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  • Question 1 - Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin...

    Correct

    • Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin over the maxilla region and the mandible?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal

      Explanation:

      The sensation of the face is provided by the trigeminal nerve which is cranial nerve V. It is also responsible for other motor functions such as biting and chewing. The trigeminal nerve has three branches; the ophthalmic nerve (V1), the maxillary nerve((V2) and the mandibular nerve (V3). These three branches exit the skull through separate foramina, namely; the superior orbital fissure, the foramen rotundum and the foramen ovale respectively. The mnemonic for this is ‘Standing room only’. The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges. The sensory fibres of the mandibular nerve are distributed to the lower lip, the lower teeth and gums, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the chin and jaw (except the angle of the jaw, which is supplied by C2–C3), parts of the external ear, and parts of the meninges. The mandibular nerve carries touch/ position and pain/temperature sensation from the mouth. The sensory fibres of the ophthalmic nerve are distributed to the scalp and forehead, the upper eyelid, the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye, the nose (including the tip of the nose), the nasal mucosa, the frontal sinuses and parts of the meninges (the dura and blood vessels). The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and...

    Incorrect

    • After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and is diagnosed with prostatic cancer. What is the stage of this primary tumour?

      Your Answer: T1a

      Correct Answer: T1c

      Explanation:

      The AJCC uses a TNM system to stage prostatic cancer, with categories for the primary tumour, regional lymph nodes and distant metastases:
      TX: cannot evaluate the primary tumour T0: no evidence of tumour
      T1: tumour present, but not detectable clinically or with imaging T1a: tumour was incidentally found in less than 5% of prostate tissue resected (for other reasons)
      T1b: tumour was incidentally found in more than 5% of prostate tissue resected
      T1c: tumour was found in a needle biopsy performed due to an elevated serum prostate-specific antigen
      T2: the tumour can be felt (palpated) on examination, but has not spread outside the prostate
      T2a: the tumour is in half or less than half of one of the prostate gland’s two lobes
      T2b: the tumour is in more than half of one lobe, but not both
      T2c: the tumour is in both lobes
      T3: the tumour has spread through the prostatic capsule (if it is only part-way through, it is still T2)
      T3a: the tumour has spread through the capsule on one or both sides
      T3b: the tumour has invaded one or both seminal vesicles
      T4: the tumour has invaded other nearby structures.
      In this case, the tumour has a T1c stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 41 year old librarian undergoes a gastric bypass surgery and she returns...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old librarian undergoes a gastric bypass surgery and she returns to the clinic complaining that she develops vertigo and crampy abdominal pain after eating. Which of the following is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Enterogastric reflux

      Correct Answer: Dumping syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dumping syndrome is the effect of altered gastric reservoir function, abnormal postoperative gastric motor function, and/or pyloric emptying mechanism. Clinically significant dumping syndrome occurs in approximately 10% of patients after any type of gastric surgery and in up to 50% of patients after laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. Dumping syndrome has characteristic alimentary and systemic manifestations. It is a frequent complication observed after a variety of gastric surgical procedures, such as vagotomy, pyloroplasty, gastrojejunostomy, and laparoscopic Nissan fundoplication. Dumping syndrome can be separated into early and late forms, depending on the occurrence of symptoms in relation to the time elapsed after a meal.
      Postprandially, the function of the body of the stomach is to store food and to allow the initial chemical digestion by acid and proteases before transferring food to the gastric antrum. In the antrum, high-amplitude contractions triturate the solids, reducing the particle size to 1-2 mm. Once solids have been reduced to this desired size, they are able to pass through the pylorus. An intact pylorus prevents the passage of larger particles into the duodenum. Gastric emptying is controlled by the fundic tone, antropyloric mechanisms, and duodenal feedback. Gastric surgery alters each of these mechanisms in several ways.

      The late dumping syndrome is suspected in the person who has symptoms of hypoglycaemia in the setting of previous gastric surgery, and this late dumping can be proven with an oral glucose tolerance test (hyperinsulinemic hypoglycaemia), as well as gastric emptying scintigraphy, which shows the abnormal pattern of initially delayed and then accelerated gastric emptying.

