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  • Question 1 - Ms. Johnson, a 25-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • Ms. Johnson, a 25-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of abdominal pain and changes in her bowel movements. She has been experiencing loose stools with occasional blood. She also experiences lower abdominal cramps and urgency. She denies having joint pain but has previously had a red eye. Her mother has a history of rheumatoid arthritis.

      After undergoing a rheumatological screening, Ms. Johnson's results show a positive pANCA. No other antibodies were found to be above normal levels. What is the most likely condition responsible for this positive result?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      ANCA is not a specific marker for vasculitis as other inflammatory conditions can also cause a positive ANCA, particularly pANCA. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are consistent with ulcerative colitis, which is known to cause a raised pANCA. While microscopic polyangiitis and Churg-Strauss syndrome can also result in elevated pANCA levels, their typical presentations differ from the patient’s symptoms. Microscopic polyangiitis usually affects middle-aged individuals and presents with fatigue, loss of appetite, and joint and muscle pain, while Churg-Strauss syndrome typically manifests with respiratory symptoms.

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old homeless man is admitted to the hospital for osteomyelitis resulting from...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old homeless man is admitted to the hospital for osteomyelitis resulting from a diabetic foot ulcer. During his stay, it becomes evident that he is experiencing significant memory impairment. Despite being asked about the events of the day, he tells a believable story that is entirely different from what actually occurred. There is no indication that he is intentionally deceiving the medical staff. He is also unaware of his memory impairment and denies having any issues with his memory. According to his family, this memory impairment has been present for the past 5-6 months. He has a history of excessive alcohol consumption spanning 45 years. What is the most probable cause of his memory deficits?

      Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Correct Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      The patient’s symptoms of anterograde amnesia, confabulation, lack of insight, and chronic alcoholism strongly suggest a diagnosis of Korsakoff’s syndrome. Delirium is unlikely as the symptoms have persisted for a prolonged period. Additionally, there are no indications of parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, or fluctuations in conscious state, which are characteristic of dementia with Lewy bodies. The absence of a depressed mood or anhedonia also rules out the possibility of depression. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, is also not a likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the combination of symptoms exhibited by the patient is consistent with Korsakoff’s syndrome, a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency often associated with chronic alcoholism. This diagnosis highlights the importance of addressing alcoholism and ensuring proper nutrition to prevent the development of this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of painful hands. He reports that...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of painful hands. He reports that his fingers turn white and become numb when exposed to cold, and then turn blue upon rewarming. His medical history is unremarkable, and he works in construction. On examination, there is no evidence of digital ulcers, calcinosis, chilblains, rash, or arthralgia. His blood results show a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelet count of 260 * 109/L, WBC count of 6.2 * 109/L, and ESR of 10mm/hr. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Use of vibrating tools

      Explanation:

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      180.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are the FY1 working on a pediatric ward. You overhear the nurses...

    Correct

    • You are the FY1 working on a pediatric ward. You overhear the nurses speaking about the son of one of your patients in a derogatory way. This upsets you as you have built a good rapport with the patient and his family.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Speak to the nurses quietly at a later time

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions in Response to Overhearing Inappropriate Conversation Among Nurses

      When overhearing inappropriate conversation among nurses on the ward, it is important to respond in a professional and appropriate manner. One should not interrupt the nurses and tell them to keep quiet or start shouting at them. Instead, the most appropriate action is to speak to the nurses quietly at a later time when things have calmed down. Confronting them in the moment may lead to further tension and conflict. Informing the patient’s family immediately and asking for a ward change is also not recommended as it may create mistrust and ill feeling towards the nursing staff. Speaking to the Ward Sister is an option, but it may cause a delay in addressing the issue. Therefore, it is better to approach the nurses directly and share concerns in a calm and professional manner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 59-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of chronic hypertension and diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of chronic hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents with mild vaginal bleeding. Bimanual pelvic examination reveals a relatively large mass on the right side of the pelvis. The patient undergoes an abdominal and pelvic computed tomography scan with contrast injection. The scan shows multiple enlarged lymph nodes in the pelvis, along the iliac arteries. The para-aortic lymph nodes appear normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Cervical squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Gynaecological Malignancies: Understanding the Differences

      When a postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding, pelvic mass, and pelvic lymphadenopathy, it is important to consider the different types of Gynaecological malignancies that could be causing these symptoms. The most likely diagnosis in this case is cervical squamous cell carcinoma, which typically metastasises to the pelvic lymph nodes along the iliac arteries.

      While endometrial carcinoma (adenocarcinoma) is the most common Gynaecological malignancy, it would also be a possibility in this patient. Ovarian cancer, the second most common Gynaecological cancer, typically metastasises to the para-aortic lymph nodes and is not associated with vaginal bleeding.

      Vulval cancers tend to metastasise to the superficial inguinal node and are unlikely to present with a pelvic mass or vaginal bleeding. Cervical adenocarcinomas are rare and derived from the endocervix, while uterine leiomyosarcoma often extends beyond the uterine serosa and occasionally metastasises to distant organs through blood vessels. However, neither of these malignancies typically present with vaginal bleeding and pelvic lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, understanding the differences between the various types of Gynaecological malignancies is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      95.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a...

