-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypophosphatemic rickets
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after his GP noted an ejection systolic murmur and thrill at the upper left sternal edge. SpO2 saturation is at 98%, and an ECG reveals an R/S ratio >1 in the V1 lead.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Pulmonary Stenosis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be pulmonary stenosis. Pulmonary Stenosis:Pulmonary valve murmurs are heard in the upper left sternal edge, associated with a thrill but no desaturation in the absence of an additional shunt. The ECG changes suggest right ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary stenosis is often well tolerated in childhood unless severe. These should be monitored with serial echocardiography, and balloon pulmonary valvoplasty should be considered once the pressure gradient reaches 64 mmHg.Other options:- Atrial septal defect: While atrial septal defects are associated with right ventricular outflow tract murmurs, they would not cause a thrill.- Patent ductus arteriosus: PDA murmurs can be audible in the left upper sternal edge, but would normally be audible in the left infraclavicular area and be continuous rather than ejection systolic. This left to right shunt would not cause desaturation but does cause left-sided volume loading and hence left-sided ECG changes.- Tetralogy of Fallot: Ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, subpulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. This would often cause a ULSE murmur with a thrill and RVH on ECG. However, this degree of obstruction would cause shunting from right to left, and this child would be desaturated.- Ventricular septal defect: Isolated ventricular septal defects cause pansystolic murmurs at the left lower sternal edge. They would have left-sided ECG changes and normal saturations (in the absence of pulmonary hypertension).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 8 year old boy presented with acute onset of nasal obstruction. His parents gave a recent history of nasal trauma. On examination he was febrile and his nasal bones were straight. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Septal hematoma
Correct Answer: Septal abscess
Explanation:History of fever is suggestive of an infective focus. A straight nasal bones excludes a nasal bone fracture. A nasal septal abscess is defined as a collection of pus between the cartilage or bony septum and it is an uncommon disease which should be suspected in a patient with acute onset of nasal obstruction and recent history of nasal trauma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 10 year old boy is being bullied by his classmates because he's obese and he is the shortest in his class. His mother is worried and brings him in to the clinic. History reveals he had a renal transplant last year. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:The boy had a renal transplant, for which he needs immune suppression. For the exogenous immune suppression an exogenous steroid is needed, which in this case is responsible for the primary Cushing syndrome manifesting with short stature. The administration of steroids before the physiological fusion of the growth plate can lead to premature fusion with permanent cessation of bone growth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of his scrotum following a kick to the groin. What is the most appropriate management that can be done at this stage?
Your Answer: Doppler
Correct Answer: Exploratory surgery
Explanation:The most worrying condition is testicular torsion and to exclude it exploratory surgery is required.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 16-month-old infant presented to ER with multiple bruises on his right arm. According to his mom, he has been unable to move it since yesterday and is crying more than usual. A relative attended the child while his mother was on a night shift. X-ray revealed a fracture of the right humerus, which was put in a cast. What is the next step in this case?
Your Answer: Follow up in paediatric outpatients
Correct Answer: Admit under care of paediatrician
Explanation:Certain lesions present on x-ray are suggestive of child abuse including rib, humerus and skull fractures. It is the doctors responsibility to follow up on these cases to determine whether domestic abuse has occurred.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of the foetus. During her visit, she is informed she is going to have a baby boy. What will be the chromosomal arrangement of the baby?
Your Answer: 23 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)
Correct Answer: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)
Explanation:In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Congenital retinal pigment epithelial hypertrophy (CHRPE) suggests a diagnosis of Peutz-Jegher syndrome
Correct Answer: Intestinal hamartomatous polyps are seen in Cowden syndrome
Explanation:Colonic Polyposis and neoplasia are often seen in Cowden Syndrome which is a hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. Patients with Cowden syndrome have an increased risk for colorectal cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 16-year-old boy presents with complaints of ear pain. The pain started last night and prevented him from sleeping. He reports that sounds are muffled on the affected side. On examination, he has a fever. A bulging tympanic membrane with a visible fluid level is seen on otoscopy. You suspect a diagnosis of acute suppurative otitis media. Tensor tympani is a muscle that is found in the middle ear. What is the nerve supplying the tensor tympani?
