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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old woman is admitted with loin pain and fever. She has given...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman is admitted with loin pain and fever. She has given a history of haematuria for the past one week with associated dysuria, for which she was started on trimethoprim as an empirical outpatient treatment.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      This is most likely a case of pyelonephritis.

      Acute pyelonephritis is a common bacterial infection of the renal pelvis and kidneys most often seen in young adult women. History and physical examination are the most important tools for diagnosis. Most patients have fever, although it may be absent early in the illness. E. coli is the most common pathogen in acute pyelonephritis.

      For diagnosing the disease:
      1. A positive urinalysis confirms the diagnosis in patients with a compatible history and physical examination.
      2. Urine culture should be obtained in all patients to guide antibiotic therapy if the patient does not respond to initial empirical antibiotic regimens.
      3. Imaging, usually with contrast-enhanced CT scan, is not necessary unless there is no improvement in the patient’s symptoms or if there is recurrence of symptoms after initial improvement.

      Outpatient treatment is appropriate for most patients. Inpatient therapy is recommended for patients who have severe illness or in whom a complication is suspected. Oral beta-lactam antibiotics and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole are generally inappropriate for outpatient therapy because of high resistance rates. Several antibiotic regimens can be used for inpatient treatment, including fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, and cephalosporins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      11.4
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound...

    Correct

    • A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound to the chest. The wound is in a part of the left lung that might partially fill the costomediastinal recess in full respiration. Where did the weapon strike this man?

      Your Answer: Lingula

      Explanation:

      During full inspiration, the lingual-of the left lung partially fills the costomediastinal recess. If the apex of the lung is fully filled with air, it would occupy the copula (the part of the pleura that extends above the first rib). The hilum is part of the lung where the neurovascular structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung and doesn’t expand on inspiration. The middle lobe can expand to fill the costomediastinal recess, however, the middle lobe is on the right lung. The inferior lobe, during full inspiration, might fill the costodiaphragmatic recess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      19.2
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in:

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      COPD leads to respiratory acidosis (chronic). This occurs due to hypoventilation which involves multiple causes, such as poor responsiveness to hypoxia and hypercapnia, increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch leading to increased dead space ventilation and decreased diaphragm function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7.9
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Fine-needle aspiration is a type of biopsy procedure. When performing a fine-needle aspiration...

    Incorrect

    • Fine-needle aspiration is a type of biopsy procedure. When performing a fine-needle aspiration of the lungs, which is the most common complication of the procedure?

      Your Answer: Haemothorax

      Correct Answer: Pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax is the most common complication of a fine-needle aspiration procedure. Various factors, such as lesion size, have been associated with increased risk of pneumothorax .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8.4
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?

      Your Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.
      Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:
      The motor and pre-motor areas
      The somato-sensory
      Auditory areas
      Motor speech
      Sensory speech
      Pre-frontal area
      Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:
      i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face
      ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      6.7
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 55 year old lady underwent an uneventful appendicectomy. Two hours later, her...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old lady underwent an uneventful appendicectomy. Two hours later, her arterial blood gas analysis on room revealed pH: 7.30, p(CO2): 53 mmHg and p(O2): 79 mmHg. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Alveolar hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      In the given problem, there is respiratory acidosis due to hypercapnia from a low respiratory rate and/or volume (hypoventilation). Causes of hypoventilation include conditions impairing the central nervous system (CNS) respiratory drive, impaired neuromuscular transmission and other causes of muscular weakness (drugs and sedatives), along with obstructive, restrictive and parenchymal pulmonary disorders. Hypoventilation leads to hypoxia and hypercapnia reduces the arterial pH. Severe acidosis leads to pulmonary arteriolar vasoconstriction, systemic vascular dilatation, reduced myocardial contractility, hyperkalaemia, hypotension and cardiac irritability resulting in arrhythmias. Raised carbon dioxide concentration also causes cerebral vasodilatation and raised intracranial pressure. Over time, buffering and renal compensation occurs. However, this might not be seen in acute scenarios where the rise in p(CO2) occurs rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      18.9
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old woman undergoes a subtotal thyroidectomy. Five days postoperatively, the wound becomes...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman undergoes a subtotal thyroidectomy. Five days postoperatively, the wound becomes erythematous and purulent.Which of the following is most likely to be the causative agent?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Surgical site infection (SSI) by Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely cause in this scenario. In the UK from 2010–2011, 23% of wound infections were due to S. aureus. Infection with the other organisms, including Streptococcus pyogenes, are much rarer.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) comprise up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections and at least 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result. SSIs may occur following a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. The organisms are mostly derived from the patient’s own body.

