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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man tells his general practitioner that, for the past two months, he has been passing urine more often than usual and getting up at night to urinate. Given the man’s age, you suspect he might have symptoms related to an enlarged prostate.
Which of the following should be done first to confirm the first impression?Your Answer: Blood test for PSA
Correct Answer: Full urological history
Explanation:Assessing Prostate Enlargement: Diagnostic Tests and Treatment Options
To determine the presence and severity of prostate enlargement, a full urological history should be taken, with attention paid to obstructive and irritation symptoms. If enlargement is suspected, a blood test for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) should be done before rectal examination, as the latter can increase PSA levels. Tamsulosin may be prescribed as a first-line drug for mild cases, but a thorough history should be obtained before starting pharmacological treatment. Abdominal examination is not typically necessary for initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents to your GP evening clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. He reports experiencing pain in the lower left abdomen which has worsened throughout the day. He also feels feverish, nauseous, and has vomited twice in the past hour. He cannot recall the last time he passed urine or stool and mentions having a small painless lump on his lower left abdomen for the past month which he has not sought medical attention for.
Upon examination, the patient appears unwell and clammy. He is tachycardic and normotensive. His abdomen is mildly distended and very tender to touch, with evidence of localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Additionally, you notice a 2 cm x 2 cm erythematosus lump in the left inguinal area which is now extremely painful to touch.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Ask the patient to attend the emergency department
Correct Answer: Call 999 and arrange an urgent assessment of your patient in hospital
Explanation:It is not recommended to manually reduce strangulated inguinal hernias while awaiting surgery. In the scenario of a patient with an acute abdomen and signs of a strangulated hernia, the appropriate response is to call 999 for urgent assessment and inform the surgical registrar on-call. Attempting to manually reduce the hernia can worsen the patient’s condition. Requesting a urine sample or discussing an appendicectomy is not appropriate in this situation.
Understanding Strangulated Inguinal Hernias
An inguinal hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the superficial inguinal ring. This can happen directly through the deep inguinal ring or indirectly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Hernias should be reducible, meaning that the herniated tissue can be pushed back into place in the abdomen through the defect using a hand. However, if a hernia cannot be reduced, it is referred to as an incarcerated hernia, which is at risk of strangulation. Strangulation is a surgical emergency where the blood supply to the herniated tissue is compromised, leading to ischemia or necrosis.
Symptoms of a strangulated hernia include pain, fever, an increase in the size of a hernia or erythema of the overlying skin, peritonitic features such as guarding and localised tenderness, bowel obstruction, and bowel ischemia. Imaging can be used in cases of suspected strangulation, but it is not considered necessary and is more useful in excluding other pathologies. Repair involves immediate surgery, either from an open or laparoscopic approach with a mesh technique. This is the same technique used in elective hernia repair, however, any dead bowel will also have to be removed. While waiting for the surgery, it is not recommended that you manually reduce strangulated hernias, as this can cause more generalised peritonitis. Strangulation occurs in around 1 in 500 cases of all inguinal hernias, and indications that a hernia is at risk of strangulation include episodes of pain in a hernia that was previously asymptomatic and irreducible hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of heavy drinking. The medical team suspects a duodenal ulcer that is bleeding. Which blood vessel is the most probable source of the bleeding?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Stomach and Duodenum: Potential Sites of Haemorrhage
The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by a network of arteries that can be vulnerable to erosion and haemorrhage in cases of ulceration. Here are some of the key arteries of the stomach and duodenum to be aware of:
Gastroduodenal artery: This branch of the common hepatic artery travels to the first part of the duodenum, where duodenal ulcers often occur. If the ulceration erodes through the gastroduodenal artery, it can cause a catastrophic haemorrhage and present as haematemesis.
Left gastric artery: Arising from the coeliac artery, the left gastric artery supplies the distal oesophagus and the lesser curvature of the stomach. Gastric ulceration can cause erosion of this artery and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery arises from the splenic artery and runs along the greater curvature of the stomach. If there is gastric ulceration, it can be eroded and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Right gastroepiploic artery: Arising from the gastroduodenal artery, the right gastroepiploic artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the left gastroepiploic artery.
