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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left side of her hand and forearm. Upon examination, there is no indication of muscle wasting, but there is slight weakness in finger adduction and flexion. Reflexes are normal. Sensory testing reveals a decrease in pinprick sensation in the tips of the ring and little fingers and over the hypothenar eminence.
      What is the location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: C6/C7 root lesion

      Correct Answer: Ulnar neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between nerve lesions: Ulnar neuropathy, C6/C7 root lesion, carpal tunnel syndrome, radial neuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy

      When assessing a patient with neurological symptoms in the upper limb, it is important to differentiate between different nerve lesions. An ulnar neuropathy will affect the small muscles of the hand, except for a few supplied by the median nerve. Sensory loss will be felt in the ring and little fingers, as well as the medial border of the middle finger.

      A C6/C7 root lesion will cause weakness in elbow and wrist flexion/extension, as well as finger extensors. Sensory loss will be felt in the thumb and first two fingers, but not the lateral border of the ring finger. Reflexes for biceps and triceps will be lost.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, causing atrophy of the thenar eminence and paraesthesiae in the lateral three and a half digits.

      A radial neuropathy will cause a wrist drop and sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the hand.

      Finally, a peripheral neuropathy will be symmetrical, with loss of sensation over both hands and weakness in distal muscles.

      By understanding the specific symptoms associated with each nerve lesion, healthcare professionals can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are worried about his walking. Up until four months ago, he was developing normally. However, they have now noticed he has difficulty getting up from the floor or climbing stairs. During the examination, the doctor observes Gowers’ sign and the boy has large, bulky calf muscles. His mother remembers having an uncle who died at a young age but cannot recall the cause of death. What is the probable reason for his walking difficulties?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Muscular Dystrophy and their Characteristics

      Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive muscle weakness and wasting. Here are some of the different types of muscular dystrophy and their characteristics:

      1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy: This is an X-linked myopathy that occurs in boys aged 3-5. It can present as delay in motor development or regression of previously obtained motor milestones. Treatment is with steroids and respiratory support. Average life expectancy is around 25 years.

      2. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy: This is the third most common muscular dystrophy and causes proximal upper limb weakness due to dysfunction of the scapula. Patients may also experience facial muscle weakness and progressive lower limb weakness. It typically presents in the third decade.

      3. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy: This is a rare muscular dystrophy characterised by weakness and progressive wasting of the lower leg and arm muscles. It is more common in boys, with typical onset in teenage years.

      4. Myotonic dystrophy: This is the most common inherited muscular dystrophy in adults. It is characterised by delayed muscle relaxation after contraction and muscle weakness. Patients may also experience myotonic facies with facial weakness, ptosis and cardiorespiratory complications.

      5. Polymyositis: This is an inflammatory myopathy in which patients experience proximal muscle weakness. It is more common in women in the fifth decade and is associated with underlying malignancy.

      It is important to identify the type of muscular dystrophy a patient has in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      50.5
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.

      On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.

      Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.

      A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:

      Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)

      CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)

      CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -

      CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.

      What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old patient, with learning difficulties and poorly controlled epilepsy, is admitted following...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old patient, with learning difficulties and poorly controlled epilepsy, is admitted following a tonic−clonic seizure which resolved after the administration of lorazepam by a Casualty officer. Twenty minutes later, a further seizure occurred that again ceased with lorazepam. A further 10 minutes later, another seizure takes place.
      What commonly would be the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Managing Status Epilepticus: Medications and Treatment Options

      Epilepsy is a manageable condition for most patients, but in some cases, seizures may not self-resolve and require medical intervention. In such cases, benzodiazepines like rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam are commonly used. However, if seizures persist, other drugs like iv phenytoin may be administered. Paraldehyde is rarely used, and topiramate is more commonly used for seizure prevention. If a patient experiences status epilepticus, informing the intensive care unit may be appropriate, but the priority should be to stop the seizure with appropriate medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      87.5
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  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hoarseness in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hoarseness in her voice for a few weeks. She underwent a thyroidectomy a decade ago. During the examination, the doctor observed decreased breath sounds in the left upper lobe. The patient has a smoking history of 75 pack years and quit five years ago. A chest X-ray revealed an opacity in the left upper lobe. Which cranial nerve is likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal

      Correct Answer: Vagus

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerves and their Functions: Analysis of a Patient’s Symptoms

      This patient is experiencing a hoarse voice and change in pitch, which is likely due to a compression of the vagus nerve caused by an apical lung tumor. The vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve and provides innervation to the laryngeal muscles. The other cranial nerves, such as the trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal, have different functions and would not be affected by a left upper lobe opacity. Understanding the functions of each cranial nerve can aid in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.9
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to a 3-month history of increasing confusion and unsteady gait. They have also noted intermittent jerking movements of both upper limbs. He was previously healthy and till the onset of symptoms, had continued to work part-time as a carpenter. On examination, he is not orientated to time, person or place. Myoclonic jerks of both upper limbs are noted together with non-specific cerebellar signs. CT brain and blood work-up for common causes of dementia is normal.
      Which of the following tests will help in diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI of the brain

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Suspected Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

      Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) is a rare and fatal neurological disorder that presents with rapidly progressive dementia and other non-specific neurological symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic procedures that are typically used when sCJD is suspected.

      Clinical diagnosis of sCJD is based on a combination of typical history, MRI findings, positive CSF 14-3-3 protein, and characteristic EEG findings. Definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy, but this is often not desirable due to the difficulty in sterilizing equipment.

      Renal biopsy is not indicated in cases of suspected sCJD, as the signs and symptoms described are not indicative of renal dysfunction. Echocardiography is also not necessary, as sCJD does not affect the heart.

      Muscle biopsy may be indicated in suspected myopathic disorders, but is not useful in diagnosing sCJD. Similarly, bone marrow biopsy is not of diagnostic benefit in this case.

      Overall, a combination of clinical history, imaging, and laboratory tests are used to diagnose sCJD, with biopsy reserved for cases where definitive diagnosis is necessary. It is important to note that there is currently no curative treatment for sCJD, and the disease is invariably fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      62
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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant medical or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.

      In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.

      The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 31-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic accompanied by his brother. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic accompanied by his brother. He reports experiencing episodes of confusion and amnesia that typically last for a few minutes. His brother has observed him suddenly stopping what he is doing and staring into space on several occasions. The patient presents a video of one such episode, which shows lip-smacking and chewing. He has no recollection of these incidents, but he has noticed the smell of burning and a strange sense of déjà vu on multiple occasions. There is no indication of tongue biting or limb jerking. The patient is in good health, but he admits to regularly using cannabis. What is the most probable cause of these occurrences?

