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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female comes to the emergency department complaining of lower abdominal pain. The pain began in the middle and is now concentrated on the right side. She reports that the pain is an 8 out of 10 on the pain scale. She is sexually active and not using any contraception except for condoms. During the examination, she experiences pain in the right iliac fossa and rebound tenderness. What initial tests should be conducted during admission to exclude a possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Urine human chorionic gonadotropin
Explanation:When a woman experiences pain in the right iliac fossa, it is important to consider gynecological issues as a possible cause of acute abdomen. One potential cause is an ectopic pregnancy, which can manifest in various ways, including abdominal pain. It is important to inquire about the woman’s menstrual cycle, but vaginal bleeding does not necessarily rule out an ectopic pregnancy, as it can be mistaken for a period.
To aid in diagnosis and management, a pregnancy test should be conducted. Even if a woman presents with non-specific symptoms, NICE guidelines recommend offering a pregnancy test if pregnancy is a possibility. A urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) test is a safe and non-invasive way to confirm or rule out an ectopic or intrauterine pregnancy.
Serum hCG is used to determine management in cases of unknown pregnancy location and is commonly used as a pregnancy test. Further investigations, such as ultrasound or CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis, may be necessary depending on the results of the pregnancy test.
Possible Causes of Right Iliac Fossa Pain
Right iliac fossa pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. One of the most common causes is appendicitis, which is characterized by pain radiating to the right iliac fossa, anorexia, and a short history. On the other hand, Crohn’s disease often has a long history, signs of malnutrition, and a change in bowel habit, especially diarrhea. Mesenteric adenitis, which mainly affects children, is caused by viruses and bacteria and is associated with a higher temperature than appendicitis. Diverticulitis, both left and right-sided, may present with right iliac fossa pain, and a CT scan may help in refining the diagnosis.
Other possible causes of right iliac fossa pain include Meckel’s diverticulitis, perforated peptic ulcer, incarcerated right inguinal or femoral hernia, bowel perforation secondary to caecal or colon carcinoma, gynecological causes such as pelvic inflammatory disease and ectopic pregnancy, urological causes such as ureteric colic and testicular torsion, and other conditions like TB, typhoid, herpes zoster, AAA, and situs inversus.
It is important to consider the patient’s clinical history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests to determine the underlying cause of right iliac fossa pain. Prompt diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath, nocturnal cough and wheezing for the past week. He reports that these symptoms began after he was accidentally exposed to a significant amount of hydrochloric acid fumes while working in a chemical laboratory. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or any other relevant medical history. He is a non-smoker.
What initial investigation may be the most useful in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Methacholine challenge test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms after exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, several tests may be performed to exclude other pulmonary diagnoses and confirm the presence of the condition.
One of the diagnostic criteria for RADS is the absence of pre-existing respiratory conditions. Additionally, the onset of asthma symptoms should occur after a single exposure to irritants in high concentration, with symptoms appearing within 24 hours of exposure. A positive methacholine challenge test (< 8 mg/ml) following exposure and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests can also confirm the diagnosis. While a chest X-ray and full blood count may be requested to exclude other causes of symptoms, they are usually unhelpful in confirming the diagnosis of RADS. Peak flow is also not useful in diagnosis, as there is no pre-existing reading to compare values. The skin prick test may be useful in assessing reactions to common environmental allergens, but it is not helpful in diagnosing RADS as it occurs after one-off exposures. In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests can help confirm the diagnosis of RADS and exclude other pulmonary conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she is unable to remember her way home. Past medical history of note includes hypertension for which she takes lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. She is known to Social Services having been in trouble for stealing from a local grocery store earlier in the year, and for yelling at a neighbor who complained about her loud music. On examination she is agitated and socially inappropriate, she has been incontinent of urine. During your testing she repeats what you say and appears to be laughing at you. Responses to your questions tend to lack fluency and she has trouble naming simple objects. There is rigidity and increased tone on motor examination.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 250 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 190 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Computed tomography (CT) head scan – evidence of frontal atrophy
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Understanding Frontotemporal Dementia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Frontotemporal dementia, also known as Pick’s disease, is a type of dementia that affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. One of the hallmark symptoms of this condition is a change in personality, often leading to disinhibition, aggression, and inappropriate behavior. Patients may also exhibit echolalia and echopraxia, repeating words and imitating actions of others.
Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia often presents with early symptoms of behavioral changes and repetitive behavior, rather than memory loss. Incontinence may also be an early symptom. Diagnosis is typically made through brain imaging, which reveals frontotemporal lobe degeneration and the presence of Pick’s bodies, spherical aggregations of tau proteins in neurons.
Management of frontotemporal dementia focuses on symptomatic treatment of behavior and support for caregivers and patients. Other conditions, such as Shy-Drager syndrome, multi-infarct dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, may present with similar symptoms but can be ruled out through careful evaluation and testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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You are asked to review a middle-aged man, following an admission for lower abdominal pain. The patient has a distended abdomen and has not passed urine for eight hours. He is very uncomfortable and has a large palpable bladder extending above the pubic symphysis. A digital rectal examination is performed, which reveals an enlarged, smooth prostate. Urinalysis is unremarkable, and he remains systemically well. He describes increasing difficulty with voiding and poor stream over the past six months, but no other symptoms.
What is the most likely underlying cause for his urinary retention?Your Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
Explanation:Causes of Urinary Retention in Men
Urinary retention, the inability to empty the bladder completely, can have various underlying causes. In men, some common conditions that can lead to urinary retention are benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), renal calculi, prostate carcinoma, urinary tract infection, and bladder cancer.
BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that often occurs with aging. It can compress the urethra and obstruct the flow of urine, causing symptoms such as difficulty starting urination, weak stream, dribbling, and frequent urination. Immediate treatment for acute urinary retention due to BPH may involve inserting a urinary catheter to relieve the pressure and drain the bladder.
Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause urinary retention if they get stuck in the ureter or bladder neck. The pain from passing a stone can be severe and radiate from the back to the groin. Blood in the urine may also be present.
Prostate carcinoma, or prostate cancer, can also cause urinary retention if the tumour grows large enough to block the urethra. However, this is not a common presentation of prostate cancer, which usually manifests with other symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, pain, or blood in the semen.
Urinary tract infection (UTI) can result from incomplete voiding due to BPH or other causes. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning, urgency, frequency, cloudy or foul-smelling urine, and fever. However, not all cases of urinary retention are associated with UTI.
Bladder cancer is a rare cause of urinary retention, but it can occur if the tumour obstructs the bladder outlet. Bladder cancer may also cause painless hematuria, urinary urgency, or pelvic discomfort.
In summary, urinary retention in men can have multiple etiologies, and the diagnosis depends on the patient’s history, physical examination, and additional tests such as imaging, urinalysis, or prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing. Prompt evaluation and management of urinary retention are essential to prevent complications such as urinary tract infection, bladder damage, or renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 67-year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. He also had a dry cough, but no fever. During examination, scattered wheeze and some expiratory high-pitched sounds were observed. The C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal, and the Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry results showed a Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 51%, Forced vital capacity (FVC) of 88%, and FEV1/FVC of 58%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans
Explanation:Understanding Bronchiolitis Obliterans: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options
Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a condition that can occur in patients who have undergone bone marrow, heart, or lung transplants. It is characterized by an obstructive picture on spirometry, which may be accompanied by cough, cold, dyspnea, tachypnea, chest wall retraction, and cyanosis. The pulmonary defect is usually irreversible, and a CT scan may show areas of air trapping. Common infections associated with bronchiolitis include influenzae, adenovirus, Mycoplasma, and Bordetella. In adults, bronchiolitis is mainly caused by Mycoplasma, while among connective tissue disorders, BO is found in rheumatoid arthritis and, rarely, in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus. Treatment options include corticosteroids, with variable results. Lung biopsy reveals concentric inflammation and fibrosis around bronchioles. Other conditions, such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), drug-induced lung disorder, fungal infection, and pneumocystis pneumonia, have different clinical findings and require different treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes in for his annual check-up without new complaints or symptoms. Routine blood tests and a urine dip are performed, revealing the following results:
- Hb: 150 g/L (Male: 135-180)
- Platelets: 200 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC: 11.8 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Na+: 140 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 7.2 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 98 µmol/L (55-120)
- CRP: 3 mg/L (<5)
- Urine Appearance: Clear
- Blood: +++
- Protein: -
- Nitrites: -
- Leucocytes: +
What should be the GP's next course of action for this patient?Your Answer: 2-week wait referral using the suspected cancer pathway
Explanation:A patient who is 60 years or older and presents with unexplained non-visible haematuria along with either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out bladder cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is a 2-week wait referral. Prescribing treatment for a urinary tract infection is not appropriate as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms of a UTI. Similarly, repeating U&Es in 4 weeks is not necessary as the patient’s U&Es are normal. Screening for diabetes is also not indicated as there are no symptoms suggestive of diabetes at present.
Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.
Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.
Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. Her most recent early morning urinary albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 4 mg/mmol (normal for women: < 3.5 mg/mmol). What should be the target blood pressure for managing her diabetic nephropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 130/80 mmHg
Explanation:Blood Pressure Targets for Patients with Diabetes
Blood pressure targets vary depending on the type of diabetes and the presence of co-morbidities. For patients with type II diabetes and signs of end-organ damage, the target is 130/80 mmHg. Ideal blood pressure for most people is between 90/60 mmHg and 120/80 mmHg. Patients with type I diabetes without albuminuria or > 2 features of metabolic syndrome have a target of 135/85 mmHg. Type II diabetics without signs of end-organ damage have a target of 140/80 mmHg. For patients over 80 years old, the target is 150/90 mmHg. It is important for patients with diabetes to work with their healthcare provider to determine their individual blood pressure target.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in an altercation, during which he was stabbed in his lower back. On examination, he has right leg weakness in all muscle groups. Further examination reveals that he has loss of vibration and proprioception on the same side. In his left leg, there is loss of pain and temperature sensation, but preserved motor strength. He has no problems with bladder or bowel retention. His motor strength is preserved in his upper limbs.
With which one of the following spinal cord syndromes is his presentation consistent?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hemisection of the cord
Explanation:Overview of Spinal Cord Syndromes
Spinal cord syndromes are a group of neurological disorders that affect the spinal cord and its associated nerves. These syndromes can be caused by various factors, including trauma, infection, and degenerative diseases. Here are some of the most common spinal cord syndromes:
Hemisection of the Cord (Brown-Sequard Syndrome)
This syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, as well as ipsilateral hemiplegia. On the other hand, there is contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Hemisection of the cord is usually caused by a stab injury.Central Cord Syndrome
Central cord syndrome causes bilateral weakness of the limbs, with the upper limbs being more affected than the lower extremities. This is because the upper limbs are represented medially in the corticospinal tracts.Anterior Cord Syndrome
In anterior cord syndrome, proprioception, vibratory sense, and light touch are preserved. However, there is bilateral weakness and loss of pain and temperature sensation due to involvement of the spinothalamic tracts.Posterior Cord Syndrome
Posterior cord syndrome is characterized by loss of vibratory sense and proprioception below the level of the lesion, as well as total sensory loss at the level of the lesion.Cauda Equina Syndrome
Cauda equina syndrome is caused by compressive lesions at L4/L5 or L5/S1. Symptoms include asymmetric weakness, saddle anesthesia, decreased reflexes at the knee, and radicular pain. Bowel and bladder retention may develop as late complications.In conclusion, understanding the different types of spinal cord syndromes is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a positive urine pregnancy test result. She underwent a medical termination of pregnancy using mifepristone and misoprostol three weeks ago when she was eight weeks pregnant. She reports no ongoing pregnancy symptoms and only slight vaginal bleeding since the procedure. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and repeat urine pregnancy test at 4 weeks post termination
Explanation:It is common for HCG levels to remain positive for several weeks after a termination of pregnancy. HCG levels are typically measured every two days, and a positive result beyond four weeks may indicate a continuing pregnancy. However, in most cases, HCG levels will return to normal within four weeks.
In this scenario, the appropriate course of action is to repeat the urine pregnancy test in one week, as the patient is currently only three weeks post-termination. There is no need for further referrals or imaging at this time, as a positive test result is unlikely to indicate a continuing pregnancy, and the patient does not exhibit any urgent symptoms such as infection or hemorrhage.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are conducting a routine check-up on a one-month-old infant and notice that the baby has ambiguous genitalia. The parents are understandably upset and want to know what could have caused this. What is the most probable reason for the ambiguous genitalia in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:The most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in newborns is congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Kallman’s syndrome does not result in ambiguous genitalia, as those affected are typically male but have hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, which is usually diagnosed during puberty. Androgen insensitivity syndrome results in individuals who are phenotypically female and do not have ambiguous genitalia. Male pseudohermaphroditism is a rare cause of ambiguous genitalia, with external genitalia typically being female or ambiguous and testes usually present.
