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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that has been black for a few weeks. He suspects that he may have injured the nail while working, but he expected the discoloration to have disappeared by now. Upon examination, you notice a dark stripe running along the length of the nail plate of his left thumb. The adjacent nail fold is also dark.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral (2 week wait) to dermatology

      Explanation:

      If a new pigmented line appears in a nail, especially if there is damage to the nail, it is important to be highly suspicious of subungual melanoma and seek urgent referral. Subungual melanoma is a type of acral-lentiginous melanoma that can be mistaken for trauma. It typically presents as a longitudinal, pigmented band on the nail, with wider bands being more likely to be melanoma. Hutchinson’s sign, where the pigment extends onto the nail fold, may also be present. The lesion may also cause ulceration and destruction of the nail-plate.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did...

    Correct

    • A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did not show any serious side-effects of the drug. Select from the list the most appropriate method for identifying any unanticipated adverse drug reactions.

      Your Answer: Case report

      Explanation:

      The Yellow Card Scheme: Reporting Adverse Drug Reactions

      Before a drug is released to the general public, it undergoes trials to assess its effectiveness and safety. However, these trials may only involve a limited number of patients, which means that rare side effects may not be identified. To address this issue, the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) and the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) in the UK operate the Yellow Card Scheme.

      The Yellow Card Scheme is a system that collects information from both health professionals and the general public on suspected side effects of a medicine. Its success depends on people’s willingness to report adverse drug reactions. This scheme is particularly useful for identifying rare or long-term side effects of a drug, as the number of people taking the drug is much greater than in the trials.

      To report a suspected adverse drug reaction, individuals can fill out a Yellow Card online at http://yellowcard.mhra.gov.uk/. By reporting these reactions, individuals can help ensure the safety of drugs on the market and protect the health of the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the surgery with her friend seeking an abortion....

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the surgery with her friend seeking an abortion. She has missed her last three periods and took a pregnancy test which came out positive. Her boyfriend is also 16 years old. It is probable that she will need a surgical termination of pregnancy due to her gestation. However, she doesn't wish to inform her parents. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Explore why she doesn't want her parents to know, discuss her options and if she wishes refer her for a termination of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Although she is a minor, she can provide consent for medical intervention but cannot refuse it. Her right to confidentiality must be respected regardless of her age.

      If she decides to undergo a surgical termination of pregnancy, it will require hospitalization, and it is unlikely that she can keep it a secret from her parents. Therefore, it is best to address this issue sensitively from the beginning. If a doctor has ethical objections to abortion, they should refer her to another doctor.

      Referring her for counseling will only cause further delay in an already overdue abortion.

      As previously discussed, the patient’s confidentiality must be upheld.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic. His fasting...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic. His fasting blood glucose levels range from 7-10, and his HbA1c result is 64 mmol/mol (normal range 20-42) despite following a diabetic diet and exercising regularly. He has a body mass index of 30. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for suboptimal Glucose Control in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes is at risk of micro- and macrovascular complications due to suboptimal glucose control, as evidenced by an HbA1c of greater than 48 mmol/mol despite lifestyle intervention. The initial treatment of choice is metformin, which aims to achieve a HbA1c of less than 48 mmol/mol. Metformin reduces insulin resistance and cardiovascular risk, as demonstrated in the UKPDS study.

      If metformin is inappropriate, DPPIV inhibitors such as sitagliptin may be considered. These medications achieve glycaemic control without significant weight gain and do not promote hypoglycaemia. Pioglitazone or an SU may also be used as alternative treatment options where metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. It is important to reach target HbA1c levels to reduce the risk of complications associated with type 2 diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman receives a Levonorgestrel-intrauterine system for birth control on the 6th...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman receives a Levonorgestrel-intrauterine system for birth control on the 6th day of her menstrual cycle. How many more days of contraception does she need?

      Your Answer: 7

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      No additional contraception is needed if an LNG-IUS or Levonorgestrel-IUS is inserted on day 1-7 of the cycle. However, if it is inserted outside this timeframe, 7 days of additional contraception is required. Since the patient is currently on day 6 of her cycle, there is no need for extra precautions.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The coil was implanted 4 years ago to treat dysfunctional uterine bleeding. She has not had any menstrual periods for 3 years and is uncertain if it should be taken out. She is currently on elleste solo 1 mg to alleviate menopausal symptoms and was informed that the Mirena was a component of her hormone replacement therapy. What is the duration of the Mirena coil's license for this purpose?