      Your Answer: Absence seizures

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Temporal Lobe Epilepsy from Other Seizure Disorders and Cannabis Usage

      Temporal lobe epilepsy is a neurological disorder that can manifest in various ways, including somatosensory or special sensory aura, visual hallucinations, déjà vu, manual automatisms, postictal confusion, or amnesia. The underlying causes can be diverse, such as previous infections or head trauma, and require investigation through electroencephalogram (EEG) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Narcolepsy, on the other hand, is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, hypnagogic hallucinations, or cataplexy, and is not associated with the seizure activity typical of temporal lobe epilepsy. Absence seizures, which involve staring into space, do not feature the sensory aura or postictal confusion of temporal lobe epilepsy. Cannabis overuse may cause seizures and psychosis, but not the specific seizures described in this scenario. Non-epileptic seizures, which can have organic or psychogenic causes, may be a differential diagnosis, but the presence of classic symptoms such as sensory aura, lip-smacking, and déjà vu suggest that temporal lobe epilepsy is more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man in-patient on the gastroenterology ward is noted by the consultant...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man in-patient on the gastroenterology ward is noted by the consultant on the ward round to have features which raise suspicion of Parkinson’s disease. The consultant proceeds to examine the patient and finds that he exhibits all three symptoms that are commonly associated with the symptomatic triad of Parkinson’s disease.
      What are the three symptoms that are most commonly associated with the symptomatic triad of Parkinson’s disease?

      Your Answer: Shuffling gait, bradykinesia, resting tremor

      Correct Answer: Bradykinesia, rigidity, resting tremor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parkinson’s Disease: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement. Its classic triad of symptoms includes bradykinesia, resting tremor, and rigidity. Unlike other causes of Parkinsonism, Parkinson’s disease is characterized by asymmetrical distribution of signs, progressive nature, and a good response to levodopa therapy. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, drugs such as levodopa and dopamine agonists can improve symptoms. A thorough history and complete examination are essential for diagnosis, as there is no specific test for Parkinson’s disease. Other features that may be present include shuffling gait, stooped posture, and reduced arm swing, but these are not part of the classic triad. Understanding the symptoms and diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease is crucial for effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.5
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  • Question 10 - A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the outpatient clinic. She has no facial weakness, and examination of the eyes reveals a full range of movement. She reports no difficulties with vision, smell, taste, hearing or balance, and facial and pharyngeal sensation is normal. Her gag reflex is present and normal, and she can shrug her shoulders equally on both sides. Her speech is slurred and indistinct, and on protruding her tongue, it deviates to the right side and there is notable fasciculation and atrophy of the musculature on the right.
      With what are these findings most likely to be associated?

      Your Answer: Lower motor neurone lesion of the right glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Lower motor neurone lesion of the right cranial nerve XII

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lesions of Cranial Nerves Involved in Tongue Movement and Sensation

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      Fasciculation and atrophy indicate a lower motor neurone lesion. In this case, the tongue deviates to the side of the damage due to unopposed action of the genioglossus of the opposite side. The cranial nerve involved in motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is the hypoglossal cranial nerve (XII).

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage, in this case to the left.

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage. Even though the tongue does deviate to the right in this case, the presence of atrophy is seen in LMN and not in UMN.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      This would cause lower motor neurone symptoms (weakness and flaccidity) on the left side.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Glossopharyngeal Nerve:
      The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) provides the posterior third of the tongue with taste and somatic sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      115.6
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side, a positive Babinski sign on the left, and facial paralysis on the left lower two-thirds. However, the patient's speech is fluent and they have normal comprehension of verbal and written commands. Which cerebral artery is likely blocked?

      Your Answer: Right middle cerebral

      Correct Answer: Left lenticulostriate

      Explanation:

      Pure Motor Stroke

      A pure motor stroke is a type of stroke that results in a right hemiparesis, or weakness on one side of the body. This type of stroke is caused by a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere, which is likely to be a lacunar infarct. The symptoms of a pure motor stroke are purely motor, meaning that they only affect movement and not speech or comprehension.

      If the stroke had affected the entire territory of the left middle cerebral artery, then speech and comprehension would also be affected. However, in this case, the lesion is likely to be in the lenticulostriate artery, which has caused infarction of the internal capsule. This leads to a purely motor stroke, where the patient experiences weakness on one side of the body.

      the type of stroke a patient has is important for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. In the case of a pure motor stroke, rehabilitation and physical therapy may be necessary to help the patient regain strength and mobility on the affected side of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      806.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing ‘tingling’ in his wrists and hands at night, with the right side being more affected than the left. Upon examination, you observe atrophy of the thenar eminence of his right hand. He displays slight weakness in thumb opposition and reduced sensation to light touch on the palmar surface of his right hand on the lateral three digits and the lateral half of the fourth digit. Reproduction of his symptoms occurs when you tap immediately distal to the wrist joint of his right hand for about 30 s.
      Which nerve is implicated in this man’s condition?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in the Upper Limb

      Nerve injuries in the upper limb can cause a range of symptoms, including pain, weakness, and sensory loss. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:

      1. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (Median Nerve): Compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel can cause pain and loss of sensation in the lateral three-and-a-half digits. Symptoms are often worse at night and are more common in people who use their hands repetitively throughout the day.

      2. Radial Neuropathy (Radial Nerve): Compression of the radial nerve at the spiral groove of the humerus can cause weakness of wrist and finger extension, as well as elbow flexion. There may also be sensory loss on the dorsum of the hand.

      3. Ulnar Neuropathy (Ulnar Nerve): The ulnar nerve supplies sensation to the fifth digit and the medial aspect of the fourth digit, as well as the interosseous muscles of the hand. It is the second most commonly affected nerve in the upper limb after the median nerve.

      4. Musculocutaneous Nerve: Weakness of elbow flexion and sensory loss over the lateral forearm can occur with musculocutaneous nerve palsy.

      5. Long Thoracic Nerve: Injury to the long thoracic nerve affects the serratus anterior muscle, causing a winged scapula. This nerve is purely motor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination, his eye is turned down and out, and he has limited adduction, elevation, and depression of the eye, as well as ptosis. Additionally, his pupil is fixed and dilated. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Horner’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Third nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Common Cranial Nerve Palsies and Their Symptoms

      Cranial nerve palsies can cause a variety of symptoms depending on which nerve is affected. Here are some common cranial nerve palsies and their associated symptoms:

      Third Nerve Palsy: This affects the oculomotor nerve and causes the eye to be positioned downward and outward, along with ptosis (drooping eyelid) and mydriasis (dilated pupil).

      Sixth Nerve Palsy: This affects the abducens nerve and causes medial deviation of the eye.

      Fourth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trochlear nerve and causes the eye to look out and down, resulting in vertical or oblique diplopia (double vision). Patients may tilt their head away from the affected side to correct this.