Your Answer: Mandibular nerve
Explanation:The nerve supply to the tensor tympani is the mandibular nerve.The mandibular nerve is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that carries motor fibres.Tensor tympani is a muscle that lies in a bony canal just superior to the pharyngotympanic tube. It originates from the cartilaginous portion of the pharyngotympanic tube, the bony canal in which it sits, and the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. It inserts into the upper part of the handle of the malleus. When contracted, it pulls the handle of the malleus medially. This action increases the tension across the tympanic membrane, reducing the magnitude of vibrations transmitted into the middle ear. This dampens loud noises or noises produced by chewing. Tensor tympani is innervated through the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve.Other options:- The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. This nerve has two components, a vestibular division that carries balance information, and a cochlear division that carries hearing information.- The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve. It has a wide range of functions. It carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, as well as sensation from the pharyngeal wall and tonsils, the middle ear, external auditory canal and auricle. It carries parasympathetic fibres that supply the parotid gland. It also supplies the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus and supplies the secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland.- The maxillary nerve carries only sensory fibres.- The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve. It supplies the muscles of facial expression, as well as stylohyoid, the posterior belly of digastric, and stapedius (the only other muscle associated with the middle ear). It carries taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and sensation from part of the external acoustic meatus, parts of the auricle and the retro-auricular area. It provides secretomotor fibres which supply to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland (via chorda tympani nerve), nasal glands and lacrimal glands.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to the physician after his teachers complained of his dropping grades. On clinical examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease. The ultrasound reveals cirrhosis and the blood ceruloplasmin levels are low. Wilsons disease is suspected. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present in addition to the above findings?
Your Answer: Kayser-Fleischer rings
Explanation:A minority of affected individuals may experience severe liver failure. This happens most frequently in people with Wilson’s disease during adolescence and more commonly in women. These individuals may rapidly develop signs and symptoms of liver disease, often associated with anaemia due to breakdown of red blood cells (haemolysis) and mental confusion. In some patients, liver disease does not reveal itself, and the patient develops neurologic (brain-related) symptoms. Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity. Almost all affected individuals with the neurological symptoms of Wilson’s disease have Kayser-Fleischer rings in their eyes that can be identified by a slit lamp examination.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic hormone) primarily acts?
Your Answer: Distal convoluted Tubule
Correct Answer: Collecting ducts
Explanation:ADH primarily acts on the collecting ducts.Other options:- The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the site of renin production.- The proximal tubule conducts isosmotic reabsorption of about 60% of sodium chloride and volume. Most of the glucose, amino acids, potassium and phosphate are absorbed here.- The loop of Henle is the site of 25% of sodium reabsorption. Active Chloride transport provides the basis for the counter current multiplier aiding urinary concentration.- The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water and acts via active sodium chloride absorption to dilute urine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?
Your Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%
Explanation:Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 12 year old boy is shot in the abdomen with a pellet gun. He hides the injury for over a week before he is taken to his doctor. CT scan shows that the pellet is lodged in his liver's left lobe. His abdomen is soft and non-tender on examination and he seems well. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks later
Explanation:Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks laterAir weapon injuries in children should be managed in the same way as any low velocity gun shot injury. Subcutaneous pellets are best removed. Urgent specialist referral is indicated for cranial, ocular, chest, abdominal, or vascular injuries as they may require emergency surgery. Cardiac injuries may be rapidly fatal. Penetrating abdominal injuries involving hollow viscera or major blood vessels need prompt exploration and repair. Intracranial air weapon pellets should be removed if possible. A pellet in lung parenchyma or muscle may be safely left in situ but there is a risk of infection. A pellet that has penetrated a joint or is associated with a fracture requires skilled orthopaedic management. A pellet lodged near a major blood vessel or nerve should ideally be removed. The possibility of intravascular embolism must be considered if the pellet is absent from a suspected entry site and there is no exit wound; numerous examples of arterial and venous embolism of an air weapon pellet in children have been described.In this case, the child seems well so there is no need to operate. He should be reviewed several weeks later.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Raised TSH level
Correct Answer: Low baseline TSH level
Explanation:A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared three months ago. They are symmetrically distributed and more profound on the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees. The papules are present on the trunk as well but are less remarkable. She doesn't have it anywhere else on her body and seems to be in a good health. The itchiness results in the girl to often scratching and popping the fluid-filled blisters that are present. There is no family history of atopy or other skin conditions. Which of the following is accurate?