Short gastric arteries: These branches arise from the splenic artery and supply the fundus of the stomach, passing through the gastrosplenic ligament.
Knowing the potential sites of haemorrhage in the gastrointestinal tract can help clinicians to identify and manage cases of bleeding effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old patient arrives at the dialysis center for their thrice-weekly haemodialysis. They have end stage renal failure caused by membranous glomerulonephritis and no other health issues. The patient reports feeling fatigued but is otherwise in good health. During routine blood work, their haemoglobin level is found to be 89 g/L (115-165). If the anaemia is a result of their renal disease, what is the appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral iron tablets
Correct Answer: Intravenous iron plus or minus parenteral erythropoietin
Explanation:Patients with end stage kidney disease have poor iron absorption and lack endogenous erythropoietin, making parenteral iron replacement and erythropoietin the best management. Anaemia is common in these patients due to poor oral iron absorption and GI blood loss. Acute packed red cell transfusion is extreme and renal transplant may be an option, but the patient’s haemoglobin can be modified with increased IV iron and epo doses. Oral iron tablets are poorly absorbed and tolerated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is brought to his GP by his father as he is worried that his son has become socially withdrawn since puberty. Despite being regularly invited, he doesn't participate in after-work events. His father recently became concerned when his son stated that he doesn't need or want any friends. The patient has no significant medical history, denies alcohol dependence, and has recently been promoted at work. During the consultation, he remains with his arms folded and does not engage. There is no evidence of affection towards his father when he expresses his concern. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with constipation, confusion, and fatigue. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and prostate cancer. His blood work shows a significantly elevated calcium level. What is the expected ECG result?
Your Answer: Shortening of the QT interval
Explanation:Patients with cancer have a high risk of developing hypercalcemia, which is linked to a shortened QT interval. The QT interval can also be prolonged due to electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalcemia, as well as hypothermia, myocardial ischemia, and congenital long QT syndrome. First-degree heart block is characterized by a fixed prolonged PR interval, while hyperkalemia is indicated by tall T waves that may be followed by flattened P waves, PR prolongation, and a sine-wave appearance. S1Q3T3, which refers to an S wave in lead I, a Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III, is a rare finding that is often associated with pulmonary embolism (PE), but it is not a reliable indicator of this condition.
Hypercalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The symptoms and signs of hypercalcaemia can be remembered by the phrase ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’. This means that patients with hypercalcaemia may experience bone pain, kidney stones, constipation, and changes in mood or behavior. In addition, corneal calcification and a shortened QT interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG) may also be present. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is another common feature of hypercalcaemia. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present, as hypercalcaemia can lead to serious complications if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic with concerns that her husband is cheating on her. They have been married for 10 years and have always been faithful to each other. She is a stay-at-home mom and her husband works long hours. You wonder about the likelihood of her claims being true.
What is the medical term for this type of delusional jealousy?Your Answer: Factitious disorder
Correct Answer: Othello syndrome
Explanation:Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where individuals believe that their partner is being unfaithful. This belief can stem from a variety of underlying conditions, including affective states, schizophrenia, or personality disorders. Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, even when none exists. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and blurred vision that started 1 day ago. He reports no pain when touching his scalp or eating and chewing food. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which he manages with metformin. He also mentions that his uncle died of brain cancer, and he is worried that he may have the same condition.
During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. Dilated fundoscopy reveals some arterioles narrower than others, with venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes, with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. Additionally, there are some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.
His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 80 bpm, blood pressure 221/119 mmHg, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, respiratory rate 14 per minute, and temperature 37 °C.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hypertensive Retinopathy: A Case Study
The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed typical features of hypertensive retinopathy, including bilateral optic disc swelling. Although the patient had a family history of intracranial space-occupying lesions, there were no accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss, making this diagnosis unlikely. Additionally, there was no evidence of drusen or choroidal neovascularisation, ruling out age-related macular degeneration. The absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication made giant-cell arthritis an unlikely diagnosis as well. Finally, the lack of new vessels at the disc and elsewhere ruled out proliferative diabetic retinopathy. In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings point towards a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A patient attends the Neurology clinic following a referral from the general practitioner due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the left-sided trigeminal nerve.
Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy?Your Answer: Loss of taste in anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Correct Answer: Bite weakness
Explanation:Understanding Cranial Nerve Functions and Their Effects on Facial and Oral Muscles
The human body is a complex system of interconnected parts, and the cranial nerves play a crucial role in ensuring that these parts function properly. In particular, the trigeminal nerve, facial nerve, and glossopharyngeal nerve are responsible for controlling various muscles in the face and mouth, as well as transmitting sensory information from these areas to the brain.
If there is weakness in the masticatory muscles, it may be due to a problem with the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Similarly, loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue may be caused by damage to the facial nerve, which carries taste fibers from this area. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle is also linked to the facial nerve, which supplies motor fibers to the muscles of facial expression.
Another common symptom of facial nerve palsy is the loss of control over eye blinking, which is mainly controlled by the orbicularis muscle. Finally, the glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for supplying taste fibers to the posterior third of the tongue.
Overall, understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential for identifying the location of lesions and determining which nerve is affected. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency department with a complaint of sudden pain in her upper tibia. She has a fever and is unwilling to move her leg. The medical team suspects osteomyelitis. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Organisms in Osteomyelitis and Related Conditions
Acute osteomyelitis in children over the age of 4 years is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Fortunately, immunisation has greatly reduced the incidence of haematogenous osteomyelitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae. In sickle cell anaemia, Salmonella is the typical organism responsible for infection. Meanwhile, Pseudomonas infection is frequently seen in haemodialysis patients and intravenous drug users. These organisms can cause serious infections that require prompt medical attention. It is important to be aware of the common organisms associated with osteomyelitis and related conditions in order to facilitate early diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her planned pregnancy, estimated to be at 6 weeks gestation. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her mild asthma is well-controlled with inhaled beclomethasone. The GP recommends taking folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.
What would warrant prescribing high-dose folic acid for this patient?Your Answer: Smoking status
Correct Answer: Patient's body mass index (BMI)
Explanation:Pregnant women with a BMI of ≥30 kg/m² should be given a high dose of 5mg folic acid to prevent neural tube defects (NTD) in the first trimester of pregnancy. This is in addition to patients with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD. Folic acid should ideally be started before conception to further reduce the risk of NTD. However, a history of asthma, smoking, patient age, and Asian ethnicity are not indications for high-dose folic acid prescribing in pregnancy. Pregnant smokers should not be prescribed high-dose folic acid, although smoking during pregnancy is a risk factor for prematurity, low birth weight, and cleft lip/palate. There is currently no evidence to support high-dose folic acid prescribing for pregnant women with asthma or those at the extremes of maternal age. Additionally, all pregnant women should take vitamin D 10mcg (400 units) daily throughout their pregnancy, as recommended by NICE.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy presents to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history of vomiting and fever. He has no significant medical history. On examination, his urine dipstick is positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and blood. An abdominal ultrasound rules out a posterior urethral valve but shows retrograde flow of urine into the ureters from the bladder. What is the most suitable initial investigation for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: CT kidneys ureters and bladder
Correct Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG)
Explanation:The preferred investigation for reflux nephropathy is micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG). MCUG is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing vesicoureteric reflux and associated reflux nephropathy. During the procedure, a catheter is inserted into the patient’s bladder, and a radio-opaque dye is injected. The patient then empties their bladder, and x-rays are taken to detect any reflux of the dye into the ureters, which confirms the diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux and reflux nephropathy.
CT kidneys ureters and bladder is an inappropriate investigation for reflux nephropathy, as it cannot detect this condition. This type of scan is typically used to diagnose kidney stones, not reflux nephropathy.
DMSA scan is not the first-line investigation for reflux nephropathy. While DMSA scans can be used to assess the extent of renal scarring caused by vesicoureteric reflux, they are not the preferred method for diagnosing this condition. DMSA scans are nuclear imaging scans, which makes them unsuitable as a first-line investigation for suspected reflux nephropathy.
Intravenous pyelography is not used to assess reflux nephropathy. This type of investigation is typically used to evaluate haematuria or flank pain.
Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux
Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.
The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.
To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.
Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has a skiing accident and sustains a blow to the occiput, resulting in a 5-minute concussion. Upon arrival at the emergency department, she presents with confusion and a GCS score of 10/15. A CT scan reveals no signs of acute bleeding or fractures, but there is evidence of edema and the early stages of mass effect. What is the optimal course of action?
Your Answer: Burr hole decompression
Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous mannitol
Explanation:Mannitol can be used to decrease the elevated ICP in the acute phase for this woman.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of never having had a menstrual period. During the examination, the GP observes normal external female genitalia and a vagina that terminates as a blind pouch. The absence of a uterus or ovaries is palpable, and there is no growth of pubic or axillary hair. What karyotype abnormality is likely to be present in this patient?
Your Answer: 47,XXY
Correct Answer: 46,XY
Explanation:Genotypes and Associated Syndromes
There are several genotypes that can lead to different syndromes.
The genotype 46,XY can cause androgen insensitivity syndrome, where the patient is genotypically male but has complete resistance to testosterone. This results in the absence of male internal genitalia.
The genotype 46,XX is associated with a phenotypically normal female.
45,XO causes Turner syndrome, which is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and streak gonads in girls.
47,XXY causes Klinefelter syndrome in males, which is characterized by atrophic testes, azoospermia, wide-set nipples, female distribution of body hair, and mild intellectual disability.
47,XYY causes tall stature, acne, and mild mental retardation in men. This genotype is also associated with aggressive behavior, but normal fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A female infant is presenting with dyspnea and cyanosis. The mother attempted to feed her but noticed milk coming out of her nose and difficulty breathing during feeding. Upon examination, the infant was found to be tachypneic and tachycardic with intercostal recession. A bulge was observed on the praecordium and an early systolic murmur was heard along the left sternal edge. The chest x-ray revealed cardiomegaly, a loss of the normal thymus shadow, and a right aortic notch. Blood tests were normal except for low corrected serum calcium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transposition of the great vessels
Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome
Explanation:DiGeorge Syndrome
DiGeorge syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a deletion of chromosomal region 22q11.2. It affects around 1 in 3000 live births and is characterized by a spectrum of disorders. The poor migration of neural crest cells to the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches is thought to be the cause of the midline abnormalities found in DiGeorge syndrome. These abnormalities include cardiac defects, abnormal facies, thymic hypoplasia, and hypocalcemia.
Characteristic facies develop as the child grows and include high broad noses, low set ears, small teeth, and narrow eyes. Other systems may also be affected, and cognitive and psychiatric problems are common but variable. Around 80% of patients have an associated cardiac defect, often of a conotruncal variety. Tetralogy of Fallot is also found, as are other defects such as ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects.
The diagnosis of DiGeorge syndrome can be difficult, but clinical features consistent with the diagnosis include abnormalities of heart sounds and features of cardiac failure or cyanosis. The chest x-ray helps with the diagnosis, and an echocardiogram and possibly high resolution contrast CT imaging would be helpful in these cases. The above example has a persistent truncus arteriosus, which is a failure to separate the aorta and the main pulmonary artery. This can lead to dyspnea, cyanosis, and cardiac failure.
In summary, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching and crawling sensation affecting his legs with an overwhelming urge to move them. His wife reports that he tosses and turns all night, often pacing the room, and constantly rubs his legs. Things only improve with the break of dawn. He seems tired all day as a consequence of the disturbed sleep at night. The only past medical history of note is diverticular disease, from which he has been troubled by periodic iron deficiency anaemia. Neurological examination is unremarkable.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 101 g/l (microcytic) 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 124 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Nocturnal cramps
Correct Answer: Secondary restless legs syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Restless Legs Syndrome
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by unpleasant sensations. Here, we discuss the differential diagnosis for RLS in a patient with iron deficiency anaemia.