      Horner’s Syndrome: This presents with miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis, and ipsilateral anhidrosis (lack of sweating on one side of the face).

      Fifth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for facial sensation and some motor functions related to biting and chewing. It does not affect the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.7
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  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs

      Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.

      On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 63-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of unilateral facial...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of unilateral facial droop. Upon examination, it is noted that she is unable to fully close her left eye. She has no significant medical history but reports having a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. Her husband is worried that she may have had a stroke, but there are no other focal neurological deficits found except for the isolated left-sided facial nerve palsy.
      What clinical finding would you anticipate during the examination?

      Your Answer: Loss of lacrimation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms and Differences from a Stroke

      Bell’s palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, causing facial weakness and loss of lacrimation. It is important to distinguish it from a stroke, which can have similar symptoms but different underlying causes. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      Loss of lacrimation: Bell’s palsy affects the parasympathetic fibers carried in the facial nerve, which are responsible for tear formation. This leads to a loss of lacrimation on the affected side.

      Loss of sensation: The trigeminal nerve carries the nerve fibers responsible for facial sensation, so there will be no sensory deficit in Bell’s palsy.

      Mydriasis: Bell’s palsy does not affect the fibers that supply the pupil, so there will be no mydriasis (dilation of the pupil).

      Facial weakness: Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion, which means that innervation to all the facial muscles is interrupted. This leads to left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing.

      Ptosis: Bell’s palsy affects the orbicularis oculi muscle, which prevents the eye from fully closing. This can lead to ptosis (drooping of the eyelid) and the need for eye patches and artificial tears to prevent corneal ulcers.

      By understanding these symptoms and differences from a stroke, healthcare professionals can provide accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment for patients with Bell’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old, fit and healthy woman develops severe headache, confusion and nausea on...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old, fit and healthy woman develops severe headache, confusion and nausea on day 5 of climbing Mount Kilimanjaro in her adventure trip. A doctor accompanying the group examines her and finds her to be tachycardic with a raised temperature. They diagnose high-altitude cerebral oedema.
      What is the most crucial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Descent

      Explanation:

      Treatment of High-Altitude Cerebral Oedema: The Importance of Rapid Descent

      High-altitude cerebral oedema is a serious medical emergency that can be fatal if not treated promptly. It is caused by swelling of the brain at high altitudes and requires immediate action. The most important management for this condition is rapid descent to lower altitudes. In severe cases, patients may need to be air-lifted or carried down as their symptoms prevent them from doing so themselves. While oxygen and steroids like dexamethasone can help improve symptoms, they are secondary to descent.

      Acetazolamide is a medication that can be used to prevent acute mountain sickness, but it is not effective in treating high-altitude cerebral oedema. Oxygen can also help reduce symptoms, but it is not a substitute for rapid descent.

      Rest is important in preventing acute mountain sickness, but it is not appropriate for a patient with high-altitude cerebral oedema. Adequate time for acclimatisation and following the principles of climb high, sleep low can reduce the risk of developing symptoms.

      In summary, rapid descent is the most important treatment for high-altitude cerebral oedema. Other interventions like oxygen and steroids can be helpful, but they are not a substitute for immediate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      97
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  • Question 17 - A 92-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Outpatients with worsening speech difficulties and...

    Incorrect

    • A 92-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Outpatients with worsening speech difficulties and difficulty swallowing. Upon examination, she exhibits nasal speech, tongue fasciculations, and a lack of gag reflex. The diagnosis given is bulbar palsy. Where is the lesion responsible for this condition typically located?

      Your Answer: Corticobulbar pathways between the cerebral cortex and brainstem

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerves IX, X, XI and XII

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Bulbar Palsy: A Guide to Cranial Nerves and Brain Lesions

      Bulbar palsy is a condition that results from lower motor neuron lesions in the medulla oblongata or lesions of cranial nerves IX – XII outside the brainstem. To better understand the causes of bulbar palsy, it is important to know the functions of these cranial nerves.

      Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII are responsible for various functions. The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) provides taste to the posterior third of the tongue and somatic sensation to the middle ear, the posterior third of the tongue, the tonsils, and the pharynx. The vagus nerve (X) innervates muscles of the larynx and palate. The accessory nerve (XI) controls the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, while the hypoglossal nerve (XII) controls the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue.

      It is important to note that lesions of cranial nerves V (trigeminal) and VII (facial) are not responsible for the signs and symptoms of bulbar palsy. A lesion of the facial nerve would cause Bell’s palsy, while lesions of the trigeminal nerve can cause lateral medullary syndrome.

      A cerebral cortex lesion would cause upper motor neuron signs and symptoms, which are not specific to bulbar palsy. On the other hand, a lesion in the corticobulbar pathways between the cerebral cortex and the brainstem is found in pseudobulbar palsy. This condition typically presents with upper motor neuron signs and symptoms and can occur as a result of demyelination or bilateral corticobulbar lesions.

      Lastly, it is important to note that disorders of the substantia nigra are found in Parkinson’s disease, not bulbar palsy. Understanding the various causes of bulbar palsy can help with proper diagnosis and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of bacterial meningitis. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was normal. The patient complains of ongoing headache, photophobia and fever. A lumbar puncture (LP) is to be performed.
      Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to performing an LP?

      Your Answer: Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) opening pressure ranges from 14 to 24 mmH2O

      Correct Answer: A concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Lumbar Puncture in Patients with Suspected Meningitis

      Lumbar puncture (LP) is a diagnostic procedure that involves the insertion of a needle into the spinal canal to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. LP is an essential tool in the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, but it should be performed with caution and only in appropriate patients. Here are some guidelines for LP in patients with suspected meningitis:

      Concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken to calculate the CSF: plasma glucose ratio, which is a key distinguishing feature of bacterial meningitis.

      Normal CSF opening pressure ranges from 7-18 mmH2O.

      Verbal consent for the procedure is sufficient, but written consent should be obtained from the patient if possible.

      LP is typically performed in the left lateral position, but it may be performed in the sitting position or with imaging guidance if necessary.

      Neuroimaging is required before an LP only in patients with a clinical suspicion of raised intracranial pressure, especially in immunocompromised patients.

      Possible complications of LP include post-dural puncture headache, transient paraesthesiae, spinal haematoma or abscess, and tonsillar herniation. These should be discussed with the patient before the procedure.

      LP should not be performed in patients with an acutely raised CSF pressure, as it may cause brainstem herniation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.9
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 3-year history of postural...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 3-year history of postural instability, frequent falls and cognitive decline. He exhibits hypomania, bradykinesia of the right upper limb, brisk reflexes, especially on the right-hand side, occasional myoclonus and a shuffling gait. He is unable to imitate basic hand gestures with his right hand. During the examination, the patient displays some sensory loss and apraxia.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Correct Answer: Corticobasal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders and Their Characteristics

      Corticobasal Syndrome: This rare progressive neurological disorder is characterized by asymmetrical cortical syndrome, gait unsteadiness, falls, parkinsonism, apraxia, and alien limb syndrome. Unfortunately, there is no known treatment for this disorder, and the prognosis is poor, with a life expectancy of 6-8 years from diagnosis.