During fetal development, the gonads are initially undifferentiated. However, the presence of the sex-determining gene (SRY gene) on the Y chromosome causes the gonads to differentiate into testes. In the absence of this gene (i.e. in a female), the gonads differentiate into ovaries. Ambiguous genitalia in newborns is most commonly caused by congenital adrenal hyperplasia, but can also be caused by true hermaphroditism or maternal ingestion of androgens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of pain and reduced vision in her left eye over the past few hours. She denies any other symptoms.
Upon examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36 with reduced colour vision. Eye movements are normal, but the pain worsens. The swinging torch test reveals left pupil dilation when the torch light is swung from the right eye to the left.
A dilated fundoscopy shows normal optic discs in both eyes. An MRI scan of the head reveals white matter lesions in two different areas of the brain. An LP and CSF analysis show oligoclonal bands.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Optic Neuritis
Optic neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the optic nerve, which can cause vision loss, pain, and other symptoms. When a patient presents with optic neuritis, there are several possible underlying diagnoses that could be considered.
One of the most likely diagnoses is multiple sclerosis, which can cause optic neuritis as a secondary symptom. To confirm this diagnosis, another MRI should be done at a later time to show that there are white matter plaques that are disseminated in time and space. However, the signs and examination findings are consistent with multiple sclerosis. It’s worth noting that if the optic disc is spared from inflammation, it can result in retrobulbar neuritis, which would not involve optic disc swelling.
Another possible diagnosis is giant-cell arthritis, which can cause a condition called anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION). This can result in a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) and reduced visual acuity. However, the fundoscopy, MRI, and CSF findings are not consistent with AION.
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is an ophthalmic sign that can be found in multiple sclerosis, but it is not a diagnosis in and of itself. It occurs when there is an injury or dysfunction to the medial longitudinal fasciculus.
Myasthenia gravis is another possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with variable diplopia or ptosis, which worsens in the evening or with exercise. There would not be any optic neuropathy signs.
Finally, post-viral demyelination is a type of atypical optic neuritis that is often bilateral and occurs a few weeks after a viral illness or vaccination. However, there is no history of any viral illnesses in this patient, making this diagnosis less likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and has undergone surgery and radiotherapy. Despite being HER2 -ve and ER -ve, her TNM stage is T2N2M0. Given her node positivity, what is the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FEC-D Chemotherapy
Explanation:Breast cancer patients with positive lymph nodes are treated with FEC-D chemotherapy, while those with negative lymph nodes requiring chemotherapy are treated with FEC chemotherapy. Hormonal therapies such as aromatase inhibitors and tamoxifen are used for women with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, while HER2-positive breast cancer is treated with herceptin. The management of breast cancer does not involve the use of estrogen.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and constipation. On examination, she has cool and dry hands, bradycardia and slow-relaxing reflexes. When asked about medication, she reports taking a tablet for her mental health disorder for a prolonged period. Which medication is most likely responsible for her current symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium and Hypothyroidism
Lithium is a commonly used medication for bipolar disorder, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and can easily cause toxicity. One of the long-term side effects of lithium is hypothyroidism, which can present with symptoms such as cool hands, bradycardia, and slow reflexes. Treatment for hypothyroidism caused by lithium typically involves thyroxine. Other psychiatric medications, such as olanzapine, amitriptyline, clonazepam, and clozapine, are less likely to cause hypothyroidism and would not present with the same clinical picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male patient complains of a bulge in his left groin area. Upon examination, the lump is soft and exhibits a positive cough impulse. However, it can be managed by applying pressure over the midpoint of the inguinal ligament after reduction. What is the probable origin of this lump?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring
Explanation:Inguinal Hernias
An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine or other viscera protrudes through a normal or abnormal opening in the parietal peritoneum. The inguinal canal, which runs obliquely from the internal to the external inguinal ring, is a common site for hernias. In men, it contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in women, it contains the round ligament and ilioinguinal nerve.
The walls of the inguinal canal consist of an anterior wall made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, a posterior wall of peritoneum and transversalis fascia, a floor of in-rolled inguinal ligament, and a roof of arching fibers of the internal oblique and transverse abdominal muscles. Predisposing factors to hernias include obesity, muscle weakness, chronic cough, chronic constipation, and pregnancy.
