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Question 1
Correct
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A 34-year-old man presents with loss of vision in his left eye due to an episode of optic neuritis. Upon history taking, it was noted that he has a history of multiple sclerosis. Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?
Your Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:A lesion in the optic nerve causes ipsilateral monocular visual loss.Optic neuritis is an inflammatory demyelination of the optic nerve that is highly associated with multiple sclerosis. The two most common symptoms of optic neuritis are vision loss and eye pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Hepatitis B vaccination?
Your Answer: A peak titre above 10 mIU/ml is regarded as a good response
Correct Answer: The vaccine should be stored between 2 and 8 degrees Centigrade
Explanation:Hepatitis B vaccine should be stored at 35°-46° F (2°-8° C) and should not be frozen.There is no association between hepatitis B vaccination and Guillain-Barre syndrome. Infection with the bacterium Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for GBS. People can also develop GBS after having the flu or other infections (such as cytomegalovirus and Epstein Barr virus).Hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from initial concentration of surface antigen.To ensure adequate immunity, anti-HBs (HBsAb) titres may be checked 4-8 weeks following the last shot of the hepatitis B vaccine series.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Tiredness, night sweats, and easy bruising are symptoms of a 58-year-old woman. Splenomegaly is observed during the examination.Which of the following diagnoses is the SINGLE MOST LIKELY?
Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
Explanation:CML is a myeloproliferative disorder characterised by an abnormal pluripotent haemopoietic stem cell. A cytogenetic abnormality known as the Philadelphia chromosome, which results from a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22, causes more than 80% of cases of CML.CML is a disease that develops slowly over several years. This is known as the ‘chronic stage.’ This stage is usually asymptomatic, and 90 percent of patients are diagnosed at this point, with the disease being discovered frequently as a result of a routine blood test. During this stage, the bone marrow contains less than 10% immature white cells (blasts).When CML cells expand, symptoms typically begin to appear. The ‘accelerated stage’ is what it’s called. Approximately 10% of people are diagnosed at this point. During this stage, between 10% and 30% of blood cells in the bone marrow are blasts. During this stage, common clinical features include:Fatigue and exhaustionNight sweats and feverDistension of the abdomenPain in the left upper quadrant (splenic infarction)Splenomegaly (commonest examination finding)HepatomegalyBruising is simple.Gout is a type of arthritis that affects (rapid cell turnover)Hyperviscosity is a condition in which the viscosity of (CVA, priapism)A small percentage of patients experience a ‘blast crisis’ (blast stage). More than 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are immature blast cells at this stage. Patients with severe constitutional symptoms (fever, weight loss, bone pain), infections, and bleeding diathesis typically present at this stage.In CML, laboratory findings include:White cell count is abnormally high (often greater than 100 x 109/l).Increased number of immature leukocytes causes a left shift.Anaemia that is mild to moderately normochromic and normocytic.Platelets can be low, normal, or elevated, and the Philadelphia chromosome can be found in > 80% of patients. Serum uric acid and ALP levels are frequently elevated. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs), such as imatinib and dasatinib, are the current mainstay of CML treatment. Allogenic bone marrow transplantation is now only used in cases where TKIs have failed to work.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct with regards to immunoglobulin?
Your Answer: Each immunoglobulin molecule has one kappa light chain and one delta light chain.
Correct Answer: The isotype of immunoglobulin is determined by the heavy chain.
Explanation:The composition of immunoglobulin molecules is two identical heavy and two identical light chains. These chains are linked by disulphide bridges and are each have highly variable regions which give the immunoglobulin its specificity. In addition, they have constant regions and there is virtual complete correspondence in amino acid sequence in all antibodies of a given isotype. Five isotypes of immunoglobulin exist – these are IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE and IgD. They are determined by the heavy chain (gamma, alpha, mu, epsilon or delta respectively). The light chains are either kappa or lambda.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 5
Correct
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A young man develops an infection spread via aerosol transmission.Which of these organisms is commonly spread by aerosol transmission?