      Supranuclear Gaze Palsy: This Parkinson’s plus syndrome presents with symmetrical parkinsonism, slow saccades (especially vertical), and a limitation of eye movements.

      Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease: While this disease may present as asymmetrical at onset, it tends to involve both sides after 6 years. The presence of cortical signs such as hyperreflexia, apraxia, and myoclonus would be atypical.

      Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common pathology in patients with cognitive decline, but it presents with prominent cognitive decline, and basal ganglia features are atypical.

      Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD): This rapidly progressive disorder leads to akinetic mutism and death within a year, with a median of 6 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      95.5
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  • Question 20 - In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Complications of Measles and Other Causes of Neck Stiffness

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to various complications. These include respiratory problems such as croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonitis. Measles can also cause conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis, which occurs in 1 in 1000-2000 cases. Additionally, measles can make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia.

      Apart from measles, other conditions can also cause neck stiffness. For instance, the involvement of the cervical spine in the arthritis of Still’s disease may lead to neck stiffness. Tuberculosis (TB) may cause tuberculous meningitis or Pott’s disease, both of which can cause neck stiffness. Another recognized cause of neck stiffness with an extended neck is retropharyngeal abscess.

      In summary, measles can lead to various complications, including respiratory problems, conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis. It can also make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia. Other conditions such as Still’s disease, TB, and retropharyngeal abscess can also cause neck stiffness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      217.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right eye. He has a regular heart rate of 88 beats per minute in sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable test to diagnose the condition?

      Your Answer: Echocardiography

      Correct Answer: Carotid duplex ultrasonography

      Explanation:

      Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis

      Carotid duplex ultrasonography is an investigation used to identify significant stenosis or occlusive lesions in the internal carotid artery caused by atherosclerosis. This condition can lead to amaurosis fugax, temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. Although carotid duplex is not arranged directly from primary care, healthcare professionals should have an of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and be able to discuss this with patients in more general terms, including indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      266.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the ionic event that occurs just before the creation of fusion...

    Incorrect

    • What is the ionic event that occurs just before the creation of fusion pores during neurotransmitter synaptic release?

      Your Answer: Action potential

      Correct Answer: Calcium ion influx

      Explanation:

      The Process of Synaptic Neurotransmitter Release

      Synaptic neurotransmitter release is a complex process that involves the depolarization of the presynaptic membrane, opening of voltage-gated calcium channels, influx of calcium ions, and binding of vesicle-associated membrane proteins (VAMPs). This causes a conformational change that leads to the fusion of the neurotransmitter vesicle with the presynaptic membrane, forming a fusion pore. The neurotransmitter is then released into the synaptic cleft, where it can bind to target receptors on the postsynaptic cell.

      The postsynaptic density, which is an accumulation of specialized proteins, ensures that the postsynaptic receptors are in place to bind the released neurotransmitters. The only correct answer from the given options is calcium ion influx, as it is essential for the process of synaptic neurotransmitter release. this process is crucial for how neurons communicate with each other and how neurotransmitters affect behavior and cognition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      95.6
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following indicates a psychiatric illness rather than an organic brain...

    Correct

    • Which of the following indicates a psychiatric illness rather than an organic brain disorder?

      Your Answer: A family history of major psychiatric illness

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Psychiatric Disease from Organic Brain Disease

      Psychiatric diseases such as depression and schizophrenia have distinct features that differentiate them from organic brain diseases like dementia. While loss of short term memory and advanced age are more typical of organic brain disease, a family history is particularly associated with depressive illness and schizophrenia. It is important to distinguish between psychiatric and organic brain diseases in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.

      According to Prof Anton Helman, a psychiatric emergency can be due to either disease or psychological illness. In order to determine the cause, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary. Medical mimics of psychotic symptoms can often be mistaken for psychiatric disease, making it crucial to consider all possible causes.

      The NHS England’s Mental Health in Older People A Practice Primer emphasizes the importance of recognizing mental health issues in older individuals. While organic brain diseases are more common in this population, psychiatric diseases can also occur and should not be overlooked. By the typical features of psychiatric disease and differentiating them from organic brain disease, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      61.5
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  • Question 24 - What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure?

      Your Answer: C4 and bifurcation of the carotid artery

      Explanation:

      Anatomy Landmarks and Openings

      The human body has several anatomical landmarks and openings that are important to know for medical professionals. The carotid artery, which supplies blood to the brain, bifurcates at the level of C4. The manubriosternal joint, also known as the angle of Louis, is located at the T4/5 intervertebral disk level. The aortic opening, which allows the aorta to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T12. The caval opening, which allows the inferior vena cava to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T8. Finally, the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm is located at T10. To remember the order of these openings, medical professionals often use the mnemonic Voice Of America – Vena cava at T8, Oesophagus at T10, and Aorta at T12. these landmarks and openings is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.7
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  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old female presents to the hospital with a sudden and severe occipital...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female presents to the hospital with a sudden and severe occipital headache while decorating at home. She experienced vomiting and a brief loss of consciousness. Upon examination, her Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score is 15, and she has a normal physical exam except for an abrasion on her right temple. She is afebrile, has a blood pressure of 146/84 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 70 beats/minute. What investigation would be the most beneficial?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      The sudden onset of a severe headache in a young woman, accompanied by vomiting and loss of consciousness, is indicative of subarachnoid haemorrhage. The most appropriate diagnostic test is a CT scan of the brain to detect any subarachnoid blood. However, if the CT scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed as it can detect approximately 10% of cases of subarachnoid haemorrhage that may have been missed by the CT scan. It is important to diagnose subarachnoid haemorrhage promptly as it can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying the symptoms and conducting the appropriate diagnostic tests to ensure timely treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      64.8
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  • Question 26 - Which nerve is most commonly injured in conjunction with shoulder dislocation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve is most commonly injured in conjunction with shoulder dislocation?

      Your Answer: Ulnar

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The Vulnerability of the Shoulder Joint

      The shoulder joint is the most mobile joint in the body, but this comes at a cost of vulnerability. It is prone to dislocation more than any other joint due to its unrestricted movement. The shoulder stability is maintained by the glenohumeral joint capsule, the cartilaginous glenoid labrum, and the muscles of the rotator cuff. Anterior dislocations are the most common, accounting for over 95% of dislocations, while posterior and inferior dislocations are less frequent. Superior and intrathoracic dislocations are extremely rare.