    Incorrect

    • An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. He has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. During the examination, he had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed a raised intraocular pressure. The patient reports that he has recently been prescribed a new medication by his general practitioner.
      What medication could be responsible for this sudden onset of symptoms?

      Your Answer: Topical pilocarpine

      Correct Answer: Ipratropium nebuliser

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma and its Treatment Options

      Acute closed angle glaucoma is a serious eye condition that can cause sudden vision loss, severe eye pain, and nausea. It occurs when the angle between the iris and cornea is reduced, leading to a blockage of the aqueous humour flow and increased intraocular pressure. Risk factors include female sex, Asian ethnicity, and hypermetropia.

      Certain drugs, such as nebulised ipratropium and tricyclic antidepressants, can induce angle closure due to their antimuscarinic effects. Other antimuscarinic drug side-effects include dry eyes, xerostomia, bronchodilation, decreased gut motility, urinary outflow obstruction, and hallucinations.

      Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is given intravenously to treat acute closed angle glaucoma. It helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. Bisoprolol is a β-blocker that does not precipitate an episode of acute closed angle glaucoma, while montelukast is used in the long-term management of asthma and does not increase the risk of acute closed angle glaucoma.

      Topical pilocarpine is a miotic that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma by constricting the pupil and promoting aqueous humour flow. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for acute closed angle glaucoma to prevent vision loss and other serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      134.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old woman comes in for her dating scan after discovering she was...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes in for her dating scan after discovering she was pregnant 6 weeks ago through a urine pregnancy test. However, her ultrasound reveals that the pregnancy is ectopic and located in her left fallopian tube. The size of the pregnancy is 20mm, unruptured, and has no cardiac activity. The patient is not experiencing any symptoms such as bleeding, cramping, vomiting, or systemic symptoms, and her vitals are normal. Her blood test results show that her β-hCG levels have decreased from 940 IU/L at her booking appointment to 740 IU/L today. She has no significant medical history. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform left salpingostomy

      Correct Answer: Give safety netting advice and ask to return in 48 hours for serum β-hCG levels

      Explanation:

      Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only suitable for an embryo that is unruptured, <35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a β-hCG level of <1,000 IU/L and declining. In this case, the woman has a small ectopic pregnancy without cardiac activity and a declining β-hCG level. Therefore, expectant management is appropriate, and the woman should be given safety netting advice and asked to return for a follow-up blood test in 48 hours. Admitting her for 12-hourly β-hCG monitoring is unnecessary, and performing a salpingectomy or salpingostomy is not indicated. Prescribing medical management is also inappropriate in this case. Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test. There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility. Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      100.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Adjusted calcium: 2.5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.4)
      - Phosphate: 1.6 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
      - PTH: 2.05 pmol/L (normal range: 1.05-6.83)
      - Urea: 32.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.8)
      - Creatinine: 160 µmol/L (normal range: 60-120)
      - 25 OH Vit D: 56 nmol/L (optimal level >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CKD3

      Correct Answer: Acute renal failure

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Indicators of Dehydration-Induced Acute Kidney Injury

      The biochemical indicators suggest that the patient is experiencing acute renal failure or acute kidney injury due to dehydration. The slightly elevated levels of calcium and phosphate indicate haemoconcentration, while the significantly increased urea levels compared to creatinine suggest AKI. A urea level of 32 mmol/L is common in AKI, but in a patient with stable chronic kidney disease, it would typically be associated with a much higher creatinine level.

      It is important to note that chronic kidney disease often presents with multiple biochemical abnormalities that are not typically seen in AKI. These include hypocalcaemia, increased levels of PTH (secondary hyperparathyroidism in compensation for hypocalcaemia), and anaemia due to erythropoietin and iron deficiency. Therefore, the absence of these indicators in the patient’s blood work supports the diagnosis of dehydration-induced AKI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      57.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed seizure. According to the witness, the seizure lasted around 10 minutes and the patient was drowsy for 15 minutes afterward. The patient is now alert and conversing with the medical staff. They have a history of schizophrenia and have reported several seizures since beginning a new medication five weeks ago. Which medication is the most probable cause of this incident?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the only atypical antipsychotic drug that reduces seizure threshold, increasing the likelihood of seizures. While effective, it has serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, neutropenia, reduced seizure threshold, and myocarditis. Aripiprazole has a favorable side effect profile and is less likely to cause hyperprolactinemia or other side effects. Olanzapine is known for causing dyslipidemia, weight gain, diabetes, and sedation, but may be prescribed to underweight patients who have trouble sleeping. Quetiapine is associated with weight gain, dyslipidemia, and postural hypotension.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6 month old infant presents to the hospital with a fever. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old infant presents to the hospital with a fever. Upon examination, there are no respiratory symptoms or signs of diarrhea. What initial investigations would you include in your assessment?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      When evaluating infants under 3 months with a fever, the following tests should be conducted: a complete blood count, blood culture, C-reactive protein test, urine analysis to check for urinary tract infections, and a chest X-ray if respiratory symptoms are present. Additionally, a stool culture should be performed if the infant is experiencing diarrhea.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
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