Your Answer: Measles virus
Explanation:Aerosols are airborne particles less than 5 µm in size, containing infective organisms that usually cause infection of the upper or lower respiratory tract.Examples of organisms commonly spread by aerosol transmission are:Measles virusVaricella zoster virusMycobacterium tuberculosisThe following table summarises the various routes of transmission with example organisms:Route of transmissionExample organismsAerosol (airborne particle < 5 µm)Mycobacterium tuberculosisVaricella zoster virusMeasles virusHepatitis A and Rotavirus are spread by the faeco-oral route.Neisseria gonorrhoea is spread by sexual route.Staphylococcus aureus is spread by direct contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the anterior triangle of the neck.Which of the following muscles is most likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid
Correct Answer: Sternothyroid
Explanation:The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid musclesOrgans: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid glandArteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteriesVeins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veinsNerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerveThe posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.Contents:Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodesNerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Regarding postural hypotension, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Impaired autonomic activity in the elderly accounts for the greater likelihood of postural hypotension.
Correct Answer: Postural hypotension usually causes a reflex bradycardia.
Explanation:On standing from a prone position, gravity causes blood to pool in veins in the legs. Central venous pressure (CVP) falls, causing a fall in stroke volume and cardiac output (due to Starling’s law) and thus a fall in blood pressure. Normally this fall in BP is rapidly corrected by the baroreceptor reflex which causes venoconstriction (partially restoring CVP), and an increase in heart rate and contractility, so restoring cardiac output and blood pressure. Impaired autonomic nervous activity in the elderly accounts for the greater likelihood of postural hypotension. Any symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision or syncope is due to a transient fall in cerebral perfusion that occurs before cardiac output and mean arterial pressure (MAP) can be corrected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You examine a 48-year-old patient who has had proximal weakness, hypertension, and easy bruising in the past. She exhibits considerable face fullness and truncal obesity on examination. You diagnose her with Cushing's syndrome.When would her random cortisol level likely be abnormal?Â
Your Answer: 0900 hrs
Correct Answer: 2400 hrs
Explanation:Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep.The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles acts as an extensor of the shoulder joint?
Your Answer: Coracobrachialis
Correct Answer: Teres major
Explanation:The glenohumeral joint possesses the capability of allowing an extreme range of motion in multiple planes.Flexion – Defined as bringing the upper limb anterior in the sagittal plane. The usual range of motion is 180 degrees. The main flexors of the shoulder are the anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, and pectoralis major. Biceps brachii also weakly assists in this action.Extension—Defined as bringing the upper limb posterior in a sagittal plane. The normal range of motion is 45 to 60 degrees. The main extensors of the shoulder are the posterior deltoid, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.Internal rotation—Defined as rotation toward the midline along a vertical axis. The normal range of motion is 70 to 90 degrees. The internal rotation muscles are the subscapularis, pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, teres major, and the anterior aspect of the deltoid.External rotation – Defined as rotation away from the midline along a vertical axis. The normal range of motion is 90 degrees. Primarily infraspinatus and teres minor are responsible for the motion.Adduction – Defined as bringing the upper limb towards the midline in the coronal plane. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major are the muscles primarily responsible for shoulder adduction.Abduction – Defined as bringing the upper limb away from the midline in the coronal plane. The normal range of motion is 150 degrees. Due to the ability to differentiate several pathologies by the range of motion of the glenohumeral joint in this plane of motion, it is essential to understand how different muscles contribute to this action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 10
Correct
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Thyroid cancer has spread to the regional lymph nodes of a patient as seen in a staging CT scan. The lymph from the thyroid gland will drain directly to which of the following nodes?
Your Answer: Deep lateral cervical lymph nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the thyroid gland involves the lower deep cervical, prelaryngeal, pretracheal, and paratracheal nodes. The paratracheal and lower deep cervical nodes, specifically, receive lymphatic drainage from the isthmus and the inferior lateral lobes. The superior portions of the thyroid gland drain into the superior pretracheal and cervical nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 11
Correct
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A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a fence causing it to bleed. Upon applying pressure for a few minutes, the bleeding stops. Which one of the following physiological components of the blood is responsible for the primary haemostasis reaction, such as in this case?