      The clinical presentation of dumping syndrome can be divided into GI symptoms and vasomotor symptoms. GI symptoms include early satiety, crampy abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and explosive diarrhoea. Vasomotor symptoms include diaphoresis, flushing, dizziness, palpitations, and an intense desire to lie down.

      The expression of these symptoms varies in different individuals. Most patients with early dumping have both GI and vasomotor symptoms, while patients with late dumping have mostly vasomotor symptoms. Patients with severe dumping often limit their food intake to avoid symptoms. This leads to weight loss and, over time, malnutrition.

      Early dumping syndrome generally occurs within 15 minutes of ingesting a meal and is attributable to the rapid transit of food into the small intestine, whereas late dumping syndrome occurs later and may be attributed to hypoglycaemia with tremors, cold sweats, difficulty in concentrating, and loss of consciousness.

      Early dumping systemic symptoms are as follows:
      Desire to lie down
      Palpitations
      Fatigue
      Faintness
      Syncope
      Diaphoresis
      Headache
      Flushing

      Early dumping abdominal symptoms are as follows:
      Epigastric fullness
      Diarrhoea
      Nausea
      Abdominal cramps
      Borborygmi

      Late dumping symptoms are as follows:
      Perspiration
      Shakiness
      Difficulty to concentrate
      Decreased consciousness
      Hunger

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?

      Your Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old female undergoes a low anterior resection for rectal cancer. The procedure...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female undergoes a low anterior resection for rectal cancer. The procedure is performed as open surgery, what is the most appropriate method for closure of the abdominal wall?

      Your Answer: Mass closure of the abdomen obeying Jenkins rule using 2/0 PDS

      Correct Answer: Mass closure of the abdomen obeying Jenkins rule using 1 PDS

      Explanation:

      A midline incision is the most commonly used route of access to the abdominal cavity.
      Peritoneal closure
      A number of randomized, controlled trials have shown no benefit to peritoneal closure; thus, refraining from closing the peritoneum is a commonly accepted practice. Some surgeons believe that closure of the peritoneum reduces adhesions between the abdominal contents and the suture line; however, at this time, there is only limited scientific evidence for this belief.
      Fascial closure
      The technique of fascial closure is highly variable among surgeons; however, the various approaches may be grouped into two primary methods as follows:
      Layered closure
      Mass closure
      Layered closure is the sequential closure of each fascial layer individually. The primary advantage of this method is that multiple suture strands exist so that if a suture breaks, the incision is held intact by the remaining sutures.
      Mass closure is continuous fascial closure with a single suture. This method allows even distribution of tension across the entire length of the suture, resulting in minimization of tissue strangulation. The goal is an approximation of tissue edges to allow scar formation. Excessive tension leads to tissue necrosis and eventual failure of the closure.
      The theoretical disadvantage of mass closure is that a single suture is responsible for maintaining the integrity of the closure. The benefits of mass closure include decreased cost and decreased operating time. There is no evidence that mass closure is associated with an increased incidence of hernia formation or wound dehiscence.
      When rectus muscle is incorporated, using absorbable suture and a loose closure in order to decrease postoperative pain and tissue necrosis is important. The assistant following the continuous closure should apply sufficient tension to approximate the tissue without strangulating it. The suture is run in 1-cm intervals (maximally), with at least a 1-cm bite of fascia in each throw.
      The two primary methods of skin closure are with suture or staples. Suture closure is generally performed with 3-0 or 4-0 absorbable suture in a running subcuticular fashion or with nylon running or interrupted transdermal suture. Staple closure is a viable alternative to suturing the skin. In a study comparing scar cosmesis at 6 months, no difference in appearance existed in patients with suture versus staple skin closure
      What is Jenkins Rule?
      It is a rule for closure of the abdominal wound. It states that for a continuous suture, the length of suture used should be at least four times the length of the wound with sutures 1cm apart and with 1cm bites of the wound edge

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the...

