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  • Question 1 - What is the method used by bodybuilders to alleviate the negative effects of...

    Correct

    • What is the method used by bodybuilders to alleviate the negative effects of misusing anabolic steroids?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications

      Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.

      There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.

      Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.

      Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What medication prescribed for depression is most likely to result in decreased sexual...

    Incorrect

    • What medication prescribed for depression is most likely to result in decreased sexual drive?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the hypothalamic nucleus that is responsible for regulating heat generation and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the hypothalamic nucleus that is responsible for regulating heat generation and conservation?

      Your Answer: Supraoptic

      Correct Answer: Posterior

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Hypothalamus

      The hypothalamus is a vital part of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. It receives and integrates sensory information about the internal environment and directs actions to control internal homeostasis. The hypothalamus contains several nuclei and fiber tracts, each with specific functions.

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms. Neurons in the SCN have an intrinsic rhythm of discharge activity and receive input from the retina. The SCN is considered the body’s master clock, but it has multiple connections with other hypothalamic nuclei.

      Body temperature control is mainly under the control of the preoptic, anterior, and posterior nuclei, which have temperature-sensitive neurons. As the temperature goes above 37ºC, warm-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering parasympathetic activity to promote heat loss. As the temperature goes below 37ºC, cold-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering sympathetic activity to promote conservation of heat.

      The hypothalamus also plays a role in regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine is tonically secreted by dopaminergic neurons that project from the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus into the anterior pituitary gland via the tuberoinfundibular pathway. The dopamine that is released acts on lactotrophic cells through D2-receptors, inhibiting prolactin synthesis. In the absence of pregnancy of lactation, prolactin is constitutively inhibited by dopamine. Dopamine antagonists result in hyperprolactinemia, while dopamine agonists inhibit prolactin secretion.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is a complex structure that regulates various bodily functions, including circadian rhythms, body temperature, and prolactin secretion. Dysfunction of the hypothalamus can lead to various disorders, such as sleep-rhythm disorder, diabetes insipidus, hyperprolactinemia, and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the primary way in which agomelatine works? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary way in which agomelatine works?

      Your Answer: Melatonin receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine is a newly developed antidepressant that primarily targets the melatonin receptors, but its antidepressant properties stem from its ability to block serotonin receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with mild to moderate Alzheimer's dementia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with mild to moderate Alzheimer's dementia and her doctor recommends starting her on donepezil. What is the mechanism of action of donepezil?

      Your Answer: Non-reversible selective inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

      Correct Answer: Selective inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is a medication that selectively inhibits acetylcholinesterase (AChE) without affecting butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE). It is a long-acting, reversible inhibitor that is commonly used to treat dementia. Other drugs used to treat dementia include Rivastigmine, Galantamine, and Memantine. These medications work by either preventing the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain of by blocking the chemical messenger glutamate, which can cause further damage to brain cells. By increasing communication between nerve cells of reducing damage, these medications can temporarily improve of stabilize the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The behavior of the cat expecting food when it hears a noise similar...

    Incorrect

    • The behavior of the cat expecting food when it hears a noise similar to the can opener is an example of:

      Your Answer: Higher order conditioning

      Correct Answer: Stimulus generalisation

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The primary role of the suprachiasmatic nuclei is to regulate control over which...

    Correct

    • The primary role of the suprachiasmatic nuclei is to regulate control over which of the following?

      Your Answer: Circadian rhythms

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Hypothalamus

      The hypothalamus is a vital part of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. It receives and integrates sensory information about the internal environment and directs actions to control internal homeostasis. The hypothalamus contains several nuclei and fiber tracts, each with specific functions.

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms. Neurons in the SCN have an intrinsic rhythm of discharge activity and receive input from the retina. The SCN is considered the body’s master clock, but it has multiple connections with other hypothalamic nuclei.

      Body temperature control is mainly under the control of the preoptic, anterior, and posterior nuclei, which have temperature-sensitive neurons. As the temperature goes above 37ºC, warm-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering parasympathetic activity to promote heat loss. As the temperature goes below 37ºC, cold-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering sympathetic activity to promote conservation of heat.

      The hypothalamus also plays a role in regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine is tonically secreted by dopaminergic neurons that project from the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus into the anterior pituitary gland via the tuberoinfundibular pathway. The dopamine that is released acts on lactotrophic cells through D2-receptors, inhibiting prolactin synthesis. In the absence of pregnancy of lactation, prolactin is constitutively inhibited by dopamine. Dopamine antagonists result in hyperprolactinemia, while dopamine agonists inhibit prolactin secretion.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is a complex structure that regulates various bodily functions, including circadian rhythms, body temperature, and prolactin secretion. Dysfunction of the hypothalamus can lead to various disorders, such as sleep-rhythm disorder, diabetes insipidus, hyperprolactinemia, and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which drug is most likely to increase the likelihood of serious cardiac events?...

    Correct

    • Which drug is most likely to increase the likelihood of serious cardiac events?

      Your Answer: Thioridazine

      Explanation:

      Which two medications have been associated with sudden death and subsequently removed from the UK market due to their effect on the QTc interval?

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An individual who has struggled with alcohol addiction expresses frustration over constantly craving...

    Incorrect

    • An individual who has struggled with alcohol addiction expresses frustration over constantly craving alcohol despite no longer enjoying its effects. What is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Learned helplessness

      Correct Answer: Incentive salience

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incentive Salience and its Role in Addiction and Grief

      Incentive salience is a process that drives the brain to desire certain things, such as drugs, and is mediated by mesolimbic dopamine systems. This process is separate from the experience of pleasure, and a person can want something they don’t necessarily like. Desire is amplified by brain states that heighten dopamine reactivity, such as stress, emotional excitement, relevant appetites, of intoxication. This state-dependent amplification of incentive salience is one reason why many addicts find it difficult to stop at just one hit.

