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  • Question 1 - A 25 year old patient presents to the accident and emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old patient presents to the accident and emergency department after being involved in a fight an hour ago. Due to being intoxicated, the patient is unable to provide much history. Upon examination, the patient has significant facial swelling on the lower left side and bruising around the left eye. The patient does not experience tenderness when palpated on either side of the nose. However, when asked to bite down, the patient complains of an unusual sensation in their mouth, and the left side teeth come together before the right side. Additionally, two teeth are missing on the left side. What would be the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Lateral facial radiographs

      Correct Answer: Mandible radiography with (orthopantogram)

      Explanation:

      Imaging for Mandibular Fractures: Options and Considerations

      Mandibular fractures are less common now with the use of seat belts in motor vehicles, but they still occur, especially in young males. A standard mandible series, including a PA view, Towne view, and left and right oblique views, along with an orthopantogram (OPG), can provide a full evaluation of the mandible and teeth. If further imaging is needed, a CT of the facial skeleton and mandible may be necessary.

      In cases of suspected mandibular fractures, it is important to document the function of the marginal mandibular nerve and sensation over the chin. If teeth are missing, a chest X-ray may be necessary to check for inhaled foreign bodies. Lateral facial radiographs are not typically used for the facial skeleton, and MRI is not the first choice for bony injuries but can be useful for evaluating TMJ pathology.

      It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of each imaging option, especially in terms of ionizing radiation exposure. Chest radiographs and CT scans involve higher doses of radiation and should not be the first choice unless necessary. Overall, a thorough evaluation of mandibular fractures requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
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  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after falling off her...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after falling off her scooter and hitting her face. She had a brief episode of nosebleed which stopped on its own. However, her mother is worried about her breathing, which has become congested and noisy, and her right nostril is getting more swollen. Upon examination, there is an enlarged and red nasal septum on the right side, and a fluctuating swelling can be felt upon palpation. What is the best course of action for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) for urgent drainage

      Explanation:

      Management of Septal Haematoma: Urgent Drainage is Key

      Septal haematoma is a blood-filled cavity between the nasal cartilage and the perichondrium, commonly caused by nasal trauma and more prevalent in children. The nasal cartilage relies on the perichondrium for nutrients, and any disruption to this process can lead to necrosis of the cartilage. Urgent drainage is crucial to prevent complications such as septal abscess, necrosis, and collapse of the nasal bridge, which can result in septal fibrosis and saddle nose deformity. While oral antibiotics may be given post-drainage to prevent abscess formation, they are not a substitute for drainage. Conservative management with analgesia and nasal packing may be used in conjunction with drainage, but an urgent referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist is necessary for proper management. Therefore, urgent drainage is key in the management of septal haematoma.

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      • Plastics
      28.3
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old university student comes to the Emergency Department following a fireworks injury....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old university student comes to the Emergency Department following a fireworks injury. She reports experiencing intense pain in her forearm. Upon examination, her left forearm appears pale pink and is extremely sensitive, with visible blisters. You conduct a palpation of the affected area and find no loss of sensation throughout the region.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: First-degree burn

      Correct Answer: Second-degree, superficial

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Burns and Their Characteristics

      Burns can be classified into different types based on their severity and depth of tissue damage. Understanding the characteristics of each type of burn is important for proper management and treatment.

      First-degree burn: This type of burn affects only the epidermis and presents with redness, pain, and mild swelling. Blisters are not a feature of this type of burn.

      Second-degree, superficial burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and part of the dermis, resulting in pink-colored skin with painful blisters. Management involves cleansing the wound, leaving the blisters intact, using a non-adherent dressing, and reviewing in 24 hours.

      Second-degree, deep burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and deeper layers of the dermis, resulting in waxy skin with reduced blanching to pressure and reduced sensation. It is frequently less painful than superficial dermal burns.

      Third-degree burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and all of the dermis, resulting in white/brown/black-colored skin without pain or blister formation. The skin will be dry and leathery and will not heal.

      Mixed-depth burn: This type of burn involves features of different types of burns and requires individualized management.

      Understanding the characteristics of each type of burn is crucial for proper management and treatment.

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      22.2
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  • Question 4 - You are contacted by the nurse in charge of the ward to evaluate...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted by the nurse in charge of the ward to evaluate a patient who has been recently admitted from her nursing home with pneumonia and confusion. While bathing her, the nurses have observed a pressure sore near her sacrum and have requested for you to examine it. Upon assessment, you discover a 4 cm circular wound lateral to the sacrum with some surrounding redness. It is roughly 1-2 cm deep. The wound bed shows subcutaneous fat with some slough, but no bone, muscle, or tendon is exposed. What grade of pressure sore would be consistent with this?