    Incorrect

    • The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

      Explanation:

      Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42 year old lawyer is rushed to the emergency room after she...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old lawyer is rushed to the emergency room after she was found lying unconscious on her left arm with an empty bottle of Diazepam beside her. Her left arm has red and purple marks and is swollen. Her hand is stiff and insensate. Which of the following substances would be expected to be present in her urine in increased quantities?

      Your Answer: Myoglobin

      Explanation:

      Answer: Myoglobin

      When muscle is damaged, a protein called myoglobin is released into the bloodstream. It is then filtered out of the body by the kidneys. Myoglobin breaks down into substances that can damage kidney cells.
      Compartment syndrome is a painful condition that occurs when pressure within the muscles builds to dangerous levels. This pressure can decrease blood flow, which prevents nourishment and oxygen from reaching nerve and muscle cells.

      Compartment syndrome can be either acute or chronic.

      Acute compartment syndrome is a medical emergency. It is usually caused by a severe injury. Without treatment, it can lead to permanent muscle damage.

      Chronic compartment syndrome, also known as exertional compartment syndrome, is usually not a medical emergency. It is most often caused by athletic exertion. Compartments are groupings of muscles, nerves, and blood vessels in your arms and legs. Covering these tissues is a tough membrane called a fascia. The role of the fascia is to keep the tissues in place, and, therefore, the fascia does not stretch or expand easily.
      Compartment syndrome develops when swelling or bleeding occurs within a compartment. Because the fascia does not stretch, this can cause increased pressure on the capillaries, nerves, and muscles in the compartment. Blood flow to muscle and nerve cells is disrupted. Without a steady supply of oxygen and nutrients, nerve and muscle cells can be damaged.

      In acute compartment syndrome, unless the pressure is relieved quickly, permanent disability and tissue death may result. This does not usually happen in chronic (exertional) compartment syndrome.

      Compartment syndrome most often occurs in the anterior (front) compartment of the lower leg (calf). It can also occur in other compartments in the leg, as well as in the arms, hands, feet, and buttocks.

      Acute compartment syndrome usually develops after a severe injury, such as a car accident or a broken bone. Rarely, it develops after a relatively minor injury.

      Conditions that may bring on acute compartment syndrome include:

      A fracture.
      A badly bruised muscle. This type of injury can occur when a motorcycle falls on the leg of the rider, or a football player is hit in the leg with another player’s helmet.
      Re-established blood flow after blocked circulation. This may occur after a surgeon repairs a damaged blood vessel that has been blocked for several hours. A blood vessel can also be blocked during sleep. Lying for too long in a position that blocks a blood vessel, then moving or waking up can cause this condition. Most healthy people will naturally move when blood flow to a limb is blocked during sleep. The development of compartment syndrome in this manner usually occurs in people who are neurologically compromised. This can happen after severe intoxication with alcohol or other drugs.
      Crush injuries.
      Anabolic steroid use. Taking steroids is a possible factor in compartment syndrome.
      Constricting bandages. Casts and tight bandages may lead to compartment syndrome. If symptoms of compartment syndrome develop, remove or loosen any constricting bandages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle. ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle.

      Your Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the obturator foramen

      Correct Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen

      Explanation:

      The obturator internus arises from the inner surface of the anterolateral wall of the pelvis and the pelvic surface of the obturator membrane. The fibres converge rapidly towards the lesser sciatic foramen and end in four or five tendinous bands and leave the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A middle aged man who is reported to have a penicillin allergy is...

    Correct

    • A middle aged man who is reported to have a penicillin allergy is given a dose of intravenous co-amoxiclav before undergoing an inguinal hernia repair. His vital signs a few minutes after are: pulse 131bpm and blood pressure 61/42mmHg. Which of the following is the first line treatment?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline 1:1000 IM

      Explanation:

      Answer: Adrenaline 1:1000 IM

      Early treatment with intramuscular adrenaline is the treatment of choice for patients having an anaphylactic reaction. IM Injection:

      Adults: The usual dose is 500 micrograms (0.5ml of adrenaline 1/1000). If necessary, this dose may be repeated several times at 5-minute intervals according to blood pressure, pulse and respiratory function.