      Your Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      The license for using Mirena as endometrial protection for women on oestrogen-only HRT is limited to 4 years. Similarly, intrauterine contraceptives are licensed for a duration of 3 years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old patient presents with episodes of blurred vision. The vision is blurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient presents with episodes of blurred vision. The vision is blurred in both eyes. This has been going on for a few weeks but seems worse over the last couple of days. She has not had any headaches. Her eyes look normal and are not red or injected. Visual acuity using a Snellen chart is 6/4. When a pinhole occluder is used to assess her vision, her vision improves.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to neurology

      Correct Answer: Suggest she attends her optician for a vision assessment

      Explanation:

      Using a pinhole occluder can help identify if refractive errors are causing a patient’s blurred vision. Refractive errors are the most common cause of blurred vision, and a pinhole occluder can partially improve symptoms. However, visual acuity may be reduced when using a Snellen chart. If a patient complains of blurred vision, they should see an optician for an assessment and may need an updated prescription.

      There are no indications in the patient’s history that suggest an acute Intracranial cause for their symptoms. Therefore, there is no need for an urgent CT head or referral to neurology. However, if the patient experiences sudden loss of vision or other associated symptoms such as limb weakness or changes in speech, it may indicate an acute intracranial or vascular cause that requires urgent investigation.

      Triptan-based medications are typically used to treat migraines, which can present with blurred vision as an ‘aura’ before the onset of a headache. However, this is not the case for this patient.

      Vitamin A deficiency can cause dry skin and hair, inability to gain weight, and skin sores. It may also lead to reduced night vision or decreased ability to see in the dark. However, there is no evidence that supplementing the patient’s vitamin A would improve their blurred vision. It is best for the patient to be assessed by an optician first.

      Blurred vision refers to a loss of clarity or sharpness in one’s vision. It is a common symptom experienced by patients with long-term refractive errors. However, the term can have different meanings for different patients and doctors, so it is important to assess for other associated symptoms such as visual loss, double vision, and floaters.

      There are various causes of blurred vision, including cataracts, retinal detachment, age-related macular degeneration, acute angle closure glaucoma, optic neuritis, and amaurosis fugax. To determine the underlying cause, a visual acuity test using a Snellen chart, pinhole occluders, visual fields, and fundoscopy may be conducted.

      Management of blurred vision depends on the suspected underlying cause. If the onset is gradual, corrected by a pinhole occluder, and there are no other associated symptoms, an optician review may be the next step. However, patients with other associated symptoms such as visual loss or pain should be seen by an ophthalmologist urgently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 6-month-old girl is brought to clinic by her father, who complains she...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl is brought to clinic by her father, who complains she is ‘having difficulty breathing’. A harsh inspiratory stridor is heard. You suspect that she may have tracheomalacia.
      Which of the following would support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: The child has a barking cough

      Correct Answer: Stridor which worsens when the child is supine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Laryngomalacia: A Common Condition in Young Babies

      Laryngomalacia, also known as congenital laryngeal stridor, is a condition that affects many young babies. It is caused by delayed maturation of the cartilage in the larynx, which leads to collapse of the supraglottic larynx during inspiration. This results in a noisy respiration and an inspiratory stridor, which is typically more noticeable when the baby is in a supine position, feeding, crying, sleeping, or during intercurrent illness.

      While there may be gastro-oesophageal reflux, the child is otherwise well and there is no associated upper respiratory discharge. However, infants with laryngomalacia may have difficulty coordinating the ‘suck-swallow-breathe’ sequence needed for feeding due to their airway obstruction.

      It is important to note that respiratory distress is uncommon, and if there is tachypnoea, it is only mild and there is no reduction in oxygen saturation. Additionally, a barking cough is not a typical symptom of laryngomalacia. The classic symptom is inspiratory stridor, which may be increased when the child has an upper respiratory infection.

