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  • Question 1 - The muscles of the soft palate (other than the tensor veli palatini) are...

    Incorrect

    • The muscles of the soft palate (other than the tensor veli palatini) are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the soft palate are innervated by the vagus nerve (from the pharyngeal plexus), except for the tensor veli palatini, which is innervated by a branch of the mandibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      71.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old patient had a sudden onset of palpitations and shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient had a sudden onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. He had a history of poorly controlled hypertension and ischemic heart disease. His ECG also shows atrial fibrillation. Based on the patient’s condition, which pharmacologic cardioversion would be best to use?

      Your Answer: Flecainide

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Chemical cardioversion, or pharmacologic cardioversion, is the treatment of abnormal heart rhythms using drugs. Flecainide and propafenone are examples of drugs used as chemical cardioverters. However, given the situation of the patient, these drugs are contraindicated for his ischaemic heart disease. Amiodarone is also an antiarrhythmic drug and is the best choice for this situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      94
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) also referred to as anti-nuclear factors (ANFs) are autoantibodies that...

    Incorrect

    • Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) also referred to as anti-nuclear factors (ANFs) are autoantibodies that bind to contents of the cell nucleus.Which ONE of these statements about ANAs is true?

      Your Answer: Anti-Ro antibodies are associated with CREST syndrome

      Correct Answer: They can be of any immunoglobulin class

      Explanation:

      Anti-nuclear antibodies(ANAs) also referred to as anti-nuclear factors (ANFs) are autoantibodies that bind to contents of the cell nucleus. They can be of any immunoglobulin class.CREST syndrome is usually associated with anti-centromere antibodies.ELISA testing is cheaper but not the most accurate means of testing for ANAs. Indirect immunofluorescence testing is the most reliable.Nucleolar staining is suggestive of scleroderma, while homogenous staining is suggestive of lupus.Anti-dsDNA antibodies are found in 80 – 90% of patients with SLE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You examine a 43-year-old woman who was referred to you by a friend....

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 43-year-old woman who was referred to you by a friend. She suffers from a variety of medical conditions and takes a variety of medications, including amitriptyline.Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to amitriptyline treatment?

      Your Answer: Manic phase of bipolar affective disorder

      Correct Answer: Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that is most commonly used to treat depression, but it can also be used to treat anxiety disorders, chronic pain, and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It inhibits reuptake, raising serotonin and noradrenaline levels while also inhibiting acetylcholine action.TCAs have a number of drawbacks, including:Acute PorphyriaArrhythmiasDuring bipolar disorder’s manic phaseHeart blockAfter a myocardial infarction, there is an immediate recovery period.TCA levels in breast milk are too low to be harmful, and use can be continued while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The monospot test for infectious mononucleosis uses which of the following types of...

    Incorrect

    • The monospot test for infectious mononucleosis uses which of the following types of red blood cell?

      Your Answer: Sheep red blood cells

      Correct Answer: Horse red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed using specific EBV antibodies and a variety if unrelated non-EBV heterophile antibodies. These antibodies can be detected by two main screening tests:The monospot test uses horse red blood cells. It agglutinates in the presence of heterophile antibodies.Sheep red blood cells is used in Paul-Bunnell test. The blood agglutinates in the presence of heterophile antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In all of the following conditions, lymphocytosis typically occurs except for: ...

    Correct

    • In all of the following conditions, lymphocytosis typically occurs except for:

      Your Answer: Corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      In infants and young children, lymphocytosis often occurs in response to infections that would normally produce a neutrophil reaction in adults.Lymphocytosis occurs in:1. Viral infections (e.g. infectious mononucleosis, HIV, rubella, mumps, viral hepatitis, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex or zoster)2. Bacterial infections (e.g. pertussis, tuberculosis, toxoplasmosis, syphilis)3. Chronic lymphoid leukaemias4. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemias5. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma6. Thyrotoxicosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionnaires' disease. Which...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionnaires' disease. Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of Legionnaires' disease:

      Your Answer: High fever

      Correct Answer: Haemoptysis

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 daysCough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)Pleuritic chest painHaemoptysisHeadacheNausea, vomiting and diarrhoeaAnorexiaLegionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes...