Your Answer: Platelet plug formation
Explanation:Haemostasis is your body’s defence against an injury that causes bleeding. It stops bleeding in three main steps: 1) Primary haemostasis – formation of a weak platelet plug- The primary reaction of the body is to cause local vasoconstriction at the site of injury and decrease blood flow to the affected area- the release of cytokines and inflammatory markers lead to adhesion of platelets and aggregation at the site of injury forming a platelet plug- the injured vessel wall has exposed subendothelial collagen that releases von Willebrand factor Any damage to the vessel wall causes the release of the Von Willebrand factor, which is necessary for platelet adhesion. Tissue Thromboplastin is also released, which activates the coagulation pathway, a component of secondary haemostasis. The coagulation cascade ultimately results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.2) Secondary haemostasis 3) Fibrinolysis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following serology results is consistent with chronic hepatitis B infection:
Your Answer: HBsAg positive and anti-HBc IgG positive
Explanation:Disease state vs SerologyAcute hepatitis: BHBsAg, HBeAg, anti-HBc IgMChronic hepatitis B (low infectivity): HBsAg (>6/12), anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgGChronic hepatitis B (high infectivity): HBsAg (>6/12), HBeAg, anti-HBc IgGCleared infection: Anti-HBs, anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgGVaccinated: Anti-HBs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily transmitted by which of the following routes:
Your Answer: Oral-faecal route
Correct Answer: Inhalation of spores
Explanation:Cryptococcus neoformans is found in bird droppings and transmission is by inhalation of spores, thus the lung is the primary site of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body:
Your Answer: Renal glomeruli
Correct Answer: Blood-brain barrier
Explanation:Continuous capillaries, found in the skin, lungs, muscles and CNS, are the most selective with low permeability, as junctions between the endothelial cells are very tight, restricting the flow of molecules with MW > 10,000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the occipital lobe:
Your Answer: Homonymous hemianopia
Explanation:Homonymous hemianopia is a visual field defect involving either the two right or the two left halves of the visual fields of both eyes. It is caused by lesions of the retrochiasmal visual pathways, ie, lesions of the optic tract, the lateral geniculate nucleus, the optic radiations, and the cerebral visual (occipital) cortex
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 16
Correct
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The following statements about leukotrienes as chemical mediators of the acute inflammatory response are all true EXCEPT?
Your Answer: They decrease vascular permeability
Explanation:Leukotrienes increases (not decrease) vascular permeability during acute inflammation.All the other statements are correct
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke. Which of the following is considered the best diagnosis for the case presented above?
Your Answer: Lateral pontine syndrome
Correct Answer: Medial medullary syndrome
Explanation:Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?
Your Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate
Correct Answer: Nicardipine
Explanation:End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is:
Your Answer: Decreased risk of anaerobic infection
Correct Answer: Minimisation of scar tissue formation
Explanation:Primary wound healing, or healing by first intention, occurs within hours of repairing a full-thickness surgical incision. This surgical insult results in the mortality of a minimal number of cellular constituents. Healing by first intention can occur when the wound edges are opposed, the wound is clean and uninfected and there is minimal loss of cells and tissue i.e. surgical incision wound. The wound margins are joined by fibrin deposition, which is subsequently replaced by collagen and covered by epidermal growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Wound Healing
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Question 20
Correct
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Aside from the inability to extend the leg above the knee, which of the following clinical symptoms should you anticipate seeing in a patient who had a pelvic and right leg injury as well as femoral nerve damage?
Your Answer: Loss of sensation over the anterior thigh
Explanation:The femoral nerve runs down the front of the leg from the pelvis. It gives the front of the thigh and a portion of the lower leg sensation. Extension of the leg at the knee joint, flexion of the thigh at the hip are produced by muscles that is primarily innervated by the femoral nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Regarding the heart sounds in the cardiac cycle, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: The first heart sound is heard in early systole.
Correct Answer: The third heart sound is caused by filling of an abnormally stiff ventricle in atrial systole.
Explanation:Heart Sound – Phase of Cardiac Cycle – Mechanical Event:First heart sound – Start of systole – Caused by closure of the atrioventricular (mitral & tricuspid) valvesSecond heart sound – End of systole – Caused by closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonary) valvesThird heart sound – Early diastole – Caused by rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles during the ventricular filling phaseFourth heart sound – Late diastole – Caused by filling of an abnormally stiff ventricle in atrial systole
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A patient has suffered a nerve injury that has caused weakness of the pectoralis minor muscle.Pectoralis minor receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Lateral pectoral nerve
Correct Answer: Medial pectoral nerve
Explanation:Pectoralis minor is a thin, triangular muscle that is situated in the upper chest. It is thinner and smaller than pectoralis major. It is innervated by the medial pectoral nerve.The origin of pectoralis minor is the 3rdto the 5thribs, near the costal cartilages. It inserts into the medial border and superior surface of the coracoid process of the scapula.The main action of pectoralis minor is to draw the scapula inferiorly and anteriorly against the thoracic wall. This serves to stabilise the scapula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Regarding the accessory nerve, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: The accessory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and the trapezius muscle.