There are two types of inguinal hernias: direct and indirect. Direct hernias arise from the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, while indirect hernias arise from the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring. Indirect hernias are more common than direct hernias. The course of a direct inguinal hernia is similar to that of the testis in males, while in females, the persistent processus vaginalis forms a small peritoneal pouch called the canal of Nuck.
In conclusion, the anatomy and predisposing factors of inguinal hernias can help in their prevention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is being assessed in the postpartum unit, 48 hours after a vaginal delivery. The delivery was uncomplicated and she is eager to be discharged. She has initiated breastfeeding and is forming a strong attachment with her newborn.
When inquired about birth control, she reports that she previously used the progesterone-only pill and wishes to resume this method. What is the soonest she can restart this contraception?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediately
Explanation:The progesterone-only pill can be taken by postpartum women (both breastfeeding and non-breastfeeding) at any time after delivery. It is categorized as UKMEC 1, meaning there are no restrictions on its use. Women can start taking it immediately if they choose to do so, and there is no need to wait for three weeks before starting. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) can be taken as UKMEC 2 after three weeks in non-breastfeeding women, and after six weeks in breastfeeding women or as UKMEC 1 in non-breastfeeding women. In breastfeeding women, the COCP can be taken as UKMEC 1 after six months. The progesterone-only pill is safe for breastfeeding women as it has minimal transfer into breast milk, and there is no harm to the baby.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is presented to the clinic by his mother who has observed a tiny lesion at the outer corner of his eye. During the examination, a small cystic structure is noticed which appears to have been recently infected. Upon removing the scab, hair is visible within the lesion. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst
Explanation:Dermoid cysts typically develop in children and are found at locations where embryonic fusion occurred. These cysts can contain various types of cells. It is improbable that the growth in question is a desmoid cyst, as they rarely occur in this age group or at this location, and do not contain hair. Sebaceous cysts usually have a small opening and contain a cheesy substance, while epidermoid cysts contain keratin plugs.
Dermoid Cysts vs. Desmoid Tumours
Dermoid cysts and desmoid tumours are two distinct medical conditions that should not be confused with each other. Dermoid cysts are cutaneous growths that usually appear in areas where embryonic development has occurred. They are commonly found in the midline of the neck, behind the ear, and around the eyes. Dermoid cysts are characterized by multiple inclusions, such as hair follicles, that protrude from their walls. In contrast, desmoid tumours are aggressive fibrous tumours that can be classified as low-grade fibrosarcomas. They often present as large infiltrative masses and can be found in different parts of the body.
Desmoid tumours can be divided into three types: abdominal, extra-abdominal, and intra-abdominal. All types share the same biological features and can be challenging to treat. Extra-abdominal desmoids are equally common in both sexes and usually develop in the musculature of the shoulder, chest wall, back, and thigh. Abdominal desmoids, on the other hand, tend to arise in the musculoaponeurotic structures of the abdominal wall. Intra-abdominal desmoids are more likely to occur in the mesentery or pelvic side walls and are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli syndrome.
In summary, while dermoid cysts and desmoid tumours may sound similar, they are entirely different conditions. Dermoid cysts are benign growths that usually occur in specific areas of the body, while desmoid tumours are aggressive fibrous tumours that can be found in different parts of the body and can be challenging to treat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male visits the GP clinic complaining of lower back pain that radiates to his buttocks for the past 5 months. The pain is most severe in the morning, improves with exercise, and sometimes wakes him up in the early hours of the morning. A radiograph is requested, which reveals sacroiliitis. What other radiograph findings are probable in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subchondral erosions, sclerosis and squaring of lumbar vertebrae
Explanation:The x-ray findings that are commonly seen in ankylosing spondylitis include subchondral erosions, sclerosis, and squaring of lumbar vertebrae. These findings are indicative of the patient’s symptoms of inflammatory joint pain, which is most likely caused by ankylosing spondylitis given their age, gender, and nature of pain. Sacroiliitis on x-ray can confirm the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis.
Juxta-articular osteopenia, subchondral cysts, and squaring of lumbar vertebrae are incorrect as they are not commonly seen in ankylosing spondylitis. Juxta-articular osteopenia is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis, while subchondral cysts and osteophyte formation at joint margins are more common in osteoarthritis.