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes bisoprolol and furosemide for his cardiac failure, and his most recent BNP was 123 pmol/l. He developed shortness of breath and his pre-existing peripheral oedema became worse 5 hours after transfusion was commenced. His BP rises to 170/105 mmHg and a repeat measurement of his BNP is 192 pmol/l.What is the most likely transfusion reaction to have occurred?

      Your Answer: TACO

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Typical clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.Febrile transfusion reaction presents with a 1 degree rise in temperature from baseline during transfusion. Patient may have chills and malaise. It is the most common transfusion reaction (1 in 8 transfusions) and is usually caused by cytokines released from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components. TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury) is a clinical syndrome with abrupt onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema within 6 hours of transfusion not explained by another risk factor. Associated with the presence of antibodies in the donor blood to recipient leukocyte antigens. patients present with dyspnoea, hypertension, hypotension, acute leukopenia. Graft versus host disease(GVHD) is an immune mediated condition that arises from a complex interaction between donor and recipients adaptive immunity. It presents as dermatitis, hepatitis and enteritis developing within 100 days after stem cell or bone marrow transplant.Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      73.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?

      Your Answer: Intracranial neoplasm

      Correct Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:Internal bleeding is present.Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.Stroke in the previous two yearsIntracranial tumourAneurysm or arteriovenous malformationHaemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.VasculitisRetinopathy caused by hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      93.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Movement of particles across the membrane ceases once equilibrium has been reached.

      Correct Answer: Transfer of oxygen is usually perfusion-limited.

      Explanation:

      Gas exchange between alveolar air and blood in the pulmonary capillaries takes place by diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Diffusion occurs from an area of high partial pressure to an area of low partial pressure, thus the driving force for diffusion is the alveolar-capillary partial pressure gradient. Diffusion occurs until equilibrium is reached, but random movement of particles continues to occur and this is known as dynamic equilibrium. The diffusing capacity for oxygen (DLO2) cannot be measured directly but the rate of diffusion in the lungs can be estimated by measuring the diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO), not by measuring total lung capacity. The rate of transfer of a gas may be diffusion or perfusion limited; carbon monoxide transfer is diffusion-limited, oxygen transfer is usually perfusion-limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      52.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minimisation of scar tissue formation

      Explanation:

      Primary wound healing, or healing by first intention, occurs within hours of repairing a full-thickness surgical incision. This surgical insult results in the mortality of a minimal number of cellular constituents. Healing by first intention can occur when the wound edges are opposed, the wound is clean and uninfected and there is minimal loss of cells and tissue i.e. surgical incision wound. The wound margins are joined by fibrin deposition, which is subsequently replaced by collagen and covered by epidermal growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The following statements are not true of the flexor digiti minimi brevis, except?...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are not true of the flexor digiti minimi brevis, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is situated on the radial border of abductor digiti minimi

      Explanation:

      Flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle is located on the ulnar side of the palm, lying on the radial border of the abductor digiti minimi. Together with the abductor digiti minimi and opponens digiti minimi muscles, it forms the hypothenar eminence. The muscle is situated inferior and lateral to adductor digiti minimi muscle and superior and medial to opponens digiti minimi muscle. The proximal parts of flexor digiti minimi brevis and abductor digiti minimi muscles form a gap through which deep branches of the ulnar artery and ulnar nerve pass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old girl just got back from a trip to Northern India. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old girl just got back from a trip to Northern India. She complains of headaches and intermittent fever. The fever starts with intense chills, then feels very hot, followed by profuse sweating. She is drowsy and is running a fever of 39.0°C. On examination, there are no palpable lymph nodes or rash seen. She has hepatosplenomegaly. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a protozoal infection of red blood cells and the liver. It is caused by the parasite belonging to the genus Plasmodium. It is transmitted by the female mosquito Anopheles.Several species with distinct features:P. vivax/P. ovaleP. malariaeP. falciparumThe common symptoms of malaria are:Paroxysms of fever – a cyclical occurrence of:1) a cold phase – the patient experiences intense chills2) a hot stage – the patient feels extremely hot3) a sweating stage – the fever declines and the patient sweats profusely- Fever recurs at regular intervals (48hrs, 72hrs): Variable by species of PlasmodiumAnaemia (RBC infection)- Severity varies by species of Plasmodium- Haemolytic: sometimes jaundiceSplenomegalyAlso nonspecific symptoms:- Sweating- fatigue- malaise- arthralgias- headache- Sometimes cough, vomiting, diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old woman has been visiting her GP with symptoms of tiredness, muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman has been visiting her GP with symptoms of tiredness, muscle weakness and headaches. She is known to be hypertensive and takes amlodipine to control this. Her blood results today show that her potassium level is low at 3.0 mmol/L, and her sodium level is slightly elevated at 146 mmol/L.Which of the following is the SINGLE most appropriate INITIAL investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma renin and aldosterone levels