Your Answer: Coeliac antibodies should be measured
Explanation:This is the clinical picture of dermatitis herpetiformis associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. To establish the diagnosis, you should measure the coeliac antibodies. Darrier’s sign (where the skin urticates when it is stroked) is positive in urticaria pigmentosa.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he was complaining of pain and swelling. The x-ray showed the classic sign of Codman's triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Codman’s triangle is the triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises the periosteum away from the bone. The main causes for this sign are osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, eumycetoma, and a subperiosteal abscess.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?
Your Answer: Amygdala
Correct Answer: Right frontal lobe
Explanation:The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old child presents with unilateral headache that affects the left side of his head and face. His left eye is red and he scores 7/10 on pain assessment. The headache develops suddenly and unexpectedly after he returns from school. He has a history of six such episodes this year. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Migraine without aura
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches present with unilateral severe headache that may be associated with ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms including; lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, ophthalmic injection, and occasionally, Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
When testing reflexes which one of the following would you not expect to find in a new-born, full-term baby?
Your Answer: Parachute
Explanation:PARACHUTE REFLEX This reflex occurs in slightly older infants when the child is held upright and the baby’s body is rotated quickly to face forward (as in falling). The baby will extend his arms forward as if to break a fall, even though this reflex appears long before the baby walks.Newborn reflexes are:Rooting reflex:This reflex starts when the corner of the baby’s mouth is stroked or touched. The baby will turn his or her head and open his or her mouth to follow and root in the direction of the stroking. This helps the baby find the breast or bottle to start feeding. This reflex lasts about 4 months.Suck reflex:Moro reflex:The Moro reflex is often called a startle reflex. That’s because it usually occurs when a baby is startled by a loud sound or movement. In response to the sound, the baby throws back his or her head, extends out his or her arms and legs, cries, then pulls the arms and legs back in. This reflex lasts until the baby is about 2 months old.Tonic neck reflex:When a baby’s head is turned to one side, the arm on that side stretches out and the opposite arm bends up at the elbow. This is often called the fencing position. This reflex lasts until the baby is about 5 to 7 months old.Grasp reflex:Stroking the palm of a baby’s hand causes the baby to close his or her fingers in a grasp. The grasp reflex lasts until the baby is about 5 to 6 months old. A similar reflex in the toes lasts until 9 to 12 months.Stepping reflex:This reflex is also called the walking or dance reflex because a baby appears to take steps or dance when held upright with his or her feet touching a solid surface. This reflex lasts about 2 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?
Your Answer: Short diamond shaped diastolic murmur after the third heart sound
Explanation:Auscultatory findings of VSD vary with the size of the defect. Small VSDs typically produce murmurs ranging from a grade 1 to 2/6 high-pitched, short systolic murmur (due to tiny defects that actually close during late systole) to a grade 3 to 4/6 holosystolic murmur (with or without thrill) at the lower left sternal border; this murmur is usually audible within the first few days of life (see table Heart Murmur Intensity). The precordium is not hyperactive, and the 2nd heart sound (S2) is normally split and has normal intensity.Moderate to large VSDs produce a holosystolic murmur that is present by age 2 to 3 wk; S2 is usually narrowly split with an accentuated pulmonary component. An apical diastolic rumble (due to increased flow through the mitral valve) and findings of heart failure (e.g., tachypnoea, dyspnoea with feeding, failure to thrive, gallop, crackles, hepatomegaly) may be present. In moderate, high-flow VSDs, the murmur is often very loud and accompanied by a thrill (grade 4 or 5 murmur). With large defects allowing equalization of left ventricular and right ventricular pressures, the systolic murmur is often attenuated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur in anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Salivary gland hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Hepatosplenomegaly
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is a serious, psychiatric eating disorder characterized by distorted self-image due to which abnormal eating behaviours are adopted. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the gastrointestinal system. The GI manifestations of anorexia are enlarged salivary glands due to purging behaviour, gastritis, gastroparesis, acute gastric dilatation, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, elevated liver transaminases, which cause hepatocyte apoptosis leading to cirrhosis, and steatosis leading to fatty liver. Hepatosplenomegaly is not a recognized complication of anorexia nervosa.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. What is the most appropriate management for this child?