      Additional measures

      Beta2-agonists for bronchospasm: administer salbutamol or terbutaline by aerosol or nebuliser.

      Antihistamines: administer both H1and H2receptor blockers slowly intravenously:
      promethazine 0.5-1 mg/kg
      and
      ranitidine 1 mg/kg or famotidine 0.4 mg/kg or cimetidine 4 mg/kg
      Corticosteroids: administer intravenously: hydrocortisone 2-6 mg/kg or dexamethasone 0.1-0.4 mg/kg
      Nebulised adrenaline (5 mL of 1:1000) may be tried in laryngeal oedema and often will ease upper airways obstruction. However, do not delay intubation if upper airways obstruction is progressive.

      Anaphylaxis is an acute, potentially fatal, multiorgan system reaction caused by the release of chemical mediators from mast cells and basophils. The classic form involves prior sensitization to an allergen with later reexposure, producing symptoms via an immunologic mechanism.

      Anaphylaxis most commonly affects the cutaneous, respiratory, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal systems. The skin or mucous membranes are involved in 80-90% of cases. A majority of adult patients have some combination of urticaria, erythema, pruritus, or angioedema. However, for poorly understood reasons, children may present more commonly with respiratory symptoms followed by cutaneous symptoms. It is also important to note that some of the most severe cases of anaphylaxis present in the absence of skin findings.

      Initially, patients often experience pruritus and flushing. Other symptoms can evolve rapidly, such as the following:

      Dermatologic/ocular: Flushing, urticaria, angioedema, cutaneous and/or conjunctival injection or pruritus, warmth, and swelling

      Respiratory: Nasal congestion, coryza, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, throat tightness, wheezing, shortness of breath, cough, hoarseness, dyspnoea

      Cardiovascular: Dizziness, weakness, syncope, chest pain, palpitations

      Gastrointestinal: Dysphagia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, bloating, cramps

      Neurologic: Headache, dizziness, blurred vision, and seizure (very rare and often associated with hypotension)

      Other: Metallic taste, feeling of impending doom

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32 year old woman complains of a sudden, severe headache, the worst...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman complains of a sudden, severe headache, the worst one she has ever experienced and collapses. CT scan shows a subarachnoid haemorrhage. However, she currently has no signs of an elevated ICP. Which of the following drugs should be administered?

      Your Answer: Nimodipine

      Explanation:

      Nimodipine, a calcium-channel antagonist with a relatively selective vasodilatory effect on cerebral blood vessels, has been approved for improvement of neurologic deficits due to spasm following subarachnoid haemorrhage. Oral nimodipine is the most studied calcium channel blocker for prevention of vasospasm after Subarachnoid haemorrhage.
      An American Heart Association/American Stroke Association guideline recommends its use for this purpose (class I, level of evidence A). Calcium channel blockers have been shown to reduce the incidence of ischemic neurologic deficits, and nimodipine has been shown to improve overall outcome within 3 months of aneurysmal SAH. Calcium channel blockers and other antihypertensives should be used cautiously to avoid the deleterious effects of hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is the most common germ cell tumour of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common germ cell tumour of the testis affecting an adult male?

      Your Answer: Seminoma

      Explanation:

      Germ cell tumours represent 90% of primary tumours arising in the testis. They are broadly divided into seminomas and non-seminomas. Seminomas are the most common testicular germ cell tumour seen in 40% cases. The other non-seminomatous histological subtypes include embryonal (25%), teratocarcinoma (25%), teratoma (5%) and pure choriocarcinoma (1%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 43 year old man presents with a perianal abscess which is managed...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old man presents with a perianal abscess which is managed by incision and drainage. The wound measures 2.5cm x 2.5cm. What is the best step in management?