Secondary Restless Legs Syndrome:
In this case, the patient’s RLS is secondary to iron deficiency anaemia. Iron deficiency can cause RLS, and correcting the anaemia with iron supplementation may improve symptoms. Other causes of secondary RLS include peripheral neuropathy.Primary Restless Legs Syndrome:
Primary RLS is a central nervous system disorder without known underlying cause. However, since this patient has a known precipitant for his RLS, it is more likely to be secondary.Alcohol Related Neuropathy:
Alcohol-related neuropathy typically causes pain and motor loss, which is not seen in this patient.Nocturnal Cramps:
Nocturnal cramps are unlikely to cause problems for the whole night and are typically short-lived.Diabetic Neuropathy:
Diabetic neuropathy can cause burning or stinging sensations, but this patient’s fasting glucose level makes a diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy unlikely.In conclusion, RLS can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying etiology. Treatment options include medications such as sedatives, anti-epileptic agents, and dopaminergic agents, as well as addressing any underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman was found to have constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome and frequently used over-the-counter laxatives. During a colonoscopy for rectal bleeding, her colon was noted to be abnormal and a biopsy was taken. What is the most probable histological result in this scenario?
Your Answer: Non-caseating granuloma in the mucosa
Correct Answer: Macrophages containing lipofuscin in the mucosa
Explanation:Differentiating Colonic Pathologies: A Brief Overview
Melanosis Coli: A Misnomer
Prolonged laxative use can lead to melanosis coli, characterized by brown or black pigmentation of the colonic mucosa. However, the pigment is not melanin but intact lipofuscin. Macrophages ingest apoptotic cells, and lysosomes convert the debris to lipofuscin pigment. The macrophages then become loaded with lipofuscin pigment, which is best identified under electron microscopy. Hence, some authors have proposed a new name – pseudomelanosis coli. Use of anthraquinone laxatives is most commonly associated with this syndrome.
Macrophages Containing Melanin
Melanosis coli is a misnomer. The pigment is not melanin. See the correct answer for a full explanation.
Non-Caseating Granuloma
Non-caseating granulomas are characteristic of Crohn’s disease microscopic pathology, as well as transmural inflammation. However, this patient is unlikely to have Crohn’s disease, because it normally presents with diarrhoea, abdominal pain, malaise/lethargy, and weight loss.
Non-Specific Colitis
Non-specific colitis is a general term which can be found in a variety of disorders. For example, laxative abuse can cause colonic inflammation. However, melanosis coli is a more specific answer.
Crypt Abscesses
Crypt abscesses are found in ulcerative colitis, as well as mucosal and submucosal inflammation. Normally, ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain, malaise/lethargy, and weight loss. This patient’s history of constipation and a single episode of bloody diarrhoea makes ulcerative colitis unlikely.
Understanding Colonic Pathologies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which nerve is affected when you experience tingling and numbness in the palmar surface of the ring and little finger after being struck on the elbow from behind over the medial side?
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The Ulnar Nerve and its Branches
The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and supply the upper limb. The medial cord of the brachial plexus carries fibers from C8 and T1 and has five branches, including the ulnar nerve and the medial root of the median nerve. The ulnar nerve is the larger of the two terminal branches and passes distally, anterior to the triceps, on the medial side of the brachial artery. It supplies articular branches to the elbow joint and innervates one and one-half flexor muscles in the forearm. The ulnar nerve continues into the hand, supplying most small muscles in the hand and skin of the hand medial to a line bisecting the fourth digit.
The ulnar nerve has no branches in the arm, but it has three side branches, including the medial pectoral nerve, medial cutaneous nerve of the arm, and the medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm. The ulnar nerve passes posterior to the medial epicondyle and medial to the olecranon to enter the forearm. It is superficial, easily palpable, and vulnerable to injury at this point, which is why it is commonly referred to as the funny bone. Striking the medial side of the elbow can cause symptoms such as tingling, numbness, and pain, as the nerve runs close to the medial epicondyle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man is being evaluated on the orthopaedic ward for fever and difficulty breathing. He underwent intramedullary nail surgery to repair a fracture in his right tibia a week ago. What is the probable reason for his pyrexia that occurred more than 5 days after the operation?
Your Answer: Blood transfusion
Correct Answer: Venous thromboembolism
Explanation:Venous thromboembolism typically manifests itself between 5 to 10 days after surgery. The presence of breathlessness increases the likelihood of a diagnosis of venous thromboembolism as opposed to cellulitis or urinary tract infection. Meanwhile, pulmonary atelectasis is more prone to occur in the earlier stages following surgery.