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism occurs when there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin axis. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.The causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:Adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome) – the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism (,80% of all cases). These are usually unilateral and solitary and are more common in women.Adrenal hyperplasia – this accounts for ,15% of all cases. Usually, bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (BAH) but can be unilateral rarely. More common in men than women.Adrenal cancer – a rare diagnosis but essential not to missFamilial aldosteronism – a rare group of inherited conditions affecting the adrenal glandsThe causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:Drugs – diureticsObstructive renal artery disease – renal artery stenosis and atheromaRenal vasoconstriction – occurs in accelerated hypertensionOedematous disorders – heart failure, cirrhosis and nephrotic syndromePatients are often asymptomatic. When clinical features are present, the classically described presentation of hyperaldosteronism is with:HypertensionHypokalaemiaMetabolic alkalosisSodium levels can be normal or slightly raisedOther, less common, clinical features include:LethargyHeadachesMuscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)Polyuria and polydipsiaIntermittent paraesthesiaTetany and paralysis (rare)Often the earliest sign of hyperaldosteronism is from aberrant urea and electrolytes showing hypokalaemia and mild hypernatraemia. If the patient is taking diuretics, and the diagnosis is suspected, these should be repeated after the patient has taken off diuretics.If the diagnosis is suspected, plasma renin and aldosterone levels should be checked. Low renin and high aldosterone levels (with a raised aldosterone: renin ratio) is suggestive of primary aldosteronism.If the renin: aldosterone ratio is high, then the effect of posture on renin, aldosterone and cortisol can be investigated to provide further information about the underlying cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Levels should be measured lying at 9 am and standing at noon:If aldosterone and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an ACTH dependent cause, e.g. adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome)If aldosterone levels rise and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an angiotensin-II dependent cause, e.g. BAHOther investigations that can help to distinguish between an adrenal adenoma and adrenal hyperplasia include:CT scanMRI scanSelective adrenal venous sampling

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old female arrives after taking an unknown chemical in excess. She is tired...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female arrives after taking an unknown chemical in excess. She is tired and her speech is slurred. The following are her observations and results: HR 118, BP 92/58, SaO2 96%HR 118,  11/15  The following are the results  of his arterial blood gas (ABG):pH: 7.24 pO 2 : 9.4 kPa PCO2 : 3.3 kPa HCO 3 -: 22 mmol/l Na + : 143 mmol/l Cl – : 99 mmol/l Lactate: 5 IU/lWhich of the following statements about this patient is TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her anion gap is elevated

      Explanation:

      The interpretation of arterial blood gas (ABG) aids in the measurement of a patient’s pulmonary gas exchange and acid-base balance. The normal values on an ABG vary a little depending on the analyser, but they are roughly as follows:Variable RangepH 7.35 – 7.45PaO2 10 – 14 kPaPaCO2 4.5 – 6 kPaHCO3- 22 – 26 mmol/lBase excess -2 – 2 mmol/lThe patient’s history indicates that she has taken an overdose in this case. Because her GCS is 11/15 and she can communicate with slurred speech, she is clearly managing her own airway, there is no current justification for intubation.The following are the relevant ABG findings:Hypoxia (mild)pH has been lowered (acidaemia)PCO2 levels are low.bicarbonate in its natural stateLactate levels have increasedThe anion gap represents the concentration of all the unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is the difference between the primary measured cations and the primary measured anions in the serum. It can be calculated using the following formula:Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]The reference range varies depending on the technique of measurement, but it is usually between 8 and 16 mmol/L.The following formula can be used to compute her anion gap:Anion gap = [143] – [99] – [22]Anion gap = 22As a result, it is clear that she has a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap.The following are some of the causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis:Type A lactic acidosisType B lactic acidosisShock (including septic shock)Left ventricular failureSevere anaemiaAsphyxiaCardiac arrestCO poisoningRespiratory failureSevere asthma and COPDRegional hypoperfusionRenal failureLiver failureSepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)Thiamine deficiencyAlcoholic ketoacidosisDiabetic ketoacidosisCyanide poisoningMethanol poisoningBiguanide poisoning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is a 59-year-old man who was seen with epigastric pain that has since subsided, and he will be seen by his GP in the coming days. He's been hearing a lot about aspirin lately and wants to learn more about it.Which of the following statements about aspirin's mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase

      Explanation:

      Aspirin works by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase in an irreversible manner, resulting in a decrease in prostaglandin and thromboxane production. As a result, platelet activation and aggregation are reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis. She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.Which of the following does heparin activate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.Heparin is used for:1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation3. Treatment of fat embolism4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An elderly man presents with bilateral lower facial swelling around the mandible and...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with bilateral lower facial swelling around the mandible and upper neck. A CT scan of his neck was performed and the results were conclusive with Ludwig's angina.Which of the following spaces is most likely affected based on the case presented?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Submandibular space

      Explanation:

      Ludwig’s angina is life-threatening cellulitis of the soft tissue involving the floor of the mouth and neck. It involves three compartments of the floor of the mouth: the sublingual, submental, and submandibular.Ludwig’s angina usually originates as a dental infection of the second or third mandibular molars. The infection begins in the subgingival pocket and spreads to the musculature of the floor of the mouth. It progresses below the mylohyoid line, indicating that it has moved to the sublingual space. As the roots of the second and third mandibular molars lie below this line, infection of these teeth will predispose to Ludwig’s angina. The infection spreads lingually rather than buccally because the lingual aspect of the tooth socket is thinner. It initially spreads to the sublingual space and progresses to the submandibular space.The disease is usually polymicrobial, involving oral flora, both aerobes, and anaerobes. The most common organisms are Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
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  • Question 19 - A patient who is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic as his grandson was recently diagnosed with chickenpox. His grandson spent the weekend with her, and he was in close contact with him. He takes 50 mg of prednisolone once daily and has been for the past six months. There is no history of chickenpox.Out of the following, which is TRUE regarding the next plan of action for her care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should receive prophylactic varicella-zoster Immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Explanation:

      Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) is indicated for post exposure prevention and treatment of varicella. It is recommended as prophylaxis for high-risk patients with no known immunity (i.e. no known previous chickenpox) who have had a significant exposure to varicella-zoster (considered >4 hours close contact).The high-risk groups are:1. Neonates2. Pregnant women3. The immunocompromised (e.g. cancer, immunosuppressive therapies)4. Those on high dose steroids (children on more than 2 mg/kg/day for more than 14 days, or adults on 40 mg/day for more than a week)This patient is at high risk of developing adrenal insufficiency and may need a temporary increase in her steroid dose during infection or stress. It would be inappropriate to stop or wean down her dose of prednisolone and can cause side effects.Since he is on steroids without immunity for chickenpox, he is at risk of developing severe varicella infection, with possible complications including pneumonia, hepatitis and DIC. If he develops a varicella infection, he will need to be admitted and require a specialist review and intravenous Acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunological Products & Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements is true about percutaneous needle aspiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about percutaneous needle aspiration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The needle should be inserted just above the upper border of the chosen rib