      SSIs are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
      Some preoperative measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      1. Shaving the wound using a razor (disposable clipper preferred)
      2. Tissue hypoxia
      3. Delayed administration of prophylactic antibiotics in tourniquet surgery

      SSIs can be prevented by taking certain precautionary steps pre-, intra-, and postoperatively.

      1. Preoperatively:
      a. Do not remove body hair routinely
      b. If hair needs removal, use electrical clippers (razors increase the risk of infection)
      c. Antibiotic prophylaxis if:
      – placement of prosthesis or valve
      – clean-contaminated surgery
      – contaminated surgery

      2. Intraoperatively:
      a. Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      b. Cover surgical site with dressing

      3. Postoperatively:
      a. Prevention of incisional infection by appropriate cleansing, skin care, and moisture management
      b.Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wound healing by secondary intention

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      23
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?

      Your Answer: von Willebrand’s disease

      Correct Answer: Scurvy

      Explanation:

      Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.5
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old female undergoes a laparotomy and a retroperitoneal tumour is identified. The...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female undergoes a laparotomy and a retroperitoneal tumour is identified. The surgeons suspect that the lesion is a liposarcoma. Which of the following is not typical of liposarcomas?

      Your Answer: They are the most common variant of sarcoma in adults

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal liposarcoma (RLS) is a rare, biologically heterogeneous tumour that presents considerable challenges due to its size and deep location.
      RPS generally measure >5 cm, and mostly >10 cm diameter at presentation

      Liposarcoma occurs in three main biologic forms: (1) well-differentiated liposarcoma; (2) myxoid and/or round cell; and (3) pleomorphic. The latter is a rare high-grade type with a high recurrence rate and poor prognosis.

      CT scanning is superior to MRI in detailing cortical bone erosion and tumour mineralization, whereas MRI is useful in providing views of the long axis of the limb and in depicting the fatty nature of the tumour.
      Most liposarcomas have well-defined and mostly lobulated margins. The well-differentiated liposarcomas are composed of mainly fat with septa or nodules.
      Chest radiography may be used as an initial screening for pulmonary metastases; however, the definitive test for detection of pulmonary metastases is chest CT scanning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Principles Of Surgical Oncology
      30.2
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      17.1
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Occipital

      Correct Answer: Superficial temporal

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a branch of the common carotid artery that supplies parts of the neck, head and face. It branches off from the common carotid artery at the level of the thyroid cartilage. The external carotid, at the level of the mandible divides into the maxillary artery and the superficial temporal. The superficial temporal artery is the posterior branch of these two arteries. It starts off, somewhat, as a continuation of the external carotid artery at the substance of the parotid gland. Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries are branches of the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12.9
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 64 year old man who sustained an iatrogenic injury to both the...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old man who sustained an iatrogenic injury to both the ureters after undergoing a subtotal colectomy, develops renal failure. Labs show an elevated serum potassium level of 6.9 mmol/L. The ECG is most likely to show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Early ECG changes of hyperkalaemia, typically seen at a serum potassium levels of 5.5-6.5 mEq/L, include the following:
      – Tall, peaked T waves with a narrow base (best seen in precordial leads)
      – Shortened QT interval
      – ST-segment depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      8.9
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity reaction with eosinophilia is most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Dust inhalation

      Correct Answer: Liver flukes

      Explanation:

      Usually a parasitic infection will be associated with a type I hypersensitivity reaction.
      Amyloid deposition will not cause an immune reaction.
      Organic dust will lead to a type III hypersensitivity reaction.
      Cell mediated as well as humoral immune mechanism play a part in syphilis, but they are do not specifically cause a type I reaction.
      Malaria is cause by plasmodium and is not cause of a hypersensitivity reaction.
      Atopic dermatitis will not be accompanied by eosinophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      12.9
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when...