      Your Answer: Insert a seton through the cavity into the rectum to allow a mature fistula track to develop

      Correct Answer: Allow the wound to heal by secondary intention

      Explanation:

      Answer: Allow the wound to heal by secondary intention

      A perianal abscess is a type of anorectal abscess that is confined to the perianal space. Other causes can include inflammatory bowel diseases such as Crohn’s disease, as well as trauma, or cancerous origins. Patients with recurrent or complex abscesses should be evaluated for Crohn’s disease. Perianal abscesses are the most common type of anorectal abscesses. These abscesses can cause significant discomfort for patients. They are located at the anal verge and if left untreated can extend into the ischioanal space or intersphincteric space since these areas are continuous with the perianal space. They can also cause systemic infection if left untreated. Patients will complain of anal pain which may be dull, sharp, aching, or throbbing. This may be accompanied by fever, chills, constipation, or diarrhoea. Patients with perianal abscess typically present with pain around the anus, which may or may not be associated with bowel movements, but is usually constant. Purulent discharge may be reported if the abscess is spontaneously draining, and blood per rectum may be reported in a spontaneously draining abscess.

      A physical exam can typically rule out other causes of anal pain, such as haemorrhoids, and will yield an area of fluctuance or an area of erythema and induration in the skin around the perianal area. Cellulitis should be noted and marked if extending beyond the fluctuant area.

      Perianal abscesses are an indication for timely incision and drainage. Antibiotic administration alone is inadequate and inappropriate. Once incision and drainage are performed, there is no need for antibiotic administration unless certain medical issues necessitate the use. Such conditions include valvular heart disease, immunocompromised patients, diabetic patients, or in the setting of sepsis. Antibiotics are also considered in these patients or cases with signs of systemic infection or significant surrounding cellulitis.

      Incision and drainage are typically performed in an office setting, or immediately in the emergency department. Local anaesthesia with 1% lidocaine may be administered to the surrounding tissues. A cruciate incision is made as close to the anal verge as possible to shorten any potential fistula formation. Blunt palpation is used to ensure no other septation or abscess pocket is missed. It is useful before completion of procedure to excise a skin flap of the cruciate incision or the tips of the four skin flaps to ensure adequate drainage and prevent premature healing of the skin over the abscess pocket. Packing may be placed initially for haemostasis. Continual packing may be further utilized for healing by secondary intention. Patients are encouraged to keep the incision and drainage site clean. Sitz baths may assist in pain relief.

      More extensive abscesses may require the operating room for the adequate exam under anaesthesia to ensure adequate drainage, as well as inspect for other diseases such as fistula in ano.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has...

    Incorrect

    • Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has malignant growth involving the anus?

      Your Answer: Pararectal

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The lymphatics from the anus, skin of the perineum and the scrotum end in the superficial inguinal nodes. In case of a malignant growth of the anus, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes would most likely be enlarge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old male is referred to a clinic for consideration of resection of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male is referred to a clinic for consideration of resection of lung malignancy. He reports shortness of breath and haemoptysis. Investigations reveal corrected calcium of 2.84 mmol/l, FEV 1 of 1.9L and histology of squamous cell carcinoma. The patient is noted to have hoarseness of voice. Which one of the following is a contraindication to surgical resection in lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Calcium = 2.84 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: Vocal cord paralysis

      Explanation:

      The hoarseness of voice implies vocal cord paralysis denoting the spread of malignancy which is a contraindication to surgery.

      Summary of Guidelines on the selection of patients with lung cancer for surgery (Related to this case)

      PART I: FITNESS FOR SURGERY
      Age:
      1. Perioperative morbidity increases with advancing age. Elderly patients undergoing lung resection are more likely to require intensive perioperative support. Preoperatively, a careful assessment of co-morbidity needs to be made.
      2. Surgery for clinically stage I and II disease can be as effective in patients over 70 years as in younger patients. Such patients should be considered for surgical treatment regardless of age.
      3. Age over 80 alone is not a contraindication to lobectomy or wedge resection for clinical stage I disease.
      4. Pneumonectomy is associated with higher mortality risk in the elderly. Age should be a factor in deciding suitability for pneumonectomy.

