotherapy regimens for small cell lung cancer patients...

    Incorrect

    • For a study comparing two chemotherapy regimens for small cell lung cancer patients based on survival time, which statistical measure is most suitable for comparison?

      Your Answer: Absolute risk reduction

      Correct Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hazard Ratio in Survival Analysis

      Survival analysis is a statistical method used to analyze the time it takes for an event of interest to occur, such as death of disease progression. In this type of analysis, the hazard ratio (HR) is a commonly used measure that is similar to the relative risk but takes into account the fact that the risk of an event may change over time.

      The hazard ratio is particularly useful in situations where the risk of an event is not constant over time, such as in medical research where patients may have different survival times of disease progression rates. It is a measure of the relative risk of an event occurring in one group compared to another, taking into account the time it takes for the event to occur.

      For example, in a study comparing the survival rates of two groups of cancer patients, the hazard ratio would be used to compare the risk of death in one group compared to the other, taking into account the time it takes for the patients to die. A hazard ratio of 1 indicates that there is no difference in the risk of death between the two groups, while a hazard ratio greater than 1 indicates that one group has a higher risk of death than the other.

      Overall, the hazard ratio is a useful tool in survival analysis that allows researchers to compare the risk of an event occurring between different groups, taking into account the time it takes for the event to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What level of kappa score indicates complete agreement between two observers? ...

    Correct

    • What level of kappa score indicates complete agreement between two observers?

      Your Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Kappa Statistic for Measuring Interobserver Variation

      The kappa statistic, also known as Cohen’s kappa coefficient, is a useful tool for quantifying the level of agreement between independent observers. This measure can be applied in any situation where multiple observers are evaluating the same thing, such as in medical diagnoses of research studies. The kappa coefficient ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating complete disagreement and 1 indicating perfect agreement. By using the kappa statistic, researchers and practitioners can gain insight into the level of interobserver variation present in their data, which can help to improve the accuracy and reliability of their findings. Overall, the kappa statistic is a valuable tool for understanding and measuring interobserver variation in a variety of contexts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the recommended minimum dose of olanzapine for a patient experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended minimum dose of olanzapine for a patient experiencing a relapse of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: 5 mg

      Correct Answer: 7.5 mg

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics: Minimum Effective Doses

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a table of minimum effective oral doses for antipsychotics in schizophrenia. The following doses are recommended for first episode and relapse (multi-episode) cases:

      – Chlorpromazine: 200mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
      – Haloperidol: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)
      – Sulpiride: 400mg (first episode) and 800mg (relapse)
      – Trifluoperazine: 10mg (first episode) and 15mg (relapse)
      – Amisulpride: 300mg (first episode) and 400mg (relapse)
      – Aripiprazole: 10mg (first episode and relapse)
      – Olanzapine: 5mg (first episode) and 7.5mg (relapse)
      – Quetiapine: 150mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
      – Risperidone: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)

      The minimum effective doses may vary depending on individual patient factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication dosages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the most frequent symptom observed in individuals with Huntington's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent symptom observed in individuals with Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer: Depressed mood

      Correct Answer: Lack of initiative

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s disease is more likely to cause a lack of initiative than a depressed mood.

      Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.

      The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is another name for Munchausen syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is another name for Munchausen syndrome?

      Your Answer: Malingering

      Correct Answer: Factitious disorder

      Explanation:

      Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy, also known as fabricated or induced illness, is a rare form of child abuse where a caregiver, usually the mother, falsifies illness in a child by fabricating of producing symptoms and presenting the child for medical care while denying knowledge of the cause. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 4, with symptoms including apnoea, anorexia, feeding problems, and seizures. The disorder is now recognized as ‘Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another’ in the DSM-5, with criteria including falsification of physical of psychological signs of symptoms, presentation of the victim as ill, and evident deceptive behavior. The perpetrator, not the victim, receives this diagnosis. Presenting signs of symptoms can take the form of covert injury, fabrication of symptoms, of exaggeration of existing symptoms. Symptoms are often subjective and easy to fake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which option is not included in the Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence...

    Correct

    • Which option is not included in the Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR)?