      While symptoms may initially worsen, they typically resolve by 18-24 months without the need for treatment. However, if the stridor is worsening, other diagnoses should be considered. Overall, understanding laryngomalacia can help parents and caregivers better recognize and manage this common condition in young babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      326.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You meet with a 32-year-old patient during a clinic visit to discuss contraception...

    Correct

    • You meet with a 32-year-old patient during a clinic visit to discuss contraception options. She expresses interest in getting a coil as she has not had success with oral contraceptives and desires a highly effective method. Although her periods are not excessively heavy or painful, she is curious about the Kyleena® intrauterine system (IUS) after hearing about it from friends and reading an article about it. What information should you provide to this patient regarding the Kyleena®?

      Your Answer: The Kyleena® coil releases less systemic levonorgestrel than the mirena® coil

      Explanation:

      The Kyleena® is a newly licensed levonorgestrel (LNG) intrauterine system (IUS) that is designed for contraceptive use for up to 5 years. Unlike the Mirena® IUS, it is not approved for managing heavy menstrual bleeding or providing endometrial protection as part of hormonal replacement therapy. The Kyleena® IUS is smaller in size than the Mirena® coil and contains 19.5mg of LNG, which is less than the 52mg found in the Mirena®. The Jaydess IUS contains the least amount of LNG at 13.5mg, but it is only licensed for 3 years. The Kyleena® releases a lower amount of systemic LNG than the Mirena® IUS, which may result in lower rates of amenorrhea and a higher number of bleeding or spotting days.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      105.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on his scalp. He mentions that they are not causing him any discomfort. Upon examination, you observe numerous rough scaly lesions on his sun-damaged skin, accompanied by extensive erythema and telangiectasia.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream

      Explanation:

      Topical diclofenac can be utilized to treat mild actinic keratoses in this individual.

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - During a routine insurance medical examination, a GP notices that a 35-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • During a routine insurance medical examination, a GP notices that a 35-year-old woman has absent ankle jerks and unequal pupils.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Holmes-Adie syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Holmes-Adie Syndrome

      Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that affects the pupil of the eye and the autonomic nervous system. It is characterized by one eye with a larger than normal pupil that constricts slowly in bright light, along with the absence of deep tendon reflexes, usually in the Achilles tendon. The pupil remains small for an abnormally long time after constriction, known as a tonic pupil. This condition is thought to be caused by a viral infection that damages neurons in the ciliary ganglion and the dorsal root ganglion.

      Holmes-Adie syndrome typically begins gradually in one eye and may involve the other eye. Patients may also experience excessive sweating, sometimes only on one side of the body. This condition is most commonly seen in young women. Diagnosis is confirmed by the pupil’s hypersensitivity to weak miotic drops, causing the abnormal pupil to contract vigorously and the normal pupil minimally.

      While this condition tends to be benign, patients are typically observed. The prevalence of Holmes-Adie syndrome is about 2 per 1000. Over time, the pupil sphincter may become fibrosed and the pupil constricted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      164.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are asked by one of your practice nurses to see a new...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked by one of your practice nurses to see a new health care support worker at the practice who has become unwell. She is a young adult and has just put on a pair of latex gloves to assist the nurse with a procedure. Immediately after putting the gloves on she has developed diffuse itch and widespread urticaria is present. She has some mild angioedema and a slight wheeze is audible.

      Which of the following describes this scenario?

      Your Answer: Type I allergic reaction

      Correct Answer: Type II allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Allergic Reactions to Natural Rubber Latex

      Natural rubber latex (NRL) is commonly found in healthcare products, including gloves. However, NRL proteins can cause a type I immediate hypersensitivity allergic reaction, which can be severe. In addition, some products made with NRL may contain chemical additives that cause an irritant contact dermatitis, resulting in localized skin irritation. This is not an allergic response to NRL.

      Another type of allergic reaction, a type IV allergic contact dermatitis, can occur due to sensitization to the chemical additives used in NRL gloves. This type of reaction may take months or even years to develop, but once sensitized, symptoms usually occur within 10-24 hours of exposure and can worsen over a 72 hour period. It is important for healthcare workers and patients to be aware of the potential for allergic reactions to NRL and to take appropriate precautions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      171
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You assess a 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with breast cancer two years...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with breast cancer two years ago. She has been experiencing difficulty walking since yesterday and can only take a few steps. What is the earliest and most common sign of spinal cord compression?