      Your Answer: EPUAP Grade/Stage II

      Correct Answer: EPUAP Grade/Stage III

      Explanation:

      Understanding EPUAP Pressure Sore Grades/Stages

      Pressure sores, also known as pressure ulcers, are a common problem for individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility. The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel (EPUAP) has established a grading system to classify pressure sores based on their severity.

      Grade I pressure sores are the mildest form and are characterised by non-blanching erythema, which means the skin is red but not broken. Grade II pressure sores are shallow open ulcers with a pink wound bed. Grade III pressure sores involve full thickness tissue loss with exposed subcutaneous fat, but not muscle or tendon. These can be shallow or deep and may include some undermining of the wound edges. Grade IV pressure sores are the most severe and involve exposed bone, muscle, or tendon.

      It is important to understand the different grades of pressure sores to properly assess and treat them. Early detection and intervention can prevent the progression of pressure sores and improve the overall health and well-being of individuals at risk.

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      • Plastics
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  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old man weighing 100 kg was pulled from a house fire. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man weighing 100 kg was pulled from a house fire. He was intubated by the HEMS team at the scene for airway compromise (nasal soot, singed facial hair and a change in voice). He has sustained full-thickness burns to his face, anterior torso and full legs. The specialist registrar (SPR) has asked you to calculate this man’s fluids requirements for the first 24 hours.
      Which of the following is the correct volume to the nearest litre?

      Your Answer: 10 litres

      Correct Answer: 27 litres

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Parkland Formula for Fluid Resuscitation in Burns Patients

      The Parkland formula is a widely used method for estimating the amount of fluid required for a burns patient in the first 24 hours. This formula takes into account the patient’s weight and the percentage of their body that has been burned, which is determined using the Wallace Rule of Nines.

      Once the percentage of burn has been calculated, the fluid volume needed is determined by multiplying the weight of the patient in kilograms by four and then multiplying that by the percentage of burn. For example, a patient who weighs 100 kg and has a 67% burn would require 26,800 ml or 27 litres of fluid in the first 24 hours.

      It is important to note that half of the fluid is given over the first 8 hours, with the remaining half given over the next 16 hours. Additionally, the fluid should be warmed and urine output should be carefully monitored to ensure that the patient is receiving adequate hydration.

      In conclusion, understanding the Parkland formula is crucial for healthcare professionals who are treating burns patients. By accurately calculating the amount of fluid needed, healthcare providers can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Plastics
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man arrives in the resuscitation area of the Emergency Department with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man arrives in the resuscitation area of the Emergency Department with significant burns to his face, torso, and hands after throwing petrol on a bonfire. According to the rule of nines, he has 31.5% burns. He weighs 95 kg.
      What would be the appropriate amount of fluid resuscitation based on the Parkland formula?

      Your Answer: 12L, with 6L given in the first 8 h followed by 6L over the next 16 h

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fluid Resuscitation in Major Burns

      Fluid resuscitation is a crucial aspect of treating patients with major burns. The goal is to replace fluid losses and maintain tissue perfusion to prevent the spread of tissue damage. The Parkland formula is a guide used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, based on the patient’s body weight and the percentage of burn surface area. The formula recommends giving 50% of the total fluid requirement in the first 8 hours and the remaining 50% over the next 16 hours.

      However, caution should be exercised to avoid overly aggressive fluid resuscitation, which can worsen tissue oedema and hypoxia. The aim is to achieve a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults. Children require maintenance fluid in addition to the calculated fluid requirement.

      It’s important to note that the Parkland formula is a guide, and the fluid requirement may vary depending on the patient’s condition. The initial shift of fluid from the intravascular compartment to the interstitial tissues can lead to hypotension, and burns to the skin can reduce the body’s ability to regulate fluid losses and temperature. Therefore, careful monitoring and adjustment of fluid resuscitation are necessary to ensure optimal outcomes for patients with major burns.

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      • Plastics
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old metal worker slips onto a furnace wall. He presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old metal worker slips onto a furnace wall. He presents with a leathery lesion on his chest. It is dry and insensate with a waxy appearance. It does not blanch.
      How would you describe this burn?

      Your Answer: Full-thickness burn (third-degree burn)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Burn Classification: From Superficial to Full-Thickness Burns

      Burns can be classified based on their depth and severity. While the general public may be familiar with the ‘degree’ classification, plastic surgeons prefer to use the ‘thickness’ classification. Superficial burns, also known as first-degree burns, only affect the epidermis and are painful and red. Partial-thickness burns, or second-degree burns, penetrate deeper into the dermis layer and are more painful and prone to infection. Full-thickness burns, or third-degree burns, are painless and do not blanch due to damage to the nerves and microvasculature. The skin can be charred and leathery, with scarring likely in the long term. Fourth-degree burns involve damage to not only the skin but also the underlying muscles, tendons, or ligaments. Fifth-degree burns, which are rare and often only diagnosed at autopsy, penetrate down to the bone. It is important to understand the different classifications of burns to properly evaluate and treat them.