      Pulmonary function:
      There should be a formal liaison in borderline cases between the referring chest physician and the thoracic surgical team.
      2.No further respiratory function tests are required for a lobectomy if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >1.5 litres and for a pneumonectomy, if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >2.0 litres, provided that there is no evidence of interstitial lung disease or unexpected disability due to shortness of breath.
      STEP 1
      3.All patients not clearly operable on the basis of spirometry should have: (a) full pulmonary function tests including estimation of transfer factor (TLCO); (b) measurement of oxygen saturation on air at rest; and (c) a quantitative isotope perfusion scan if a pneumonectomy is being considered.
      4.These data should be used to calculate estimated postoperative FEV1 expressed as % predicted and the estimated postoperative TLCO expressed as % predicted, using either the lung scan for pneumonectomy or an anatomical equation for lobectomy, taking account of whether the segments to be removed are ventilated or obstructed.
      STEP 2
      5.(a) Estimated postoperative FEV1 >40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO >40% predicted and oxygen saturation (SaO 2) >90% on air: average risk.
      (b)Estimated postoperative FEV1 <40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO <40% predicted: high risk.
      (c)All other combinations: consider exercise testing.
      6.Patients for whom the risk of resection is still unclear after step 2 tests should be referred for exercise testing.
      STEP 3
      7.(a) The best distance on two shuttle walk tests of <25 shuttles (250 m) or desaturation during the test of more than 4% SaO 2 indicates a patient is a high risk for surgery.
      (b)Other patients should be referred for a formal cardiopulmonary exercise test. For cardiopulmonary exercise testing peak oxygen consumption (V˙O 2peak) of more than 15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is an average risk for surgery.
      (c)A V˙O 2peak of <15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is a high risk for surgery. PART II: OPERABILITY
      Diagnosis and staging
      1.All patients being considered for surgery should have a plain chest radiograph and a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the thorax including the liver and adrenal glands.
      2.Confirmatory diagnostic percutaneous needle biopsy in patients presenting with peripheral lesions is not mandatory in patients who are otherwise fit, particularly if there are previous chest radiographs showing no evidence of a lesion.
      3.Patients with mediastinal nodes greater than 1 cm in short-axis diameter on the CT scan should undergo biopsy by staging mediastinoscopy, anterior mediastinotomy, or needle biopsy as appropriate.
      Operability and adjuvant therapy
      1.The proportion of patients found to be inoperable at operation should be 5–10%.
      2.Patients with stage I (cT1N0 and cT2N0) and stage II (cT1N1, cT2N1 and cT3N0) tumours should be considered operable.
      3.Patients with stage I tumours have a high chance and those with stage II tumours a reasonable chance of being cured by surgery alone.
      4.Patients who are known preoperatively to have stage IIIA (cT3N1 and cT1–3N2) tumours have a low chance of being cured by surgery alone but might be considered operable in the context of a trial of surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy.
      5.Participation in prospective trials of multimodality treatment for locally advanced disease is strongly recommended.
      6.Some small individual studies indicate a place for surgery in T4N0 and T4N1 tumours within stage IIIB, few long term data are available. Generally, stage IIIB tumours with node involvement and stage IV tumours should be considered inoperable.
      7.There is no place for postoperative radiotherapy following complete primary tumour resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 54 year old man, underwent an Ivor Lewis esophagectomy for oesophageal carcinoma....

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old man, underwent an Ivor Lewis esophagectomy for oesophageal carcinoma. How should he be fed post operatively?

      Your Answer: Endoscopically inserted PEG tube

      Correct Answer: Surgically inserted jejunostomy feeding tube

      Explanation:

      Jejunostomy feeding (enteral feeding) is now the standard of care in most feeding protocols after esophagectomy. The feeding regimen consists of a gradually increasing volume of feeds in the first five to seven days. Patients should resume oral intake as soon as possible after surgery. In hospital, all forms of enteral access appear to be safe. Out of hospital, the ability to provide home feeding by feeding jejunostomy is likely where meaningful nutritional improvements can be made. Improving nutrition and related quality of life in the early months might improve the long-term outcome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the 5 year survival rate of a patient who is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • What is the 5 year survival rate of a patient who is diagnosed with stage III colon cancer, who underwent successful resection and completed the prescribed session of adjuvant chemotherapy?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 30%–60%

      Explanation:

      In this patient who has stage III colon cancer, the survival rate is 30-60%. For stage I or Dukes’ stage A disease, the 5-year survival rate after surgical resection exceeds 90%. For stage II or Dukes’ stage B disease, the 5-year survival rate is 70%–85% after resection, with or without adjuvant therapy. For stage III or Dukes’ stage C disease, the 5-year survival rate is 30%– 60% after resection and adjuvant chemotherapy and for stage IV or Dukes’ stage D disease, the 5-year survival rate is poor (approximately 5%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long...