      Your Answer: Urinary hesitancy

      Correct Answer: Back pain

      Explanation:

      The earliest and most common symptom of spinal cord compression is back pain.

      Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency

      Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 5-year-old girl attends surgery with a febrile illness. Her mother tells you...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl attends surgery with a febrile illness. Her mother tells you that she has been unwell for almost 24 hours and has been complaining of right-sided ear pain. The child is usually healthy with no significant past medical history.

      On examination you find a temperature of 38.5°C and the right eardrum is red and bulging. The rest of the clinical examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Advice on symptomatic treatment should be given with a delayed antibiotic script (antibiotic to be collected at parents' discretion after 72 hours if the child has not improved) as back up

      Explanation:

      Middle Ear Infection Caused by Upper Respiratory Tract Infection

      The bacteria responsible for an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) can travel up the eustachian tubes and cause an infection in the middle ear. This can lead to the tympanic membrane becoming retracted, making the handle and short process of the malleus more prominent. As pressure builds up in the middle ear, the eardrum may become distended and bulge outwards, accompanied by severe otalgia, systemic toxicity, fever, and tachycardia.

      If the tympanic membrane perforates, severe pain followed by a sudden improvement is likely to occur. The raised pressure within the middle ear is the main cause of the severe pain, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. Once the tympanic membrane ruptures, the pressures will equalize, and the pain will decrease dramatically. For more information on acute otitis media, visit the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are working as a clinical research fellow. You design a case-control study...

    Correct

    • You are working as a clinical research fellow. You design a case-control study to investigate the association between maternal diet during pregnancy and adolescent obesity.

      What kind of bias is this study most susceptible to?

      Your Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Recall bias is a significant concern in case-control studies, particularly those conducted retrospectively. Participants may be asked to recall past exposures, leading to the risk of certain events being forgotten or over-remembered.

      Expectation bias is more likely to occur in non-blinded trials, where the observer’s cognitive biases can influence the recorded data. However, this is unlikely to be an issue in this retrospective study.

      Late look bias can arise when there is a significant delay in gathering data. For example, if data were collected when the children were in their 40s, mothers who were particularly unhealthy during pregnancy may have died, leading to underrepresentation in the study.

      Measurement bias can occur when the outcome of interest is poorly measured. In this study, for instance, measurement bias could arise if the children’s obesity status was determined based on the measurement of incorrectly calibrated scales.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      104.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28 year-old woman comes to you with a recent skin lesion. She...

    Correct

    • A 28 year-old woman comes to you with a recent skin lesion. She is in good health but is currently 16 weeks pregnant. She reports that the lesion appeared four weeks ago and has grown quickly. Upon examination, you observe a bright red, nodular lesion that is 14mm in diameter and shows signs of recent bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Pyogenic Granuloma: A Common Benign Skin Lesion

      Pyogenic granuloma is a benign skin lesion that is relatively common. Despite its name, it is not a true granuloma nor is it pyogenic in nature. It is also known as an eruptive haemangioma. The cause of pyogenic granuloma is unknown, but it is often linked to trauma and is more common in women and young adults. The most common sites for these lesions are the head/neck, upper trunk, and hands. Lesions in the oral mucosa are common during pregnancy.

      Pyogenic granulomas initially appear as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress within days to weeks, forming raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed profusely or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously postpartum, while other lesions usually persist. Removal methods include curettage and cauterisation, cryotherapy, and excision.

      In summary, pyogenic granuloma is a common benign skin lesion that can be caused by trauma and is more common in women and young adults. It appears as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress into raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously, while other lesions usually persist and can be removed through various methods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports seeing faces that are smaller than usual or other objects that are out of proportion. Although he acknowledges that these episodes are not real, they still cause him distress. The patient has a history of macular degeneration and experienced depression 15 years ago after his wife passed away. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Charles-Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.