    Correct

    • Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when done between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      Maternal serum screening during the second trimester is a non-invasive way of identifying women at increased risk of having children with a neural tube defect and should be offered to all pregnant women. The results are most accurate when the sample is taken between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein suggest open spina bifida, anencephaly, risk of pregnancy complications, or multiple pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      23.9
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 31 year old woman arrives at the clinic due to a tender...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old woman arrives at the clinic due to a tender breast lump. On examination, there is a fluctuant and tender mass. She has a 2 month old child. Which of the following most likely caused her breast lump?

      Your Answer: Breast abscess

      Explanation:

      A breast abscess is a localised collection of pus in the breast tissue. It is usually caused by a bacterial infection. Breast infections, including mastitis and breast abscesses, are most often seen in women aged 15 to 45 years. Mastitis can occur as a result of breastfeeding and if left untreated it can progress to an abscess. The bacteria most commonly associated with this is staphylococcus aureus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      50.6
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 49 year old man is admitted with small bowel obstruction after having...

    Correct

    • A 49 year old man is admitted with small bowel obstruction after having repeated episodes of abdominal pain. A laparotomy is performed and during surgery, a gallstone ileus is identified. Which of the following is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Remove the gallstone via a proximally sited terminal ileal enterotomy and decompress the small bowel. Leave the gallbladder in situ.

      Explanation:

      Gallstone ileus accounts for 1-4% of all small bowel obstructions, predominantly affecting elderly females. This entity is associated with a mortality approaching 20% due to the associated comorbidities that are often present.
      Principles of treatment include stone removal via enterotomy through a site proximal to that of the obstruction.
      Decompression using a sucking apparatus with many large openings, inserted through an enterotomy, is a fast and suitable method. The danger of wound infection can be considerably reduced by careful technique and by antibiotics. Nevertheless, open suction should be used only when the peritoneal cavity is already infected, or when closed decompression by retrograde stripping into the stomach is not possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      50.4
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A 37-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents with 10...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents with 10 days recurrent low fever. Patient underwent laboratory work up and was diagnosed with infective endocarditis. What is the most likely organism that caused the infective endocarditis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Explanation:

      Subacute bacterial endocarditis  is often due to streptococci of low virulence, mainly streptococcus viridans. It is a mild to moderate illness which progresses slowly over weeks and months (>2weeks) and has low propensity to hematogenously seed to extracardiac sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.2
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole?

      Your Answer: H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      H+/K+-ATPase or ‘proton pump’ located in the canalicular membrane plays a major role in acid secretion. The ATPase here is magnesium-dependent. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor and blocks H+/K+- ATPase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      13.4
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?

      Your Answer: Inferior rectus muscle

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      23.7
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 6 week old preterm infant is scheduled for an inguinal hernia repair....

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old preterm infant is scheduled for an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following fluids should be ideally administered to him while he is on NPO?

      Your Answer: 5% dextrose

      Correct Answer: 10% dextrose

      Explanation:

      There is a substantial risk of hypoglycaemia in neonates following surgery, therefore 10% dextrose should be administered to them to avoid the complications associated with hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      20.6
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the...

    Correct

    • A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Liddle syndrome

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      19
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 64 year old man registered at the hernia clinic, suddenly presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old man registered at the hernia clinic, suddenly presents with speech problems and left sided weakness which has lasted longer than 5 minutes. The head CT shows no signs of intracerebral bleed. Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step of management?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral for thrombolysis

      Explanation:

      Patients treated with moderate-dose intravenous thrombolysis within 3 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms benefit substantially from therapy, despite a modest increase in the rate of symptomatic haemorrhage. This patient is within 3h of symptom onset of a stroke, therefore he should be urgently referred to the medical team for thrombolysis, before Aspirin is given. According to the current guidelines, in order to limit the
      risk of an intracranial haemorrhagic complication, no antiplatelet treatment should be administered in the 24 hours that follow treatment of an ischemic stroke by intravenous thrombolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      17
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - An 18 year old male is given a total of 6 litres of...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old male is given a total of 6 litres of 0.9% sodium chloride solution, over 24 hours after having an elective right hemicolectomy. Which of the following complications may develop?