Your Answer: He should receive MMR plus mumps immunoglobulin now
Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old female presented with complaints of haematuria and fatigue. She had a history of bloody diarrhoea starting 7 days previously. On investigation, her serum urea and creatinine were raised and proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most suitable diagnosis for her?
Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)
Correct Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:HUS syndrome occurs mostly in children after some days of bloody diarrhoea. Damaged red blood cells also damage the kidney filtering unit and lead to sudden renal failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?
Your Answer: Cystine stone
Explanation:Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate sticksť to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A two-sample t-test comparing weight loss after two different diet regimes yield a P-value of 0.001.Which one of the following statements can be deducted from this finding?
Your Answer: The difference would have occurred by chance for a study of this size only once in 1000 times if the two regimes did not differ in their effect
Explanation:The P value is defined as the probability under the assumption of no effect or no difference (null hypothesis), of obtaining a result equal to or more extreme than what was actually observed. The P stands for probability and measures how likely it is that any observed difference between groups is due to chance. Being a probability, P can take any value between 0 and 1. Values close to 0 indicate that the observed difference is unlikely to be due to chance, whereas a P value close to 1 suggests no difference between the groups other than due to chance. Thus, it is common in medical journals to see adjectives such as highly significantť or very significantť after quoting the P value depending on how close to zero the value is.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency after collapsing at a shopping mall. She is accompanied by her mother who reveals that she has had amenorrhea for the past 7 consecutive months. There is fine hair on her body. Which of the following investigations is mandatory in this case?
Your Answer: Urine analysis
Correct Answer: Urea & Electrolytes
Explanation:Although some individuals with Anorexia Nervosa exhibit no laboratory abnormalities, the semistarvation characteristic of this disorder can affect most major organ systems and produce a variety of disturbances. The induced vomiting and abuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas can also cause a number of disturbances leading to abnormal laboratory findings.Haematology: Leukopenia and mild anaemia are common; thrombocytopenia occurs rarely.Chemistry: Dehydration may be reflected by an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN). Hypercholesterolemia is common. Liver function tests may be elevated.Hypomagnesemia, hypozincaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperamylasaemia are occasionally found. Induced vomiting may lead to metabolic alkalosis (elevated serum bicarbonate), hypochloraemia, and hypokalaemia, and laxative abuse may cause a metabolic acidosis. Serum thyroxine levels are usually in the low-normal range; triiodothyronine levels are decreased. Hyperadrenocorticism and abnormal responsiveness to a variety of neuroendocrine challenges are common.In females, low serum oestrogen levels are present, whereas males have low levels of serum testosterone. There is a regression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in both sexes in that the 24-hour pattern of secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) resembles that normally seen in prepubertal or pubertal individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which of the following does not cause a scaly scalp?
Your Answer: Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis
Correct Answer: Pityriasis amiantacea
Explanation:Pityriasis amiantacea is a reaction pattern rather than a specific diagnosis. Common conditions that may present with pityriasis amiantacea include:Scalp psoriasisSeborrhoeic dermatitisAtopic dermatitisTinea capitis.Head lice and lichen simplex should also be considered.When no underlying cause is found, the condition is often called idiopathic pityriasis amiantacea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions may pre-dispose children to alopecia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Down's syndrome
Explanation:Alopecia areata is seen in 6-8.8% of patients with Down syndrome, but only 0.1% of patients with alopecia areata have Down syndrome. The high frequency of alopecia areata in patients with Down syndrome suggests that a genetic linkage for alopecia areata may exist on chromosome 21.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)