      In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is otherwise well and takes no other medication. He has some bloods taken at his annual review, including for thyroid function. His thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 0.1 mU/L, free thyroxine (T4) 21 pmol/l and triiodothyronine (T3) 4.3 pmol/l. Repeat testing shows similar results. His thyroid gland is not enlarged or tender.
      Which of the following conditions is this patient most at risk from?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Subclinical Hyperthyroidism: Risks and Treatment Recommendations

      Subclinical hyperthyroidism is characterized by persistently low TSH levels of less than 0.4 mU/L with normal T4 and T3 levels. This condition has been associated with an increased risk of atrial fibrillation, particularly in elderly populations. Studies have reported a 13% incidence of atrial fibrillation in subclinical hyperthyroidism compared to 2% in controls. Additionally, there is evidence of decreased bone mineral density, especially in postmenopausal women. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends referral to an endocrinologist for persistent subclinical hyperthyroidism. Treatment is usually offered to those with a TSH level persistently equal to or less than 0.1 mU/L, aged 65 years or older, postmenopausal, at risk of osteoporosis, have cardiac risk factors, or have any symptoms of hyperthyroidism. However, there is no evidence of changes in mood or cognitive function in patients with subclinical hyperthyroidism. It is important to note that subclinical hyperthyroidism doesn’t lead to hypothyroidism or thyroid cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      224.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 75 year-old man is referred by his GP to the memory clinic...

    Correct

    • A 75 year-old man is referred by his GP to the memory clinic and is diagnosed with mild vascular dementia. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and early peripheral vascular disease. Which medication listed below would be the best option for treating his cognitive symptoms?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine, are a class of drugs used to treat cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia. The goal is to slow down the rate of decline, and approximately half of patients respond positively to the medication. However, it is challenging to determine the individual response as it is unknown how much deterioration would have occurred without the medication. Memantine, a glutamate receptor antagonist, is another drug used in Alzheimer’s disease and is recommended by NICE for severe dementia or when anticholinesterase inhibitors are not suitable. Rivastigmine can also be prescribed for dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease. Unfortunately, there are currently no medications available to treat cognitive symptoms in vascular dementia.

      Understanding the Causes of Dementia

      Dementia is a condition that affects millions of people worldwide, and it is caused by a variety of factors. The most common causes of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, cerebrovascular disease, and Lewy body dementia. These conditions account for around 40-50% of all cases of dementia.

      However, there are also rarer causes of dementia, which account for around 5% of cases. These include Huntington’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Pick’s disease, and HIV (in 50% of AIDS patients). These conditions are less common but can still have a significant impact on those affected.

      It is also important to note that there are several potentially treatable causes of dementia that should be ruled out before a diagnosis is made. These include hypothyroidism, Addison’s disease, B12/folate/thiamine deficiency, syphilis, brain tumours, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural haematoma, depression, and chronic drug use (such as alcohol or barbiturates).

      In conclusion, understanding the causes of dementia is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment. While some causes are more common than others, it is important to consider all potential factors and rule out treatable conditions before making a final diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness, and a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness, and a headache. Laboratory findings reveal a haemoglobin level of 66 g/L and a reticulocyte count of 0.8%. The patient is suspected to have contracted parvovirus.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic crisis

      Explanation:

      An aplastic crisis, often caused by parvovirus infection, is characterized by a sudden decrease in haemoglobin levels without a corresponding increase in reticulocytes.

      Understanding Sickle-Cell Crises

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a condition that is characterized by periods of good health with intervening crises. There are different types of crises that are recognized, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crisis, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are usually triggered by infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically, and infarcts can occur in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, causing pooling of blood and worsening of the anaemia. Acute chest syndrome is another type of crisis that is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, leading to infarction in the lung parenchyma. This can result in dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management of acute chest syndrome includes pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus, leading to a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression causes a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and are characterized by a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. Understanding the different types of sickle-cell crises is important for effective management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      80
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of bilateral erythematous palms....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of bilateral erythematous palms. She reports itching and the presence of some vesicles. She has observed this developing quickly at work, where she has just begun a new job as a hairdresser.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Allergic Contact Dermatitis, Atopic Eczema, Scabies, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, and Ringworm