      Explanation:

      Pleural aspiration describes a procedure whereby pleural fluid or air may be aspirated via a system inserted temporarily into the pleural space. This may be for diagnostic purposes (usually removing 20–50 ml fluid) or therapeutic to relieve symptoms. In the literature it is varyingly called thoracocentesis, thoracentesis or pleural aspiration.In determining the correct patient position and site of insertion, it is important for the operator to be aware of the normal anatomy of the thorax and the pathology of the patient. Patient position is dependent on the operator preference and the site of the pathology. In the case of a posterior lying locule, this may be specific to the image-guided spot where fluid is most likely to be obtained. In most circumstances, however, the site of insertion of the needle is either in the triangle of safety or the second intercostal space in the midclavicular line. The patient may therefore either sit upright leaning forward with arms elevated but resting on a table or bed, thereby exposing the axilla, or lying on a bed in a position. The needle is inserted in the space just above the chosen rib to avoid damaging the neurovascular bundle. It is common practice to insert the needle more posteriorly for a pleural aspiration, but it should be noted that the neurovascular bundle may not be covered by the lower flange of the rib in this position and a more lateral or anterior site of insertion is considered safer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding flucloxacillin, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding flucloxacillin, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is resistant to bacterial beta-lactamases.

      Explanation:

      Flucloxacillin is unique in that it is beta-lactamase stable and it can be used in infections caused by beta-lactamase producing staphylococci e.g. S. aureus. It is acid-stable and can therefore be given by mouth as well as by injection. It is used first line for treatment of widespread impetigo infection, cellulitis, mastitis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, severe erysipelas, severe/spreading otitis externa and infective endocarditis caused by staphylococci. The most common adverse effects of flucloxacillin include nausea, vomiting, skin rash, and diarrhoea. Cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis may occur very rarely, up to two months after treatment with flucloxacillin has been stopped. Administration for more than 2 weeks and increasing age are risk factors. First line treatment of animal and human bites is co-amoxiclav.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a red and painful left eye. Upon physical examination, it was noted that there is the presence of conjunctival erythema. A mucopurulent discharge and crusting of the lid was also evident. A diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis was made. According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should NOT be a part of the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely

      Explanation:

      The following are the NICE guidelines on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:- Infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting illness that usually settles without treatment within 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist for longer than two weeks they should return for review.- Seek medical attention urgently if marked eye pain or photophobia, loss of visual acuity, or marked redness of the eye develop.- Remove contact lenses, if worn, until all symptoms and signs of infection have completely resolved and any treatment has been completed for 24 hours.- Lubricant eye drops may reduce eye discomfort; these are available over the counter, as well as on prescription.- Clean away infected secretions from eyelids and lashes with cotton wool soaked in water.- Wash hands regularly, particularly after touching the eyes.- Avoid sharing pillows and towels.- It is not necessary to exclude a child from school or childcare if they have infective conjunctivitis, as mild infectious illnesses should not interrupt school attendance. An exception would be if there is an outbreak of infective conjunctivitis, when advice should be sought from the Health Protection Agency by the school. – Adults who work in close contact with others, or with vulnerable patients, should avoid such contact until the discharge has settled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle via: ...

    Incorrect

    • Blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle via:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The mitral valve

      Explanation:

      Blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle via the tricuspid atrioventricular valve and from the left atrium into the left ventricle via the mitral atrioventricular valve. Blood is ejected from the right ventricle through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary artery and from the left ventricle via the aortic semilunar valve into the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old female with a past history of rheumatic fever and a prosthetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old female with a past history of rheumatic fever and a prosthetic mitral valve presents to you with fever and an episode of expressive dysphasia that lasted around 30 minutes. There is no history of known drug allergies On examination you note a systolic murmur and you suspect it is infective endocarditis.Which antibacterial agents would be the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis is infective or non infective inflammation (marantic endocarditis) of the inner layer of the heart and it often involves the heart valves.Risk factors include:Prosthetic heart valvesCongenital heart defectsPrior history of endocarditisRheumatic feverIllicit intravenous drug useIn the presentation of endocarditis, the following triad is often quoted:Persistent feverEmbolic phenomenaNew or changing murmurA combination of vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin is advised if the patient has a cardiac prostheses, is penicillin allergic, or if methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected. In this case the patient has a prosthetic valve making this the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.Flucloxacillin and gentamicin are current recommended by NICE and the BNF for the initial ‘blind’ therapy in endocarditis. This patient has prostheses and this is not the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.Other features that may be present include heart failure, splenomegaly, finger clubbing, renal features (haematuria, proteinuria, nephritis), and vasculitic features (splinter haemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, Roth’s spots).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
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  • Question 25 - Typically, granulomatous inflammation is associated with one of the following infections: ...