      Your Answer: Hyperchloremic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Hyperchloremic acidosis

      Hyperchloremic acidosis is a form of metabolic acidosis associated with a normal anion gap, a decrease in plasma bicarbonate concentration, and an increase in plasma chloride concentration. In general, the cause of a hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is a loss of base, either a gastrointestinal loss or a renal loss.

      1) Gastrointestinal loss of bicarbonate (HCO3-)
      -Severe diarrhoea (vomiting will tend to cause hypochloraemic alkalosis)
      -Pancreatic fistula with loss of bicarbonate rich pancreatic fluid
      -Nasojejunal tube losses in the context of small bowel obstruction and loss of alkaline proximal small bowel secretions
      -Chronic laxative abuse
      2) Renal causes
      -Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of (HCO3-) resorption
      -Distal renal tubular acidosis with failure of H+
      secretion
      -Long-term use of a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor such as acetazolamide
      3) Other causes
      -Ingestion of ammonium chloride, hydrochloric acid, or other acidifying salts
      -The treatment and recovery phases of diabetic ketoacidosis
      -Volume resuscitation with 0.9% normal saline provides a chloride load, so that infusing more than 3-4L can cause acidosis
      -Hyperalimentation (i.e., total parenteral nutrition).

      This patient received 6L of 0.9% normal saline which lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      32.9
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?

      Your Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.
      Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.
      Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.
      Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.
      Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      34.7
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - During pregnancy the uterus enlarges however after delivery it regresses to its original...

    Incorrect

    • During pregnancy the uterus enlarges however after delivery it regresses to its original size. Which of the following organelles is responsible for this regression?

      Your Answer: Centrioles

      Correct Answer: Lysosomes

      Explanation:

      Lysosomes are formed by budding of the Golgi apparatus and contain enzymes which digest macromolecules. They are found in both plants and animals and are active in autophagic cell death, digestion after phagocytosis and for the cells own recycling process. They fuse with the molecules and release their content resulting in digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - The prostatic plexus of nerves contains nerve fibres that innervate penile tissue allowing...

    Incorrect

    • The prostatic plexus of nerves contains nerve fibres that innervate penile tissue allowing for erection. From which of the following nerves do these fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Pudendal

      Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnics

      Explanation:

      Pelvic splanchnic nerves are examples of the parasympathetic nerves that innervate the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvic viscera. They are also the nerves contributing fibres to the prostatic plexus which innervate penile erectile tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      20.2
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on...

    Correct

    • What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen?

      Your Answer: Elevation of the upper eyelid

      Explanation:

      The levator palpebrae superioris is the muscle in the orbit that elevates the superior (upper) eyelid. The levator palpebrae superioris originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen and receives somatic motor input from the ipsilateral superior division of the oculomotor nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      22.2
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints? ...

    Correct

    • Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle, the longest muscle in the body, is one of the two jointed or biarticular muscles. It originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and part of the notch between the anterior superior iliac spine and anterior inferior iliac spine and crosses both the hip joint and the knee joint. At the hip joint the sartorius flexes and rotates the thigh at the hip joint and flexes the leg at the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12.8
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his...

    Incorrect

    • A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his right arm. On further examination it was found that any movements involving adduction, medial rotation and extension of her arm were particularly weak. Which nerve in this case was damaged?

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal

      Explanation:

      Weakness on these particular movements indicate that there is a problem with the latissimus dorsi muscle. This muscle is very important particularly in swimming movements and is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      21.5
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Bloody discharge from the nipple of a 40-year old woman with no obvious...

    Correct

    • Bloody discharge from the nipple of a 40-year old woman with no obvious lump or abnormality on mammography is suggestive of:

      Your Answer: Intraductal papilloma

      Explanation:

      A small benign tumour, namely intraductal papilloma is most common in women between 35-55 years of age. It is also the commonest cause of spontaneous discharge from a single duct. A lump below the nipple may be sometimes palpable. Ultrasound and ductography are useful investigations., along with cytology of discharge to assess the presence of malignant cells. Confirmation is by breast biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (3/3) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (7/10) 70%
Basic Sciences (13/21) 62%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Pathology (4/7) 57%
Clinical Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (4/6) 67%
Principles Of Surgical Oncology (1/1) 100%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (2/3) 67%
Breast And Endocrine Surgery (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (0/1) 0%
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