      Interestingly, grief has been hypothesized to be underpinned by a very similar process as drug addiction, referred to as the ‘incentive salience theory of grief’. Understanding the distinction between liking and wanting can help us better understand addiction and grief, and how the brain processes these experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of QTc prolongation?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Some additional risk factors for QTc prolongation include being female and having a slow heart rate (bradycardia).

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the codon that initiates polypeptide synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the codon that initiates polypeptide synthesis?

      Your Answer: AUG

      Explanation:

      The initiation codon for polypeptide synthesis is AUG, which also codes for the amino acid methionine. Therefore, all newly synthesized polypeptides begin with methionine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old male is experiencing depression after being admitted for a flare-up of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male is experiencing depression after being admitted for a flare-up of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which antidepressant would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Unless there is a specific reason stated in the vignette, the first-line treatment for depression with medication is typically a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). However, an alternative option may be duloxetine, which is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI).

      SSRIs, of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are the first-line treatment for depression in most patients. However, some SSRIs have different side effects and interactions than others. For example, fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, while citalopram is useful for elderly patients as it is associated with lower risks of drug interactions. SSRIs should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and fluoxetine is the drug of choice in this population.

      Common side effects of SSRIs include gastrointestinal symptoms, sedation, and sexual dysfunction. Paroxetine is considered the most sedating and anticholinergic, while vortioxetine is associated with the least sexual dysfunction. Patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, and a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if they are also taking an NSAID.

      When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, and gastrointestinal symptoms.

      SSRIs can also have interactions with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. Patients should be reviewed by a doctor after starting antidepressant therapy, and if they make a good response, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.

      In patients who have had a myocardial infarction, approximately 20% develop depression. SSRIs are the preferred antidepressant group post-MI, but they can increase the bleeding risk, especially in those using anticoagulation. Mirtazapine is an alternative option, but it too is associated with bleeding. The SADHART study found sertraline to be a safe treatment for depression post-myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is a pathological characteristic observed in individuals with Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a pathological characteristic observed in individuals with Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Hyperphosphorylated amyloid-beta

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphorylated tau

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A preteen girl who has a crush on a boy in her class...

    Incorrect

    • A preteen girl who has a crush on a boy in her class is too scared to ask him to hang out. Instead, she makes fun of him. What defense mechanism could be at play?

      Your Answer: Displacement

      Correct Answer: Reaction formation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the term for the genetic process that involves the creation of...

    Correct

    • What is the term for the genetic process that involves the creation of proteins from mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA?

      Your Answer: Translation

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which option is not a component of the MMSE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not a component of the MMSE?

      Your Answer: Repeat, 'no ifs, ands or buts'

      Correct Answer: Asking name of current prime minister

      Explanation:

      What is the name of the current prime minister? This question is part of the Abbreviated Mental Test Score (AMTS).

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What sublingual preparation of an SSRI has demonstrated efficacy in treating depression? ...

    Correct

    • What sublingual preparation of an SSRI has demonstrated efficacy in treating depression?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants

      While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.

      One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.

      Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.

      Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.

      Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - How can the inheritance pattern of fragile X syndrome be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the inheritance pattern of fragile X syndrome be described?

      Your Answer: X-Linked Recessive

      Correct Answer: X-linked dominant

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder Causing Learning Disability and Psychiatric Symptoms

      Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and large testicles in men. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, avoid eye contact, and have difficulties reading facial expressions. They also display stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. Fragile X Syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disability.

      The speech of affected individuals is often abnormal, with abnormalities of fluency. This disorder is caused by the amplification of a CGG repeat in the 5 untranslated region of the fragile X mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1). These CGG repeats disrupt synthesis of the fragile X protein (FMRP), which is essential for brain function and growth. The gene is located at Xq27. The greater number of repeats, the more severe the condition, as with other trinucleotide repeat disorders.

      The fragile X phenotype typically involves a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including features of autism, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, anxiety, and aggression. Both males and females can be affected, but males are more severely affected because they have only one X chromosome. The prevalence estimate of Fragile X Syndrome is 1/3600-4000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which type of stigma is referred to as discrimination? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of stigma is referred to as discrimination?

      Your Answer: Enacted stigma

      Explanation:

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What gene is thought to be abnormal in individuals diagnosed with tuberous sclerosis?...

    Correct

    • What gene is thought to be abnormal in individuals diagnosed with tuberous sclerosis?

      Your Answer: TSC1

      Explanation:

      Rett syndrome is caused by mutations in the MeCP2 gene.

      Tuberous Sclerosis: A Neurocutaneous Syndrome with Psychiatric Comorbidity

      Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the brain, and is associated with significant psychiatric comorbidity. This neurocutaneous syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with a high penetrance rate of 95%, but its expression can vary widely. The hallmark of this disorder is the growth of multiple non-cancerous tumors in vital organs, including the brain. These tumors result from mutations in one of two tumor suppressor genes, TSC1 and TSC2. The psychiatric comorbidities associated with tuberous sclerosis include autism, ADHD, depression, anxiety, and even psychosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      4.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (6/8) 75%
Neurosciences (1/3) 33%
Social Psychology (1/3) 33%
Genetics (3/4) 75%
Classification And Assessment (0/2) 0%
Passmed