      Injuries to the axillary nerve occur in 5% to 18% of dislocations. The nerve may heal on its own or require surgical exploration and nerve grafting. The shoulder joint vulnerability highlights the importance of proper care and attention to prevent dislocations and other injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.8
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  • Question 27 - A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor finds evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.

      What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-recessive fashion; all cases are familial

      Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      59.8
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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and taken to the Emergency Department of a local hospital. Physical examination revealed a single horizontal stab wound located on the skin 4 mm to the right of the umbilicus.
      In which dermatome was the stab wound located?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Dermatomes and Pain Referral in the Abdomen

      The human body is divided into dermatomes, which are areas of skin that are mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. In the abdomen, the T8-T12 dermatomes are important to understand as they can help identify the source of pain referral.

      T8 dermatome is located at the epigastrium, which is approximately at the level of the subcostal margin. T9 dermatome lies just superior to the umbilicus, while T10 dermatome lies at the level of the umbilicus. Pain originating from the small bowel may be referred to the T10 dermatome.

      T11 dermatome lies just inferior to the umbilicus, and pain originating from the large bowel may be referred to the T11-T12 area. T12 dermatome lies at the suprapubic level, and pain originating from the large bowel may also be referred to the T11-T12 area.

      It is important to note that confusion between the dermatomes and the spinal vertebrae level at which structures lie should be avoided. Understanding the dermatomes and pain referral patterns in the abdomen can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.4
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a complaint of headache for the past few months. She reports feeling a tight band-like sensation all over her head, which is present most days but has not interfered with her work. She experiences fatigue due to the headache but denies any associated nausea or vomiting. She occasionally takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, which provide some relief. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic tension headache

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are most consistent with chronic tension headache, which is a common cause of non-pulsatile headache that affects both sides of the head. There may be tenderness in the scalp muscles. Treatment typically involves stress relief measures such as massage or antidepressants. Chronic headache is defined as occurring 15 or more days per month for at least 3 months. Other types of headache, such as cluster headache, trigeminal neuralgia, and migraine, have more specific features that are not present in this case. Medication overuse headache is unlikely given the patient’s occasional use of paracetamol and ibuprofen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      155.8
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  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very keen to get back to work as he is self-employed.
      Following a stroke, what is the minimum time that patients are advised not to drive a car for?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions After Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, it is important to be aware of the driving restrictions set by the DVLA. For at least 4 weeks, patients should not drive a car or motorbike. If the patient drives a lorry or bus, they must not drive for 1 year and must notify the DVLA. After 1 month of satisfactory clinical recovery, drivers of cars may resume driving, but lorry and bus drivers must wait for 1 year before relicensing may be considered. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required. Following stroke or single TIA, a person may not drive a car for 2 weeks, but can resume driving after 1 month if there has been a satisfactory recovery. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe driving and prevent further health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.7
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  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed seizure, where her hands and feet shook and she bit her tongue. This is the second such event in the past 6 months and she was due to see a neurologist in a month’s time. Computed tomography (CT) brain was normal. Electroencephalogram (EEG) was normal, albeit not performed during the ‘seizure’ activity. Her doctor believes she has epilepsy and is keen to commence anticonvulsive therapy. She is sexually active and uses only condoms for protection.
      Which one of the following drugs would be most suitable for this particular patient?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medications and Pregnancy: Considerations for Women of Childbearing Age

      When it comes to treating epilepsy in women of childbearing age, there are important considerations to keep in mind. Lamotrigine is a good choice for monotherapy, but it can worsen myoclonic seizures. Levetiracetam is preferred for myoclonic seizures, while carbamazepine has an increased risk of birth defects. Sodium valproate is the first-line agent for adults with generalized epilepsy, but it has been linked to neural tube defects in babies. Phenytoin is no longer used as a first-line treatment, but may be used in emergency situations. Clinicians should be aware of these risks and consult resources like the UK Epilepsy and Pregnancy Registry to make informed decisions about treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      41.1
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  • Question 32 - A 60-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner for investigation of a...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner for investigation of a headache. On further questioning, she reports a 2- to 3-week history of worsening left-sided pain which is most noticeable when she brushes her hair. She also reports that, more recently, she has noticed blurred vision in her left eye. On examination, she has stiffness of her upper limbs, as well as tenderness to palpation over her left scalp and earlobe. Her past medical history is notable for hypothyroidism.
      Which is the diagnostic test of choice?

      Your Answer: Arterial biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Temporal arthritis: Understanding Their Role in Diagnosis

      Temporal arthritis is a condition that affects middle-aged women with a history of autoimmune disease. The most likely diagnostic test for this condition is a biopsy of the temporal artery, which shows granulomatous vasculitis in the artery walls. Treatment involves high-dose steroid therapy to prevent visual loss. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis is unlikely to be helpful, while CT brain is useful for acute haemorrhage or mass lesions. MRA of the brain is performed to assess for intracranial aneurysms, while serum ESR supports but does not confirm a diagnosis of temporal arthritis. Understanding the role of these diagnostic tests is crucial in the accurate diagnosis and treatment of temporal arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.1
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  • Question 33 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of urinary symptoms such as...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of urinary symptoms such as hesitancy and incomplete emptying. He lives independently and has primary progressive multiple sclerosis. He recently recovered from a UTI and upon investigation, it was found that he has heavy colonisation of Proteus. An ultrasound bladder scan reveals 400 ml of residual volume. What is the most suitable long-term management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Muscle relaxant baclofen

      Correct Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation

      Explanation:

      Management of Urinary Symptoms in Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis often leads to a neurogenic bladder, causing urinary retention and associated symptoms such as incomplete bladder emptying, urgency, discomfort, and recurrent UTIs. The following are some management options for urinary symptoms in multiple sclerosis:

      1. Intermittent self-catheterisation: This is the preferred method for ambulant and independent patients. After training, the patient self-catheterises a few times a day to ensure complete bladder emptying, relieving symptoms and reducing the risk of recurrent UTIs. A muscarinic receptor antagonist, such as oxybutynin, can also be used.

      2. Suprapubic catheterisation: This is only indicated when transurethral catheterisation is contraindicated or technically difficult, such as in urethral injury or obstruction, severe benign prostatic hypertrophy or prostatic carcinoma.

      3. Continuous low-dose trimethoprim: There is no current guidance for the use of prophylactic antibiotics to prevent UTIs in multiple sclerosis. The aim is to primarily relieve the retention.

      4. Long-term urethral catheterisation: If symptoms progress and become bothersome for the patient, despite behavioural methods, medication and/or intermittent self-catheterisation, then a long-term catheter can be the next best option. Additionally, in cases where patients are not ambulant or have a disability that would prevent them from being able to self-catheterise, a long-term catheter may be a more desirable choice of management of urinary symptoms.