      Your Answer: PCL-R

      Explanation:

      Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR)

      The Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR) is a well-known actuarial tool that is used to predict the likelihood of sex offence recidivism. It comprises of four items that have been proven to have predictive accuracy for sex offence recidivism. These items include the number of past sex offence convictions of charges, the age of the offender being less than 25, the offender being unrelated to the victim, and the gender of the victim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      68.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the strongest association between smoking during pregnancy and mental health issues...

    Incorrect

    • What is the strongest association between smoking during pregnancy and mental health issues in children?

      Your Answer: Autism

      Correct Answer: ADHD

      Explanation:

      The highest correlation between maternal smoking and negative behaviors is found in externalizing problems such as ADHD and conduct disorder.

      Prenatal Smoking and Risks for Offspring Psychiatric Problems

      Prenatal smoking has been linked to various psychiatric problems in offspring, as reported by Indredavik (2007). The most consistent finding is the association between maternal smoking during pregnancy and attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and conduct disorder. However, there are fewer reports on internalizing symptoms such as anxiety and depression. Additionally, there is one report suggesting an increased risk of autism associated with smoking exposure in utero. These findings highlight the potential risks of prenatal smoking on offspring mental health and emphasize the importance of smoking cessation during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      123.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In the Epidemiological catchment area study, which anxiety disorder was discovered to have...

    Correct

    • In the Epidemiological catchment area study, which anxiety disorder was discovered to have the highest occurrence rate?

      Your Answer: Phobia

      Explanation:

      In the ECA, phobias were the prevalent form of anxiety disorder.

      Epidemiological Catchment Area Study: A Landmark Community-Based Survey

      The Epidemiological Catchment Area Study (ECA) was a significant survey conducted in five US communities from 1980-1985. The study included 20,000 participants, with 3000 community residents and 500 residents of institutions sampled in each site. The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) was used to conduct two interviews over a year with each participant.

      However, the DIS diagnosis of schizophrenia was not consistent with psychiatrists’ classification, with only 20% of cases identified by the DIS in the Baltimore ECA site matching the psychiatrist’s diagnosis. Despite this, the ECA produced valuable findings, including a lifetime prevalence rate of 32.3% for any disorder, 16.4% for substance misuse disorder, 14.6% for anxiety disorder, 8.3% for affective disorder, 1.5% for schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder, and 0.1% for somatization disorder.

      The ECA also found that phobia had a one-month prevalence of 12.5%, generalized anxiety and depression had a prevalence of 8.5%, obsessive-compulsive disorder had a prevalence of 2.5%, and panic had a prevalence of 1.6%. Overall, the ECA was a landmark community-based survey that provided valuable insights into the prevalence of mental disorders in the US.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - For which of the following research areas are qualitative methods least effective? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following research areas are qualitative methods least effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment evaluation

      Explanation:

      While quantitative methods are typically used for treatment evaluation, qualitative studies can also provide valuable insights by interpreting, qualifying, of illuminating findings. This is especially beneficial when examining unexpected results, as they can help to test the primary hypothesis.

      Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A ten year old girl has been exhibiting school refusal behavior and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A ten year old girl has been exhibiting school refusal behavior and experiencing frequent nightmares about her mother being kidnapped. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Separation anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Separation Anxiety

      Separation anxiety is a normal developmental stage that typically peaks between 9 and 18 months of age and usually subsides by the age of 3. The hallmark of separation anxiety is a fear of being separated from a primary caregiver, rather than anxiety about specific situations. Children with separation anxiety may exhibit symptoms such as school refusal, nightmares about separation, and physical symptoms when faced with separation. It is important for parents and caregivers to provide reassurance and support during this stage to help children develop healthy coping mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is another name for the incidence rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is another name for the incidence rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incidence density

      Explanation:

      Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.

      Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.

      It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.

      Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
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  • Question 16 - If a couple has a child with autism, what advice would you give...

    Incorrect

    • If a couple has a child with autism, what advice would you give them regarding the likelihood of having another child with the same condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a 8 fold increase in risk to a future sibling

      Explanation:

      According to a study conducted in 2019 across various countries, the likelihood of developing ASD is significantly higher if a sibling has already been diagnosed with the disorder, with an 8-fold increase in risk.