Subchondral sclerosis and osteophyte formation at joint margins are also incorrect as they are more commonly seen in osteoarthritis. Periarticular erosions are more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis and are therefore unlikely to be seen on this patient’s x-ray.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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After catheterisation for acute urinary retention due to a lower urinary tract infection, what is the maximum acceptable residual urine volume in patients aged 65 years or older?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50ml
Explanation:For patients under the age of 65, post-void volumes of less than 50 ml are considered normal. For patients over the age of 65, post-void volumes of less than 100 ml are considered normal. Chronic urinary retention is diagnosed when there is more than 500 ml of urine remaining in the bladder after voiding. An acute-on-chronic urinary retention is suggested by a post-catheterization urine volume of more than 800 ml.
Acute urinary retention is a condition where a person suddenly becomes unable to pass urine voluntarily, typically over a period of hours or less. It is a common urological emergency that requires investigation to determine the underlying cause. While it is more common in men, it rarely occurs in women, with an incidence ratio of 13:1. Acute urinary retention is most frequently seen in men over 60 years of age, and the incidence increases with age. It has been estimated that around a third of men in their 80s will develop acute urinary retention over a five-year period.
The most common cause of acute urinary retention in men is benign prostatic hyperplasia, a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that presses on the urethra, making it difficult for the bladder to empty. Other causes include urethral obstructions, such as strictures, calculi, cystocele, constipation, or masses, as well as certain medications that affect nerve signals to the bladder. In some cases, there may be a neurological cause for the condition. Acute urinary retention can also occur postoperatively and in women postpartum, typically due to a combination of risk factors.
Patients with acute urinary retention typically experience an inability to pass urine, lower abdominal discomfort, and considerable pain or distress. Elderly patients may also present with an acute confusional state. Unlike chronic urinary retention, which is typically painless, acute urinary retention is associated with pain and discomfort. A palpable distended urinary bladder may be detected on abdominal or rectal examination, and lower abdominal tenderness may also be present. All patients should undergo a rectal and neurological examination, and women should also have a pelvic examination.
To confirm the diagnosis of acute urinary retention, a bladder ultrasound should be performed. The bladder volume should be greater than 300 cc to confirm the diagnosis, but if the history and examination are consistent with acute urinary retention, an inconsistent bladder scan does not rule out the condition. Acute urinary retention is managed by decompressing the bladder via catheterisation. Further investigation should be targeted by the likely cause, and patients may require IV fluids to correct any temporary over-diuresis that may occur as a complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man, with a family history of ischaemic heart disease, has been diagnosed with angina. His total cholesterol level is 6.5 mmol/l. He has been prescribed a statin and given dietary advice. What dietary modification is most likely to lower his cholesterol level?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats
Explanation:Lowering Cholesterol Levels: Dietary Changes to Consider
To lower cholesterol levels, it is important to make dietary changes. One effective change is to replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats. Saturated fats increase cholesterol levels, while unsaturated fats lower them. It is recommended to reduce the percentage of daily energy intake from fat, with a focus on reducing saturated fats. Increasing intake of foods such as pulses, legumes, root vegetables, and unprocessed cereals can also help lower cholesterol. Using a margarine containing an added stanol ester can increase plant stanol intake, which can also reduce cholesterol. However, reducing intake of dairy products and meat alone may not be as effective as replacing them with beneficial unsaturated fats. It is important to avoid replacing polyunsaturated fats with saturated fats, as this can raise cholesterol levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless frank haematuria. He has been experiencing a mild testicular ache and describes his scrotum as a 'bag of worms'. He is a heavy smoker, smoking 60 cigarettes a day for 48 years. During the examination, he appears cachectic, and his left testicle has a tortuous texture. His blood work shows anaemia and polycythemia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma on the left kidney
Explanation:Varicocele may indicate the presence of malignancy, as it can result from the compression of the renal vein between the abdominal aorta and the superior mesenteric artery, also known as the nutcracker angle.
Based on the patient’s medical history, there is a strong possibility of malignancy. A mass can cause compression of the renal vein, typically on the left side, leading to increased pressure on the testicular vessels and resulting in varicocele.
Hepatocellular carcinoma is unlikely as it occurs on the right side of the body and cannot compress the left renal vein. Torsion is also unlikely as the patient would experience severe pain and would not be able to tolerate an examination.
The absence of tenderness in the testicle makes epididymo-orchitis an unlikely diagnosis. Additionally, there is no swelling that transilluminates, ruling out the possibility of a hydrocele.
Understanding Renal Cell Cancer
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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