      5. Muscle relaxant baclofen: Baclofen is not used in the treatment of urinary retention. It is an antispasmodic used in multiple sclerosis to relieve contractures and spasticity.

      Management Options for Urinary Symptoms in Multiple Sclerosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 34 - A 29-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with his friend after collapsing...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with his friend after collapsing during a soccer match. He fell to the ground suddenly, losing consciousness. Witnesses reported jerking movements of his limbs and incontinence before the episode self-terminated after a few minutes. He has a history of psoriasis and takes methotrexate once weekly. He is urgently referred to a Neurology Clinic for review. Physical examination is normal, and investigations reveal no abnormalities except for a slightly elevated TSH level. What is the most likely cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate toxicity

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of a First Tonic-Clonic Seizure

      A first tonic-clonic seizure can be a challenging diagnosis to make, and further investigation is required to determine the underlying cause. While an EEG can confirm seizure activity in around 70% of cases, it is not a definitive test and a negative result does not rule out epilepsy. However, given the history of a tonic-clonic seizure, epilepsy is the most likely diagnosis.

      Other potential causes, such as head injury, hypothyroidism, methotrexate toxicity, and psychogenic seizure, should also be considered. Head injury is a risk factor for epilepsy, but there is no history of head injury in this scenario. Hypothyroidism is not clinically or biochemically present in the patient. Methotrexate toxicity may precipitate seizures in those with previously controlled epilepsy, but it is not a significant risk factor for first fits. Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures are an important differential, but the presence of incontinence and the characteristics of the seizure make it less likely.

      Overall, a thorough investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of a first tonic-clonic seizure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.8
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  • Question 35 - A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He complains of loss of sensation over the dorsal aspect of his right forearm and hand for the last few days. His mother also states that he cannot extend his fingers and wrist after she pulled her son’s right hand gently while crossing a street 4 days ago. He had pain in his right elbow at that time but did not see a doctor immediately. On examination, there is loss of sensation and muscle weakness over the extensor surface of his right forearm and hand.
      Which of the following nerves is most likely to be injured in this patient?

      Your Answer: Middle subscapular nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Movement and Sensation

      Radial nerve: Nursemaid’s elbow is a common injury in children that can cause damage to the deep branch of the radial nerve. This can result in wrist drop due to paralysis of the extensors of the forearm and hand.

      Long thoracic nerve: The long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle, which is used in all reaching and pushing movements. Injury to this nerve causes winging of the scapula.

      Musculocutaneous nerve: Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve causes a loss of elbow flexion, weakness in supination, and sensation loss on the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      Axillary nerve: The axillary nerve supplies the deltoid muscle and teres minor. Injury to this nerve presents with flattening of the deltoid muscle after injury, loss of lateral rotation, abduction of the affected shoulder due to deltoid muscle weakness, and loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the arm.

      Middle subscapular nerve: The middle subscapular nerve supplies the latissimus dorsi, which adducts and extends the humerus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 36 - A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month history of changed behaviour. He has been hoarding newspapers and magazines around the house and refuses to change his clothes for weeks on end. His wife has noticed that he tells the same stories repeatedly, often just minutes apart. He has a new taste for potato crisps and has gained 4 kg in weight. On examination, his mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is 27/30.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Dementia and Their Characteristics

      Dementia is a term used to describe a group of symptoms that affect memory, thinking, and social abilities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of dementia and their features:

      1. Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)
      FTD is characterized by a lack of attention to personal hygiene, repetitive behavior, hoarding/criminal behavior, and new eating habits. Patients with FTD tend to perform well on cognitive tests, but may experience loss of fluency, lack of empathy, ignoring social etiquette, and loss of abstraction.

      2. Diogenes syndrome
      Diogenes syndrome, also known as senile squalor syndrome, is characterized by self-neglect, apathy, social withdrawal, and compulsive hoarding.

      3. Lewy body dementia
      Lewy body dementia is characterized by parkinsonism and visual hallucinations.

      4. Alzheimer’s dementia
      Alzheimer’s dementia shows progressive cognitive decline, including memory loss, difficulty with language, disorientation, and mood swings.

      5. Vascular dementia
      Vascular dementia is characterized by stepwise cognitive decline, usually with a history of vascular disease.

      Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristics can help with early detection and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      137
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  • Question 37 - A 67-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of cough, blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of cough, blood in his sputum, and a 3- to 4-cm right-sided supraclavicular lymph node. During the examination, you observe that the right side of his face is dry, and his right eyelid is drooping. What is the most probable location of the patient's pathology?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic chain

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Nerves Involved in Horner Syndrome

      Horner syndrome is a condition characterized by drooping of the eyelids (ptosis) and dryness of the face (anhidrosis), which is caused by interruption of the sympathetic chain. When a patient presents with these symptoms, an apical lung tumor should always be considered. To better understand this condition, it is important to know which nerves are not involved.

      The phrenic nerve, which supplies the diaphragm and is essential for breathing, does not cause symptoms of Horner syndrome when it is affected. Similarly, injury to the brachial plexus, which supplies the nerves of the upper limbs, does not cause ptosis or anhidrosis. The trigeminal nerve, responsible for sensation and muscles of mastication in the face, and the vagus nerve, which regulates heart rate and digestion, are also not involved in Horner syndrome.

      By ruling out these nerves, healthcare professionals can focus on the sympathetic chain as the likely culprit in cases of Horner syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 38 - A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her concerned son. He tells you that his mother had got lost when returning home from shopping yesterday, a trip that she had been carrying out without problems for over 20 years. He also notes that she has had a general decline in her memory function over the past year or so, frequently repeating stories, and not being able to remember if she had eaten a meal or not that day when questioned. The son would like to know if his mother could be tested for Alzheimer’s disease, a condition that also affected her maternal grandmother.

      Deposition of which of the following is associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease?

      Your Answer: Amyloid precursor protein (APP)

      Explanation:

      Proteins Associated with Neurodegenerative Diseases

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Several proteins have been identified as being associated with these diseases. For example, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and tau proteins. Lewy body disease and Parkinson’s disease are associated with alpha-synuclein, while fronto-temporal dementia and ALS are associated with TARDBP-43 and tau protein. Additionally, Huntington’s disease is associated with huntingtin. Other changes, such as bunina bodies and Pick bodies, are also seen in certain neurodegenerative diseases and can serve as markers of neuronal degeneration. Understanding the role of these proteins in disease pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 39 - A 35-year-old female patient, who smokes and is taking the combined oral contraceptive...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient, who smokes and is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, reports experiencing pain and swelling in her right calf for the past two days. She also presents with sudden onset weakness on her right side. Upon examination, she displays a dense hemiplegia, with upper motor neuron signs and weakness in her right hand. Additionally, evidence of a deep vein thrombosis in her right calf is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paradoxical embolism

      Explanation:

      Possible Embolic Cerebrovascular Accident in a Patient with History of DVT and Contraceptive Pill Use

      This patient presents with symptoms suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), including calf pain and swelling, and has a history of using the combined oral contraceptive pill, which increases the risk of DVT. However, the sudden onset of right-sided hemiplegia indicates the possibility of an embolic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) caused by an embolus passing through the heart and crossing over to the systemic side of circulation via an atrial septal defect (ASD) or ventricular septal defect (VSD).