    Incorrect

    • Typically, granulomatous inflammation is associated with one of the following infections:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Granulomatous inflammation is typically seen when an infective agent with a digestion-resistance capsule (e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis) or a piece of inert foreign material (such as suture or glass) is introduced into the tissue. A transient acute inflammatory response occurs and when this is ineffective in eradicating the stimulus, chronic inflammation occurs.Tuberculosis is the prototype of the granulomatous diseases, but sarcoidosis, cat-scratch disease, lymphogranuloma inguinale, leprosy, brucellosis, syphilis, some mycotic infections, berylliosis, reactions of irritant lipids, and some autoimmune diseases are also included

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
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  • Question 26 - Regarding antacids, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding antacids, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antacids are contraindicated in hypophosphataemia.

      Explanation:

      Antacids are contraindicated in hypophosphataemia. Liquid preparations are more effective than tablet preparations. Magnesium-containing antacids tend to be laxative whereas aluminium-containing antacids tend to be constipating. Antacids are best taken when symptoms occur or are expected, usually between meals and at bedtime. Antacids should preferably not be taken at the same time as other drugs since they may impair absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - The following are all important buffers of H+EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are all important buffers of H+EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Buffers are weak acids or bases that can donate or accept H+ions respectively and therefore resist changes in pH. Buffering does not alter the body’s overall H+load, ultimately the body must get rid of H+by renal excretion if the buffering capacity of the body is not to be exceeded and a dangerous pH reached. Bicarbonate and carbonic acid (formed by the combination of CO2 with water, potentiated by carbonic anhydrase) are the most important buffer pair in the body, although haemoglobin provides about 20% of buffering in the blood, and phosphate and proteins provide intracellular buffering. Buffers in urine, largely phosphate, allow the excretion of large quantities of H+.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following clinical features would you least expect to see in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features would you least expect to see in a lesion of the frontal lobe:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

      Explanation:

      Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing results from damage to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe. Incontinence may occur due to damage of the cortical micturition centre in the prefrontal cortex. Primitive reflexes and inability to problem solve may occur due to damage to the prefrontal cortex. Motor weakness of the contralateral limb with UMN signs may occur due to damage of the primary motor cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old man was sent to the emergency department by ambulance with suspected...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man was sent to the emergency department by ambulance with suspected anaphylaxis. What is the best first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 500 micrograms of adrenaline intramuscularly

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is the sudden onset of systemic hypersensitivity due to IgE-mediated chemical release from mast cells and basophils. If anaphylaxis is suspected, 500 micrograms of adrenaline should be administered promptly (0.5 ml of 1:1000 solution). In anaphylaxis, the intramuscular route is the most immediate approach; the optimal site is the anterolateral aspect of the middle part of the thigh. Intravenous adrenaline should only be given by people who are well-versed in the use and titration of vasopressors in their routine clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
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  • Question 30 - When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the...

    Incorrect

    • When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the intervertebral foramina between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, as well as the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae, this causes back pain. Which pair of nerves is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fifth cervical and fourth thoracic nerves

      Explanation:

      The fifth cervical nerve passes between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, and the fourth thoracic nerve passes between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. Therefore, when the cancer metastasizes in this area, they are most likely affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/3) 0%
General Pathology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (2/3) 67%
CNS Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/2) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/1) 0%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
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