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 17 - What is the typical measure of outcome in a case-control study investigating the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical measure of outcome in a case-control study investigating the potential association between autism and a recently developed varicella vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Odds ratio

      Explanation:

      The odds ratio is used in case-control studies to measure the association between exposure and outcome, while the relative risk is used in cohort studies to measure the risk of developing an outcome in the exposed group compared to the unexposed group. To convert the odds ratio to a relative risk, one can use the formula: relative risk = odds ratio / (1 – incidence in the unexposed group x odds ratio).

      Types of Primary Research Studies and Their Advantages and Disadvantages

      Primary research studies can be categorized into six types based on the research question they aim to address. The best type of study for each question type is listed in the table below. There are two main types of study design: experimental and observational. Experimental studies involve an intervention, while observational studies do not. The advantages and disadvantages of each study type are summarized in the table below.

      Type of Question Best Type of Study

      Therapy Randomized controlled trial (RCT), cohort, case control, case series
      Diagnosis Cohort studies with comparison to gold standard test
      Prognosis Cohort studies, case control, case series
      Etiology/Harm RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
      Prevention RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
      Cost Economic analysis

      Study Type Advantages Disadvantages

      Randomized Controlled Trial – Unbiased distribution of confounders – Blinding more likely – Randomization facilitates statistical analysis – Expensive – Time-consuming – Volunteer bias – Ethically problematic at times
      Cohort Study – Ethically safe – Subjects can be matched – Can establish timing and directionality of events – Eligibility criteria and outcome assessments can be standardized – Administratively easier and cheaper than RCT – Controls may be difficult to identify – Exposure may be linked to a hidden confounder – Blinding is difficult – Randomization not present – For rare disease, large sample sizes of long follow-up necessary
      Case-Control Study – Quick and cheap – Only feasible method for very rare disorders of those with long lag between exposure and outcome – Fewer subjects needed than cross-sectional studies – Reliance on recall of records to determine exposure status – Confounders – Selection of control groups is difficult – Potential bias: recall, selection
      Cross-Sectional Survey – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Establishes association at most, not causality – Recall bias susceptibility – Confounders may be unequally distributed – Neyman bias – Group sizes may be unequal
      Ecological Study – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Ecological fallacy (when relationships which exist for groups are assumed to also be true for individuals)

      In conclusion, the choice of study type depends on the research question being addressed. Each study type has its own advantages and disadvantages, and researchers should carefully consider these when designing their studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which study design involves conducting an experiment? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which study design involves conducting an experiment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A randomised control study

      Explanation:

      Types of Primary Research Studies and Their Advantages and Disadvantages

      Primary research studies can be categorized into six types based on the research question they aim to address. The best type of study for each question type is listed in the table below. There are two main types of study design: experimental and observational. Experimental studies involve an intervention, while observational studies do not. The advantages and disadvantages of each study type are summarized in the table below.

      Type of Question Best Type of Study

      Therapy Randomized controlled trial (RCT), cohort, case control, case series
      Diagnosis Cohort studies with comparison to gold standard test
      Prognosis Cohort studies, case control, case series
      Etiology/Harm RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
      Prevention RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
      Cost Economic analysis

      Study Type Advantages Disadvantages

      Randomized Controlled Trial – Unbiased distribution of confounders – Blinding more likely – Randomization facilitates statistical analysis – Expensive – Time-consuming – Volunteer bias – Ethically problematic at times
      Cohort Study – Ethically safe – Subjects can be matched – Can establish timing and directionality of events – Eligibility criteria and outcome assessments can be standardized – Administratively easier and cheaper than RCT – Controls may be difficult to identify – Exposure may be linked to a hidden confounder – Blinding is difficult – Randomization not present – For rare disease, large sample sizes of long follow-up necessary
      Case-Control Study – Quick and cheap – Only feasible method for very rare disorders of those with long lag between exposure and outcome – Fewer subjects needed than cross-sectional studies – Reliance on recall of records to determine exposure status – Confounders – Selection of control groups is difficult – Potential bias: recall, selection
      Cross-Sectional Survey – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Establishes association at most, not causality – Recall bias susceptibility – Confounders may be unequally distributed – Neyman bias – Group sizes may be unequal
      Ecological Study – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Ecological fallacy (when relationships which exist for groups are assumed to also be true for individuals)

      In conclusion, the choice of study type depends on the research question being addressed. Each study type has its own advantages and disadvantages, and researchers should carefully consider these when designing their studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 19 - What are some factors that increase the risk of developing schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are some factors that increase the risk of developing schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Being a migrant

      Explanation:

      The AESOP study provides the latest evidence that being a migrant significantly increases the likelihood of developing schizophrenia, as it is a well-established risk factor.