      It is important to note that pulmonary embolism would not occur in this case without an ASD. While an aneurysm or hemorrhagic stroke are possible, they are less likely given the patient’s history of DVT. A tumor would also have a more chronic symptomatology, further supporting the possibility of an embolic CVA in this patient. Further diagnostic testing and treatment are necessary to confirm and address this potential complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 40 - You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her family believes she is becoming more forgetful. She has also noticed a tremor in her right hand and is generally ‘slowing down’. She takes amlodipine for hypertension and a daily aspirin of her own volition. She has recently been treated for a urinary tract infection by her general practitioner. She also complains of confusion and seeing spiders climbing the walls of her bedroom. She has no other urinary complaints. Her abbreviated mental test score is 5/10. Lying and standing blood pressures are 138/76 and 127/70, respectively.
      Select the most likely diagnosis from the list below.

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia (LBD)

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Dementia Types: Lewy Body Dementia, Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Disease, Vascular Dementia, and Multisystem Atrophy

      Dementia is a complex condition that can have various underlying causes. Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is characterized by cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, rapid eye movement (REM) sleep disorders, and autonomic disturbance. Treatment for LBD focuses on symptom management, including the use of cholinesterase inhibitors and antidepressants.

      Parkinson’s disease, on the other hand, typically presents with bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, but not cognitive impairment in the initial stages. Autonomic dysfunction is also expected in Parkinson’s disease, which is not evident in the given case. Alzheimer’s disease may cause forgetfulness and slowing down, but visual hallucinations are not typical. Vascular dementia usually presents with a stepwise deterioration that correlates with small cerebrovascular events, but not visual hallucinations. Multisystem atrophy is a rare condition characterized by parkinsonism with autonomic dysfunction, but it is less likely in this case due to the lack of orthostatic hypotension.

      Therefore, distinguishing between different types of dementia is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 41 - What are the possible reasons for having a small pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the possible reasons for having a small pupil?

      Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning

      Correct Answer: Pontine haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Causes of Small and Dilated Pupils

      Small pupils can be caused by various factors such as Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, drugs, and poisons like opiates and organophosphates. Horner’s syndrome is a condition that affects the nerves in the face and eyes, resulting in a small pupil. Aging can also cause the pupils to become smaller due to changes in the muscles that control the size of the pupils. Pontine hemorrhage, a type of stroke, can also lead to small pupils. Argyll Robertson pupil is a rare condition where the pupils do not respond to light but do constrict when focusing on a near object. Lastly, drugs and poisons like opiates and organophosphates can cause small pupils.

      On the other hand, dilated pupils can also be caused by various factors such as Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, drugs, and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition where one pupil is larger than the other and reacts slowly to light. Third nerve palsy is a condition where the nerve that controls the movement of the eye is damaged, resulting in a dilated pupil. Drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol can also cause dilated pupils. It is important to identify the cause of small or dilated pupils as it can be a sign of an underlying medical condition or poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old male complains of a burning sensation in his feet that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male complains of a burning sensation in his feet that has been gradually increasing over the past six months. Upon examination, his cranial nerves and higher mental function appear normal, as do his bulk, tone, power, light touch and pinprick sensation, co-ordination, and reflexes in both his upper and lower limbs. What condition could these clinical findings be indicative of?

      Your Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Correct Answer: Small fibre sensory neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Neuropathy and its Different Types

      Neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves and can cause a burning sensation. This sensation is typical of a neuropathy that affects the small unmyelinated and thinly myelinated nerve fibres. However, a general neurological examination and reflexes are usually normal in this type of neuropathy unless there is coexisting large (myelinated) fibre involvement. On the other hand, neuropathy that affects the large myelinated sensory fibres generally causes glove and stocking sensory loss and loss of reflexes.

      There are different types of neuropathy, and conditions in which the small fibres are preferentially affected in the early stages include diabetes and amyloidosis. In the later stages, however, the neuropathy in these conditions also affects large fibres. Another type of neuropathy is associated with Sjögren’s syndrome, which is a pure sensory neuropathy (ganglionopathy). the different types of neuropathy and their symptoms can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 43 - A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) 45 minutes after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) 45 minutes after a collision with a heavy-goods vehicle. Immediately after the collision she was unconscious for three minutes. Since regaining consciousness, she appears dazed and complains of a headache, nausea and ringing in her ears, and she is aversive to light and sound. Prior to examination she had an episode of vomiting.
      An ABCDE assessment is performed and the results are below:
      Airway Patent, able to speak
      Breathing Respiratory rate (RR) 18 per min, SaO2 97% on room air, normal and symmetrical chest expansion, normal percussion note bilaterally, normal vesicular breath sounds throughout
      Circulation Heart rate (HR) 97/min, blood pressure (BP) 139/87 mmHg, capillary refill time (CRT) <2 s, ECG with sinus tachycardia, normal heart sounds without added sounds or murmurs
      Disability AVPU, pupils equal and reactive to light, Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) = 13 (E4, V4, M5), no signs suggestive of basal skull fracture
      Exposure Temperature 36.8 °C, multiple bruises but no sites of external bleeding, abdomen is soft and non-tender
      Which of the following would be appropriate in the further management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Intubation and ventilation

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan within eight hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Head Injury: Guidelines for CT Scan, Intubation, Neurosurgery Referral, Discharge, and Fluid Resuscitation

      Head injuries require prompt and appropriate management to prevent further complications. Evidence-based guidelines recommend performing a CT head scan within eight hours for adults who have lost consciousness temporarily or displayed amnesia since the injury, especially those with risk factors such as age >65 years, bleeding or clotting disorders, dangerous mechanism of injury, or more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia. If the patient has a GCS of <9, intubation and ventilation are necessary. Immediate referral to neurosurgery is not required unless there is further deterioration or a large bleed is identified on CT scan. Patients with reduced GCS cannot be discharged from the ED and require close monitoring. Fluid resuscitation with crystalloid, such as normal saline and/or blood, is crucial to avoid hypotension and hypovolaemia, while albumin should be avoided due to its association with higher mortality rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 44 - Which of the following characteristics is absent in a corticospinal lesion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is absent in a corticospinal lesion?