Post-operative pyrexia, or fever, can occur after surgery and can be caused by various factors. Early causes of post-op pyrexia, which typically occur within the first five days after surgery, include blood transfusion, cellulitis, urinary tract infection, and a physiological systemic inflammatory reaction that usually occurs within a day following the operation. Pulmonary atelectasis is also often listed as an early cause, but the evidence to support this link is limited. Late causes of post-op pyrexia, which occur more than five days after surgery, include venous thromboembolism, pneumonia, wound infection, and anastomotic leak.
To remember the possible causes of post-op pyrexia, it is helpful to use the memory aid of the 4 W’s: wind, water, wound, and what did we do? (iatrogenic). This means that the causes can be related to respiratory issues (wind), urinary tract or other fluid-related problems (water), wound infections or complications (wound), or something that was done during the surgery or post-operative care (iatrogenic). It is important to identify the cause of post-op pyrexia and treat it promptly to prevent further complications. This information is based on a peer-reviewed publication available on the National Center for Biotechnology Information website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A young adult with Graves' disease is started on carbimazole. What crucial adverse effect should be emphasized to the patient?
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Correct Answer: Agranulocytosis
Explanation:Side Effects of Thionamides in Graves’ Disease Treatment
Thionamides, such as carbimazole and methimazole, are commonly used in the treatment of Graves’ disease. However, they can cause several side effects that patients should be aware of.
Agranulocytosis is the most serious side effect, occurring in 1 in 500 patients. Patients should be warned to seek medical attention if they develop a sore throat, as they are at risk of neutropenic sepsis.
Diarrhoea can occur due to Graves’ disease itself and is not definitively associated with carbimazole use. Alopecia is a potential side effect, but it is less important to highlight than agranulocytosis.
Easy bruising is a rare side effect that is also less important to highlight than agranulocytosis. Finally, a skin rash is a potential side effect, but it is also less important to highlight than agranulocytosis.
In summary, while thionamides are effective in treating Graves’ disease, patients should be aware of the potential side effects, particularly agranulocytosis, and seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s with severe intermittent claudication undergoes an axillo-bifemoral bypass. Two days after the operation, they develop pain in the leg. Examination reveals a warm, erythaematous swelling in the groin.
What complication has occurred?Your Answer: The graft has blocked
Correct Answer: The graft has become infected
Explanation:Possible Complications of a Graft Procedure
Graft procedures are commonly performed to improve blood flow in patients with peripheral arterial disease. However, like any surgical intervention, there are potential complications that may arise. One possible complication is an infected graft, which can cause swelling and abscess formation. Another possibility is graft occlusion, which may occur if there is a surgical error and can lead to the recurrence of claudication symptoms. An anastomotic aneurysm is another rare but serious complication that may cause pulsatile swelling. Embolism is more likely to occur in patients with aneurysmal disease and can present with acute limb ischaemia or petechiae. Finally, an anastomotic leak is an extremely rare complication that may cause sudden pain and swelling at the site of the graft. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms after a graft procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his GP complaining of hand pain that worsens with activity and towards the end of the day. He has a medical history of psoriasis and is not currently taking any medications. During the examination, the doctor notes tender bony swellings in three DIP joints on both hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:The presence of Heberden’s nodes, which are bony swellings at the DIP joints, is a characteristic feature of osteoarthritis in the hand. Pain that worsens with activity, rather than rest, is also more indicative of OA than inflammatory arthritis. Psoriatic arthritis can cause swelling of the DIP joints, but the swelling is typically boggy rather than bony, and the pain tends to be worse in the morning and improve with activity. Reactive arthritis is unlikely to cause a DIP predominant arthritis, as it typically presents as a large joint lower limb oligoarthritis, and there is no recent history of infection. Rheumatoid arthritis does not typically affect the DIP joints.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Correct
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A 28-year-old teaching assistant presents with a lump that she discovered in her right breast. She performed a breast check after reading an article about breast cancer and was worried to find a lump in the right breast.
The lump is painless, and she has no other accompanying symptoms. She has no family history of breast cancer.