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 20 - You diagnose schizophrenia in a 30 year old man. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose schizophrenia in a 30 year old man. Which of the following relatives is most likely to develop the same condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Child

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old retiree presents with a four hour history of confusion and restlessness....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old retiree presents with a four hour history of confusion and restlessness. He has a history of alcohol abuse but has been sober for the past week.
      During examination, he appears sweaty, agitated, and disoriented. He reports seeing hallucinations on the walls.
      His vital signs include a temperature of 37.5°C, a regular pulse of 110 bpm, and a blood pressure of 152/74 mmHg. His FBC and U&Es are both within normal limits.
      Further investigations reveal:
      Plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/L (3.6-6)
      Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Delirium tremens (DTs) is a serious medical emergency that can occur in individuals who abruptly reduce their alcohol intake after prolonged excessive drinking. It is estimated that 24% of adults in the UK drink in a hazardous way, with the highest rates in the North East, North West, and Yorkshire and Humber regions. About 20% of patients admitted to hospital for non-alcohol-related illnesses are also drinking at potentially hazardous levels, highlighting the importance of screening all patients for alcohol use.

      Withdrawal symptoms typically appear about 8 hours after a significant drop in blood alcohol levels, with the peak occurring on day two and significant improvement by day five. Minor withdrawal symptoms include insomnia, fatigue, tremors, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, headache, sweating, palpitations, anorexia, depression, and craving. Alcoholic hallucinosis can occur 12-24 hours after stopping alcohol and involves visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations. Withdrawal seizures can occur 24-48 hours after cessation and are generalized tonic-clonic seizures. DTs can occur 48-72 hours after cessation and is characterized by altered mental status, hallucinations, confusion, delusions, severe agitation, and seizures. It is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnea, tremor, and mydriasis. Patients at increased risk include those with a previous history of DTs of alcohol withdrawal seizures, co-existing infections, abnormal liver function, and older patients.

      DTs should be treated as a medical emergency with oral lorazepam as first-line treatment. If symptoms persist of medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol, of olanzapine should be given. Intensive care may be required. If DTs develop during treatment for acute withdrawal, the reducing regime should be reviewed. The mortality rate can be up to 35% if untreated, which reduces to 5% with early recognition and treatment.

      Patients with alcohol withdrawal seizures should be given a quick-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam. Phenytoin should not be given. Patients at high risk of alcohol withdrawal but with no of mild symptoms are typically given a reducing dose of chlordiazepoxide of diazepam over 5-7 days. Chlormethiazole may also be offered as an alternative, but is rarely used due to the risk of fatal respiratory depression, especially in patients with liver cirrhosis.

      It is also important to administer high-potency B vitamins, specifically thiamine (e.g. pabrinex), to all patients with a history of high alcohol intake to reduce the risk of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 22 - A 25 year old man with a history of needle phobia presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man with a history of needle phobia presents to the clinic. He was hospitalized 8 months ago for mania and was treated effectively with risperidone. He is currently asymptomatic. He experienced a moderate depressive episode lasting 10 months two years ago. He wishes to discontinue risperidone due to sexual dysfunction and is interested in knowing about alternative medications that can prevent future manic episodes. What medication would you suggest as an alternative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      Lithium cannot be considered as a treatment option due to the patient’s needle phobia, as regular blood tests are required. Valproate is a suitable alternative as plasma valproate levels only need to be measured in rare cases of ineffectiveness, poor adherence, of toxicity. Prophylaxis with typical antipsychotics is generally not recommended for bipolar disorder. While atypical antipsychotics, such as olanzapine and quetiapine, show promise and are recommended by NICE if they have been effective for bipolar depression, mood stabilizers remain the preferred treatment option.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - What is the proportion of values that fall within a range of 3...

    Incorrect

    • What is the proportion of values that fall within a range of 3 standard deviations from the mean in a normal distribution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      Standard Deviation and Standard Error of the Mean

      Standard deviation (SD) and standard error of the mean (SEM) are two important statistical measures used to describe data. SD is a measure of how much the data varies, while SEM is a measure of how precisely we know the true mean of the population. The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve that describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements.