    Correct

    • During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long thoracic nerve. Which among the following muscles is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle which holds the scapula forward and balances the rhomboids and the trapezius muscles which retract the scapula. Injury to this nerve results in a ‘winged scapula’ with a posterior protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the...

    Correct

    • A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Examination confirms the finding and petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx are observed. Splenomegaly is seen on systemic examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Infection with Epstein Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection

      The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
      EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
      fever,
      fatigue,
      swollen tonsils,
      headache, and
      sweats,
      sore throat,
      swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
      sometimes an enlarged spleen.
      Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
      Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Right precentral gyrus

      Correct Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex

      Explanation:

      A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the...

    Correct

    • After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the peripheral blood will become an activated macrophage in this granuloma?

      Your Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are leukocytes that protect the body against infections and move to the site of infection within 8-12 hours to deal with it. They are produced in the bone marrow and shortly after being produced are released into the blood stream where they circulate until an infection is detected. When called upon they leave the circulation and transform into macrophages within the tissue fluid and thus gain the capability to phagocytose the offending substance. Monocyte count is part of a complete blood picture. Monocytosis is the state of excess monocytes in the peripheral blood and may be indicative of various disease states. Examples of processes that can increase a monocyte count include: • chronic inflammation • stress response • hyperadrenocorticism • immune-mediated disease • pyogranulomatous disease • necrosis • red cell regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A neonate with failure to pass meconium is being evaluated. His abdomen is...

    Correct

    • A neonate with failure to pass meconium is being evaluated. His abdomen is distended and X-ray films of the abdomen show markedly dilated small bowel and colon loops. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Aganglionosis in the rectum

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease (also known as aganglionic megacolon) leads to colon enlargement due to bowel obstruction by an aganglionic section of bowel that starts at the anus. A blockage is created by a lack of ganglion cells needed for peristalsis that move the stool. 1 in 5000 children suffer from this disease, with boys affected four times more commonly than girls. It develops in the fetus in early stages of pregnancy. Symptoms include not having a first bowel movement (meconium) within 48 hours of birth, repeated vomiting and a swollen abdomen. Two-third of cases are diagnosed within 3 months of birth. Some children may present with delayed toilet training and some might not show symptoms till early childhood. Diagnosis is by barium enema and rectal biopsy (showing lack of ganglion cells).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following has the least malignant potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the least malignant potential?

      Your Answer: Tubular adenoma

      Correct Answer: Hyperplastic polyp

      Explanation:

      Non-neoplastic (non-adenomatous) colonic polyps include hyperplastic polyps, hamartomas, juvenile polyps, pseudopolyps, lipomas, leiomyomas and others.
      An autosomal dominant condition, Peutz–Jeghers syndrome is a disease that is characterized by multiple hamartomatous polyps in the stomach, small bowel and colon. Symptoms of this syndrome include hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes, especially of the lips and gums.
      Juvenile polyps develop in children, and once they outgrow their blood supply, they autoamputate around puberty. In cases of uncontrolled bleeding or intussusception, treatment is needed.
      Inflammatory polyps and pseudopolyps occur in chronic ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. There is an increased risk of cancer with multiple juvenile polyps (not with sporadic polyps).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the role of factor VII in coagulation? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of factor VII in coagulation?

      Your Answer: Initiates the process of coagulation in conjunction with tissue factor

      Explanation:

      The main role of factor VII is to initiate the process of coagulation along with tissue factor (TF). TF is found in the blood vessels and is not normally exposed to the bloodstream. When a vessel is injured tissue factor is exposed to blood and circulating factor VII. Factor VII is converted to VIIa by TF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following morphological characteristic is a salient feature of a pure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following morphological characteristic is a salient feature of a pure apoptotic cell?