Upon examination, there is a smooth 2 cm × 2 cm lump in the upper quadrant of the right breast. There are no skin changes overlying the lump.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Refer to the Breast Clinic for further investigation
Explanation:Breast Lump Referral and Assessment Guidelines
The following guidelines should be followed when assessing and referring patients with breast lumps:
1. Refer patients aged 30 or over with an unexplained breast lump to the Breast Clinic using a Suspected Cancer Pathway referral (for an appointment within two weeks).
2. Patients aged 50 or over should also be referred if they have either discharge or retraction in one nipple only, or if they have any other changes of concern.
3. Non-urgent referral should be considered in patients under 30 who present with an unexplained breast lump.
4. The patient needs to be assessed further by a breast surgeon, who will decide if any further action is indicated.
5. Although the diagnosis may be a fibroadenoma, patients over 30 with an unexplained lump should be referred to the Breast Clinic for further investigation.
6. If a patient over 30 has an unexplained lump in the breast, they should be referred for further assessment on a two-week pathway.
7. Patients should be asked to return if they become symptomatic, regardless of whether they are having associated symptoms.
Breast Lump Referral and Assessment Guidelines
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea, abdominal distention, and unintentional weight loss. His investigations reveal low Hb, ferritin, and vitamin B12 levels, as well as complete villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia on endoscopy and biopsy. The IgA tissue transglutaminase level is also elevated. What dietary recommendations should be given to this patient?
Your Answer: Barley, corn, oats
Correct Answer: Corn, potatoes, rice
Explanation:Coeliac disease affects approximately 1% of the population and is managed through a gluten-free diet. As a healthcare professional, it is important to have a basic understanding of which foods contain gluten in order to advise patients on what to avoid and what is safe to eat. Safe foods for coeliac patients include corn, potatoes, and rice, as they do not contain gluten. On the other hand, foods such as barley and wheat should be avoided as they contain gluten. While oats may be tolerated by some patients, there is a risk of a reaction and should be approached with caution.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten is found in cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foods that contain gluten, including bread, pasta, pastry, and beer made from barley. However, whisky made from malted barley is safe to drink as the distillation process removes proteins like gluten. Patients with coeliac disease can consume gluten-free foods such as rice, potatoes, and corn.
To ensure compliance with a gluten-free diet, doctors may check tissue transglutaminase antibodies. Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which means they are more susceptible to infections. Therefore, all patients with coeliac disease are offered the pneumococcal vaccine and are recommended to have a booster every five years. Coeliac UK also recommends vaccinating against pneumococcal infection. The influenzae vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Managing coeliac disease with a gluten-free diet is crucial to prevent complications and improve quality of life. By avoiding gluten-containing foods and consuming gluten-free alternatives, patients with coeliac disease can manage their condition effectively. Vaccinations against infections are also essential to protect patients with coeliac disease, who may have a weakened immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after vomiting bright red blood multiple times over the past four hours. He has a history of alcohol abuse and has been diagnosed with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in the past. He currently consumes 4-5 pints of beer daily and has a poor compliance with his medication regimen, resulting in missed appointments and discharge from outpatient follow-up. On examination, he has dry mucous membranes, palmar erythema, and hepatomegaly. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.6°C, blood pressure 113/67 mmHg, respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 100 beats per minute, and SpO2 99% on room air. The patient is resuscitated with aggressive intravenous fluids, and the gastroenterology team is consulted. They suspect bleeding oesophageal varices and perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, which confirms the diagnosis. The varices are banded, and bleeding is significantly reduced.