      68.3% of the data lies within 1 SD of the mean, 95.4% of the data lies within 2 SD of the mean, and 99.7% of the data lies within 3 SD of the mean. The SD is calculated by taking the square root of the variance and is expressed in the same units as the data set. A low SD indicates that data points tend to be very close to the mean.

      On the other hand, SEM is an inferential statistic that quantifies the precision of the mean. It is expressed in the same units as the data and is calculated by dividing the SD of the sample mean by the square root of the sample size. The SEM gets smaller as the sample size increases, and it takes into account both the value of the SD and the sample size.

      Both SD and SEM are important measures in statistical analysis, and they are used to calculate confidence intervals and test hypotheses. While SD quantifies scatter, SEM quantifies precision, and both are essential in understanding and interpreting data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 24 - Which treatment is considered most effective for atypical depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which treatment is considered most effective for atypical depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MAOIs

      Explanation:

      Atypical Depression: Symptoms and Treatment

      Atypical depression is a subtype of major depressive disorder that is characterized by low mood with mood reactivity and a reversal of the typical features seen in depression. This includes hypersomnia, hyperphagia, weight gain, and libidinal increases. People with atypical depression tend to respond best to MAOIs, while their response to tricyclics is poor, and SSRIs perform somewhere in the middle.

      The DSM-5 defines atypical depression as a subtype of major depressive disorder ‘with atypical features’, which includes mood reactivity, significant weight gain of increase in appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and a long-standing pattern of interpersonal rejection sensitivity that results in significant social of occupational impairment. However, this subtype is not specifically recognized in ICD-11.

      If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of atypical depression, it is important to seek professional help. Treatment options may include therapy, medication, of a combination of both. MAOIs may be the most effective medication for atypical depression, but it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with completed suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 45-year-old male, divorced, unemployed, social class V

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors

      Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - What is the most significant risk factor for developing schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most significant risk factor for developing schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Being a migrant

      Explanation:

      The AESOP study provides current evidence that being a migrant is a significant risk factor for the onset of schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It includes a total of 21 questions

      Explanation:

      The Beck’s depression inventory consists of 21 questions with a maximum score of 63. Each question is scored from 0 to 3 and is used to evaluate the severity of depression. It is a self-rated assessment that covers the two weeks leading up to the evaluation.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - What is the purpose of descriptive statistics? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To present characteristics features of a data set

      Explanation:

      Types of Statistics: Descriptive and Inferential

      Statistics can be divided into two categories: descriptive and inferential. Descriptive statistics are used to describe and summarize data without making any generalizations beyond the data at hand. On the other hand, inferential statistics are used to make inferences about a population based on sample data.

      Descriptive statistics are useful for identifying patterns and trends in data. Common measures used to describe a data set include measures of central tendency (such as the mean, median, and mode) and measures of variability of dispersion (such as the standard deviation of variance).

      Inferential statistics, on the other hand, are used to make predictions of draw conclusions about a population based on sample data. These statistics are also used to determine the probability that observed differences between groups are reliable and not due to chance.

      Overall, both descriptive and inferential statistics play important roles in analyzing and interpreting data. Descriptive statistics help us understand the characteristics of a data set, while inferential statistics allow us to make predictions and draw conclusions about larger populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 29 - What is the name of the screening tool that combines a self-reported component...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the screening tool that combines a self-reported component and a semi-structured interview to assess personality disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IPDE

      Explanation:

      There are several screening tools available for personality disorder, including SAPAS, FFMRF, IPDE, PDQ-R, IPDS, and IIP-PD. SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete, while FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5. IPDE is a semi-structured clinical interview that includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview, while PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions. IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes, while IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4. A score of 3 of more on SAPAS warrants further assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - What is the middle value in the set of numbers 2, 9, 4,...

    Incorrect

    • What is the middle value in the set of numbers 2, 9, 4, 1, 23?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Measures of Central Tendency

      Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.

      The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.

      The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.

      In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Forensic Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Psychotherapy (2/2) 100%
General Adult Psychiatry (1/3) 33%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (1/2) 50%
Old Age Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Passmed