      Your Answer: Phagocytosby neutrophils

      Correct Answer: Chromatin condensation

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is the programmed death of cells which occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism’s growth or development. The changes which occur in this process include blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, chromatin condensation, chromosomal DNA fragmentation, and global mRNA decay. The cell membrane however remains intact and the dead cells are phagocytosed prior to any content leakage and thus inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 34 year old woman from the Indian origin presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old woman from the Indian origin presents to the clinic with a diffuse swelling of the left breast. She has a baby boy, four months old. On examination, she has jaundice and her left breast shows erythema. Which of the following options is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammatory carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare form of advanced, invasive carcinoma, characterized by dermal lymphatic invasion of tumour cells. Most commonly a ductal carcinoma.
      Clinical features include erythematous and oedematous (peau d’orange) skin plaques over a rapidly growing breast mass. Tenderness, burning sensation, blood-tinged nipple discharge. Axillary lymphadenopathy is usually present. 25% of patients have metastatic disease at the time of presentation.
      Differential diagnosis includes mastitis, breast abscess, Paget disease of the breast
      Treatment is usually done with chemotherapy + radiotherapy + radical mastectomy. This type of cancer is usually associated with a poor prognosis. 5-year survival with treatment: ∼ 50% (without treatment: < 5%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema and neck stiffness. The child is also hypotensive upon physical examination. Which is the most likely toxin responsible for this child's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endotoxin

      Explanation:

       An endotoxin is part of the bacterial outer membrane, and it is not released until the bacterium is killed by the immune system. The body’s response to an endotoxin can involve severe inflammation. In general, the inflammation process is usually considered beneficial to the infected host, but if the reaction is severe enough, it can lead to sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 24-year-old man presents with a six-day history of bloody diarrhoea along with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man presents with a six-day history of bloody diarrhoea along with passage of mucus. He has been defecating about eight to nine times per day. Digital rectal examination is carried out in which no discrete abnormality is felt. However, some blood-stained mucus is seen on the glove. What could be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Passage of bloody diarrhoea together with mucus and a short history makes this a likely presentation of inflammatory bowel disease. Rectal malignancy in a young age would be a very unlikely event. Furthermore, the history is too short to be consistent with solitary rectal ulcer syndrome.

      Rectal bleeding is a common cause for patients to be referred to the surgical clinic. In the clinical history, it is important to try and localise the anatomical source of the bleeding. Bright red blood is usually of rectal origin, whereas, dark red blood is more suggestive of a proximally located bleeding source. Blood which has entered the gastrointestinal tract from a gastroduodenal source will typically resemble melaena due to the effects of the digestive enzymes on the blood itself.

      PR bleeding in ulcerative colitis (UC) is usually bright red and often mixed with stool. It is mostly associated with the passage of mucus as well. Other clinical features reported on history include diarrhoea, weight loss, and nocturnal incontinence. Proctitis is the most marked finding on examination and perianal disease is usually absent. Colonoscopy is carried out which shows continuous mucosal lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

      Explanation:

      THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy...

    Incorrect

    • A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy showed the distinct cherry red spot on the retina. Which of the following arteries was occluded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central artery of the retina

      Explanation:

      The central retinal artery supplies all the nerve fibres that form the optic nerve, which carries the visual information to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Thus if the central retinal artery gets occluded, there is complete loss of vision in that eye and the entire retina (with the exception of the fovea) becomes pale, swollen and opaque while the central fovea still appears reddish (this is because the choroid colour shows through). This is the basis of the famous Cherry red spot seen on examination of the retina on fundoscopy of a central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (2/5) 40%
Basic Sciences (7/15) 47%
Pathology (2/6) 33%
Generic Surgical Topics (2/3) 67%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (2/6) 33%
Surgical Technique And Technology (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (2/2) 100%
Surgical Disorders Of The Brain (1/1) 100%
Peri-operative Care (0/2) 0%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Head And Neck Surgery (1/1) 100%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
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