Which medication is most likely to prevent further episodes of oesophageal varices in this 55-year-old patient?Your Answer: Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Medications for Secondary Prevention of Variceal Hemorrhage
Variceal hemorrhage is a serious complication of portal hypertension, which can be prevented by using certain medications. Non-selective beta-blockers like nadolol or propranolol are commonly used for secondary prevention of variceal hemorrhage. They work by blocking dilatory tone of the mesenteric arterioles, resulting in unopposed vasoconstriction and therefore a decrease in portal inflow. Selective beta-blockers are not effective in reducing portal hypertension. The dose of the non-selective beta-blocker should be titrated to achieve a resting heart rate of between 55 and 60 beats per minute. Ciprofloxacin is another medication used in prophylaxis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in high-risk patients. However, it is not effective in preventing variceal bleeding. Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole are used in the treatment of gastric reflux and peptic ulcer disease, but they have little impact on portal hypertension and are not indicated in the prophylaxis of variceal bleeding. Similarly, ranitidine, a histamine-2 receptor antagonist, is not likely to help prevent further episodes of variceal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male was given steroids after a kidney transplant. After two years, he experienced hip pain and difficulty walking. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Thrombotic Thrombocytopaenia purpura
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Avascular Necrosis and Its Causes
Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition that occurs when the blood supply to the bones is temporarily or permanently lost. This can be caused by various factors, including trauma or vascular disease. Some of the conditions that can lead to AVN include hypertension, sickle cell disease, caisson disease, and radiation-induced arthritis. Additionally, certain factors such as corticosteroid therapy, connective tissue disease, alcohol abuse, marrow storage disease (Gaucher’s disease), and dyslipoproteinaemia can also be associated with AVN in a more complex manner.
Of all the cases of non-traumatic avascular necrosis, 35% are associated with systemic (oral or intravenous) corticosteroid use. It is important to understand the causes of AVN in order to prevent and manage the condition effectively. By identifying the underlying factors that contribute to AVN, healthcare professionals can develop appropriate treatment plans and help patients manage their symptoms. With proper care and management, individuals with AVN can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are asked by a nurse to review a 47-year-old woman who is day one postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.3 °C. When you see her, she complains of shortness of breath and a non-productive cough.
What is the most likely postoperative complication seen in this patient?Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus (PE)
Correct Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:Post-operative Complications: Atelectasis
One of the most common post-operative complications is atelectasis, which typically presents on days 1-2 after surgery. This condition is often caused by positive pressure ventilation used during general anesthesia and can lead to pyrexia and shortness of breath. Treatment typically involves the use of salbutamol and saline nebulizers, as well as chest physiotherapy.
Other potential post-operative complications include wound infection, pulmonary embolus (PE), anastomotic leak, and hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). However, these conditions typically present at different times following surgery and may have different symptoms. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to monitor patients closely for any signs of post-operative distress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman, who is a nursing home resident, presents to the Emergency Department, complaining of a one-week history of a red swollen calf, nausea and ‘ants on her arm’. She is noted to be unsteady on her feet and cannot remember what medications she is on. Observations find her temperature is 38.6 °C, oxygen saturation 98%, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm and respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute.
What is the most likely cause of her hypotension?Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Red Swollen Calf and Signs of Infection
This patient is presenting with a red swollen calf, which is most likely caused by cellulitis. However, there are other possible diagnoses to consider based on the patient’s symptoms.
One possible diagnosis is sepsis, which is a life-threatening condition. The patient should be treated immediately using the Sepsis Six protocol.
Another possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolus with an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT), but this should be considered after ruling out sepsis and starting antibiotics.
Hypovolaemia is also a consideration due to the patient’s hypotension, but there is no history of blood or fluid loss.
Myocardial infarction is unlikely as the patient has no history of cardiac disease and did not present with any chest symptoms.
Anaphylaxis is not a possible cause given the lack of a causative agent and other features associated with anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents to the clinic for a routine check-up due to his recent development of poor near vision, without any history of eye trauma. He is tall, measuring at the 99th percentile for his age, and is performing well in school. During the medical history, he reports experiencing fatigue easily during physical activity. Upon examination, you observe that he has a high arched palate, pectus excavatum, and long arms. Additionally, you notice a bounding pulse and an early diastolic murmur at the left sternal edge during the cardiovascular exam. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Edwards syndrome
Correct Answer: Marfan syndrome
Explanation:Marfan syndrome is a connective tissue disease with cardiovascular complications such as aortic root dilation and aneurysm. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, family history, and genetic testing. The Ghent criteria are commonly used, with emphasis on cardiac manifestations. Echocardiographic surveillance is required, and prophylactic medications are used to reduce the chance of aortic root dilation. Aortic regurgitation may require surgery. Marfan syndrome is associated with non-cardiac features, and the clinical criteria can be found on the American National Marfan Foundation website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.
The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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