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      • Plastics
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  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance. The patient is accompanied by his daughter. The patient is usually bed-bound due to a history of multiple strokes and he lies on a normal mattress at home. The patient is non-verbal due to expressive aphasia and severe autism. The daughter informs the emergency medicine team that the patient usually has carers four times a day for washing, feeding and repositioning. In the last two days, the daughter has noted that her father has become more irritable and is not eating as much as he usually would. The patient is able to swallow safely and has no drug allergies.
      His observations are shown below:
      Temperature 37.2 °C
      Blood pressure 156/78 mmHg
      Heart rate 78 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 15 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
      Physical examination reveals a sacral pressure ulcer, 3 cm in diameter, that is erythematosus and draining a small amount of thick, white fluid. The wound is approximately 0.5 cm deep and does not extend to the bone. There is no necrotic tissue present. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes and QTc interval of 530 milliseconds. Blood test results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 14.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein 40 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient’s infected pressure ulcer?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Antibiotic for Infected Pressure Ulcers

      When treating an infected pressure ulcer, it is important to choose the right antibiotic based on the type of infection and the patient’s medical history. For superficial infections, oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin are often used as they provide coverage for gram-positive bacteria commonly found on the skin surface. However, culture swabs should be taken to tailor the antibiotic treatment to the specific microbial sensitivities.

      It is important to consider the patient’s medical history when choosing an antibiotic. For example, fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin should be avoided in patients with a prolonged QT interval as they increase the risk of torsades de pointes. Clarithromycin should also be avoided in these patients as it can also increase the risk of this dangerous heart rhythm. Nitrofurantoin, commonly used for urinary tract infections, may not be the best choice for infected pressure ulcers as it does not provide coverage for gram-positive organisms like Staphylococcus aureus.

      Overall, choosing the right antibiotic for infected pressure ulcers requires careful consideration of the type of infection and the patient’s medical history to ensure safe and effective treatment.

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  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old bedridden patient presents with a wound under their left heel. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old bedridden patient presents with a wound under their left heel. They complain of pain in the area and feel that the situation is getting worse. Apart from this, they are in good health and have no fever. On examination, you observe an erythematosus area measuring around 2 cm under the left heel, with partial-thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis. There is no necrotic tissue, discharge, or foul odor.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical barrier cream and repositioning

      Explanation:

      Management of Grade II Pressure Ulcers: Topical Barrier Cream and Repositioning

      Grade II pressure ulcers with partial-thickness skin loss can be managed with topical barrier creams such as Sudocrem®, Proshield™, and Cavilon™. These creams protect the underlying skin and prevent further damage. Regular repositioning and the use of aids to relieve pressure should also be implemented to improve symptoms.

      Debridement may be necessary for more severe pressure ulcers or those not responding to treatment. Compression hosiery is not indicated for pressure ulcers and should only be used after ankle-brachial pressure index testing in cases of venous ulceration.

      Oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin are not necessary unless there is evidence of infection. Topical fusidic acid with hydrocortisone is only indicated for mildly infected eczema or skin rashes and is not appropriate for pressure ulcers. The primary focus for managing grade II pressure ulcers is barrier protection and repositioning.

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      • Plastics
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  • Question 10 - A 66-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling unwell and pain in a wound on their left leg. The patient reports sustaining the injury 10 days ago when they accidentally burned their leg on a hot stove. They did not seek medical attention at the time as they believed the wound was not severe. The patient has been experiencing episodes of feeling hot and cold for the past three days and the pain in their leg has been increasing. They deny any cough, dysuria, or pain in other areas of their body. Upon examination, a deep partial thickness burn is observed on the patient's left leg with surrounding erythema and ascending lymphangitis tracking up past their left knee.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 3.6–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 56 mg/l 0–10 mg/l

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV antibiotics, keep NBM and discuss with regional burns referral centre

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Infected Burn Wound

      When dealing with an infected burn wound, it is important to consider the severity of the infection and the appropriate treatment options. In the case of a deep partial thickness burn with evidence of cellulitis, IV antibiotics are necessary and surgical debridement may be required. It is crucial to discuss the case with a regional burns referral centre for urgent transfer and further treatment. Blood cultures and a wound swab should be taken, and other sources of sepsis ruled out. Oral antibiotics or discharge without treatment are not sufficient options. Admitting for IV antibiotics and reviewing in 24 hours may be appropriate for simple cellulitis, but not for an infected burn wound. It is important to provide the appropriate treatment to prevent further complications and promote healing.

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