      Your Answer: Masked facies

      Correct Answer: Cogwheel rigidity

      Explanation:

      Neurological Features of Extrapyramidal and Pyramidal Involvement

      Cogwheel rigidity is a characteristic of extrapyramidal involvement, specifically in the basal ganglia. This type of rigidity is commonly observed in individuals with parkinsonism. On the other hand, pyramidal (corticospinal) involvement is characterized by increased tone, exaggerated spinal reflexes, and extensor plantar responses. These features are distinct from Cogwheel rigidity and are indicative of a different type of neurological involvement. the differences between extrapyramidal and pyramidal involvement can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 45 - A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change that has been going on for a year. He has become loud, sexually flirtatious, and inappropriate in social situations. He has also been experiencing difficulties with memory and abstract thinking, but his arithmetic ability remains intact. There is no motor impairment, and his speech is relatively preserved. Which area of the brain is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Pick’s Disease: A Rare Form of Dementia

      Pick’s disease is a type of dementia that is not commonly seen. It is characterized by the degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. The symptoms of this disease depend on the location of the lobar atrophy, with patients experiencing either frontal or temporal lobe syndromes. Those with frontal atrophy may exhibit early personality changes, while those with temporal lobe atrophy may experience aphasia and semantic memory impairment.

      Pathologically, Pick’s disease is associated with Pick bodies, which are inclusion bodies found in the neuronal cytoplasm. These bodies are argyrophilic, meaning they have an affinity for silver staining. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, EEG readings for Pick’s disease are relatively normal.

      To learn more about Pick’s disease, the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke provides an information page on frontotemporal dementia. this rare form of dementia can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 46 - A 75-year-old left-handed man with permanent atrial fibrillation comes to the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old left-handed man with permanent atrial fibrillation comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty finding words and weakness in his right arm and leg. The symptoms appeared suddenly and have persisted for 24 hours. He reports no changes in his vision.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient ischaemic attack

      Correct Answer: Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Strokes: PACS, TACS, TIA, POCS, and LACS

      Strokes can be classified into different types based on the location and severity of the brain damage. Here are some key features of five common types of strokes:

      Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS): This type of stroke affects a part of the brain’s anterior circulation, which supplies blood to the front of the brain. Symptoms may include motor and speech deficits, but not hemianopia (loss of vision in one half of the visual field).

      Total anterior circulation syndrome stroke (TACS): This type of stroke affects the entire anterior circulation, leading to a combination of motor deficit, speech deficit, and hemianopia.

      Transient ischaemic attack (TIA): This is a temporary episode of neurological symptoms caused by a brief interruption of blood flow to the brain. Symptoms typically last no longer than 24 hours.

      Posterior circulation syndrome stroke (POCS): This type of stroke affects the posterior circulation, which supplies blood to the back of the brain. Symptoms may include brainstem symptoms and signs arising from cranial nerve lesions, cerebellar signs, or ipsilateral motor/sensory deficits.

      Lacunar syndrome stroke (LACS): This type of stroke is caused by a small infarct (tissue damage) in the deep brain structures, such as the internal capsule. Symptoms may include isolated motor or sensory deficits.

      Understanding the different types of strokes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively. If you or someone you know experiences any symptoms of a stroke, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 47 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes symmetrical muscle weakness and notes that the child has only recently learned to walk. The girl requires assistance from her hands to stand up. The Paediatrician suspects that she may have Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and orders additional tests.
      What is the protein that is missing in DMD?

      Your Answer: Dystrophin

      Explanation:

      Proteins and Genetic Disorders

      Dystrophin, Collagen, Creatine Kinase, Fibrillin, and Sarcoglycan are all proteins that play important roles in the body. However, defects or mutations in these proteins can lead to various genetic disorders.

      Dystrophin is a structural protein in skeletal and cardiac muscle that protects the muscle membrane against the forces of muscular contraction. Lack of dystrophin leads to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), a debilitating and life-limiting condition.

      Collagen is a protein found in connective tissue and defects in its structure, synthesis, or processing can lead to Ehlers Danlos syndrome, a genetic connective-tissue disorder.

      Creatine kinase is an enzyme released from damaged muscle tissue and elevated levels of it are seen in children with DMD.

      Fibrillin is a protein involved in connective tissue formation and mutations in the genes that code for it are found in Marfan syndrome, a connective tissue disorder.

      Sarcoglycans are transmembrane proteins and mutations in the genes that code for them are involved in limb-girdle muscular dystrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 48 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye and visual loss. Upon examination, the doctor observes visual loss to counting fingers on the right, right eye proptosis, conjunctival injection, and acute tenderness on palpation. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 12 mm/hour. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Giant cell arthritis

      Correct Answer: Carotid cavernous fistula

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Acute Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Management

      Carotid Cavernous Fistula: This condition presents with sudden painful visual loss, proptosis, conjunctival injection, and a firm, tender, and pulsatile eyeball. It is caused by an abnormal communication between the carotid artery and venous system within the cavernous sinus. Endovascular surgery is the recommended management to obliterate the fistula.

      Giant Cell arthritis: This is a medical emergency that is uncommon in individuals under 50 years old. Symptoms include acute visual loss, tenderness over the temporal artery, jaw claudication, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of >50 mm/hour. Diagnosis is confirmed through a temporal artery biopsy.

      Optic Neuritis: This condition presents as painful visual loss but is not associated with proptosis or changes to the conjunctiva. Optic disc pallor is a common symptom.

      Keratoconus: This is a degenerative disorder that causes distortion of vision, which may be painful, due to structural changes within the cornea. It does not present acutely.

      Acute Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis: Symptoms include retro-orbital pain, ophthalmoplegia (often complete, with involvement of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), and loss of sensation over the ophthalmic division on the trigeminal nerve ipsilateral. Horner’s syndrome may also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 49 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 50 - A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness....

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness. Her conscious state is formally assessed. She withdraws to a painful stimulus and is mumbling incoherent words randomly, irrespective of people attempting to speak to her in conversation, and her eyes open only in response to painful stimuli.
      What is the breakdown of this patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer: Motor response 4/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 3/4

      Correct Answer: Motor response 4/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale: Interpreting a Patient’s Level of Consciousness

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It consists of three scores: best motor response, best verbal response, and eye opening response. Each score is given a value out of a maximum score, and the total score is used to determine the patient’s level of consciousness.

      In this case, the patient’s motor response is a score of 4 out of 6, indicating a withdrawal response to pain. The verbal response is a score of 3 out of 5, indicating mumbling words or nonsense. The eye opening response is a score of 2 out of 4, indicating opening to pain. Therefore, the patient’s total GCS score is 9, indicating a comatose state.

      It is important to understand the GCS and how to interpret the scores in order to properly assess a patient’s level of consciousness and provide appropriate medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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