Correct Answer: Accessory nerve palsy results in the inability to nod the head.
Explanation:Accessory nerve palsy results in inability to shrug the shoulders and to rotate the head to look at the opposite side to the lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The rhythm strip is shown in the diagram below. Defibrillation has already been attempted three times on the patient. You intended to administer amiodarone, but your department has informed you that it is not available.In these circumstances, if amiodarone is not available, which of the following drugs is recommended by the ALS guidelines?
Your Answer: Procainamide
Correct Answer: Lidocaine
Explanation:If amiodarone is unavailable in VF/pVT arrests, lidocaine at a dose of 1 mg/kg can be used instead, according to the latest ALS guidelines. If amiodarone has already been given, no lidocaine should be given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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Regarding haemoglobin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Haemoglobin synthesis occurs in mature erythrocytes.
Explanation:Haemoglobin is composed of four polypeptide globin chains each with its own iron containing haem molecule. Haem synthesis occurs largely in the mitochondria by a series of biochemical reactions commencing with the condensation of glycine and succinyl coenzyme A under the action of the key rate-limiting enzyme delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthase. The globin chains are synthesised by ribosomes in the cytosol. Haemoglobin synthesis only occurs in immature red blood cells.There are three types of haemoglobin in normal adult blood: haemoglobin A, A2 and F:- Normal adult haemoglobin (HbA) makes up about 96 – 98 % of total adult haemoglobin, and consists of two alpha (α) and two beta (β) globin chains. – Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2), a normal variant of adult haemoglobin, makes up about 1.5 – 3.5 % of total adult haemoglobin and consists of two α and two delta (δ) globin chains.- Foetal haemoglobin is the main Hb in the later two-thirds of foetal life and in the newborn until approximately 12 weeks of age. Foetal haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin. Red cells are destroyed by macrophages in the liver and spleen after , 120 days. The haem group is split from the haemoglobin and converted to biliverdin and then bilirubin. The iron is conserved and recycled to plasma via transferrin or stored in macrophages as ferritin and haemosiderin. An increased rate of haemoglobin breakdown results in excess bilirubin and jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman diagnosed with hyperthyroidism has her T 4 levels grossly elevated and she is started on carbimazole.A release of which of the following from the hypothalamus is inhibited by increase in T4 levels?
Your Answer: Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
Explanation:A negative feedback mechanism involving the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis controls the release of T3 and T4 into the bloodstream. When metabolic rate is low or serum T3 and/or T4 levels are decrease, this triggers the secretion of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.TRH goes to the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). An increased serum level of T3 and T4 inhibits the release of TRH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 29 year old woman is unable to invert her foot after sustaining an injury to her leg playing water-polo. Which of the following nerves are most likely damaged:
Your Answer: Tibial and deep fibular nerve
Explanation:Inversion of the foot is primarily produced by the tibialis anterior and the tibialis posterior muscles, innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the tibial nerve respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 28
Correct
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Red cell protein expression is induced by which of the following pathogens:
Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:Plasmodium falciparum induces the expression of red cell protein, making cerebral malaria more severe. Bacteria may invade a host passively through micro traumata or macro traumata in the skin or mucosa. On the other hand, bacteria that invadethrough intact mucosa first, adhere to this anatomical barrier, then activelybreach it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles
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Question 29
Correct
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Adrenocorticotropic hormone release from the anterior pituitary is stimulated by which of the following:
Your Answer: Corticotropin-releasing hormone
Explanation:ACTH secretion is stimulated by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding bias, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Increasing the sample size reduces bias.
Correct Answer: Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair.
Explanation:Bias is the term used to describe an error at any stage of the study that was not due to chance. Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair. Bias may be introduced at all stages of the research process, from study design, through to analysis and publication. Bias can create a spurious association or mask a real association.Good research design can reduce the effect of bias (e.g. blinding, randomisation) but they cannot eliminate it completely. Increasing the sample size does not reduce bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Study Methodology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