      Skin conditions can vary in their causes and symptoms. Allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction that occurs upon contact with an allergen, such as nickel, hair dyes, bleaches, perfumes, fragrances, and rubber antioxidants in gloves. Atopic eczema is a chronic skin condition that presents with red, itchy skin localized to the flexor surfaces and doesn’t normally develop vesicles. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by exposure to mites, which is very itchy and often starts between the fingers, but it would not normally flare up while at work. Hand, foot and mouth disease is a common childhood condition caused by the Coxsackievirus, characterized by a vesicular rash on the hands, feet, and mouth. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection that is usually circular with a silver scale and can be itchy, but it would be unlikely to cause bilateral hand symptoms and doesn’t cause the vesicular rash described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old girl presents to her health care provider with concerns about missed...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to her health care provider with concerns about missed periods and a positive pregnancy test. She has been sexually active with her 17-year-old boyfriend for the past six months, using condoms as protection. The patient expresses a desire for a termination but doesn't want to involve her parents in any way. Despite counseling on the risks of abortion and the importance of involving parents, she remains firm in her decision to seek an abortion without parental involvement. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Offer her a referral to an abortion service without parental consent

      Correct Answer: Contact her parents and inform them of the situation

      Explanation:

      Gillick Competency and Abortion: Understanding the Guidelines

      Under the Gillick case, a child who is deemed competent and has a full understanding of the implications of her actions can be offered advice and treatment without parental consent. This means that if a patient requests an abortion, it can be offered with appropriate counselling and support. However, if a healthcare practitioner has conscientious objections to participating in an abortion, they must provide an alternative practitioner who will support the patient.

      It is important to note that every effort should be made to persuade the patient to inform her parents. The Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines are in place to ensure that young people are able to make informed decisions about their healthcare, but it is still important to involve parents or guardians where possible. By understanding these guidelines, healthcare practitioners can provide the best possible care for their patients while also respecting their rights and beliefs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      23.6
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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for routine blood tests. She is currently following a low-phosphate diet and taking calcitriol. The results are as follows:

      Hb 130 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 190 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 5 mg/L (< 5)
      Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 2.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 90 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.55 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 50 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most appropriate course of action to address these blood test results?

      Your Answer: Alfacalcidol

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.

      Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.

      In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 24 - A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a high fever....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a high fever. He has a history of febrile seizures. During the examination, he begins to have a seizure. The medical team quickly moves him to the treatment room and administers oxygen. However, after 5 minutes, the seizure persists. Unfortunately, there is no buccal midazolam available. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Give 2.5 mg rectal diazepam + rectal paracetamol 1g

      Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam

      Explanation:

      Acute Management of Seizures

      Seizures can be a frightening experience for both the patient and those around them. While most seizures will stop on their own, prolonged seizures can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage seizures in an acute setting.

      The first step in managing a seizure is to check the patient’s airway and provide oxygen if necessary. It is also important to place the patient in the recovery position to prevent choking or aspiration. If the seizure is prolonged, benzodiazepines may be necessary.

      Rectal diazepam is a recommended option for managing prolonged seizures. The dose will vary depending on the patient’s age and weight. The BNF recommends repeating the dose once after 10-15 minutes if necessary.

      Another option is midazolam oromucosal solution, which can be administered based on the patient’s age and weight. It is important to note that this medication is unlicensed for use in neonates and for some age groups.

      In summary, the acute management of seizures involves ensuring the patient’s airway is clear, placing them in the recovery position, and administering benzodiazepines if necessary. Rectal diazepam and midazolam oromucosal solution are two options for managing prolonged seizures, but dosages will vary based on the patient’s age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of vaginal itching and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of vaginal itching and pain while urinating. She reports that these symptoms are interfering with her daily life, particularly during sexual intercourse. She has noticed a change in the appearance of her discharge, which now has a curd-like texture, but there is no change in odor. She is concerned that she may have contracted an STI. She denies any increase in urinary frequency or urgency. She has no significant medical history but had an IUD inserted six months ago.

      What is the most appropriate method for diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer: High vaginal swab done by a healthcare professional

      Correct Answer: Based on symptoms

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis doesn’t necessarily require a high vaginal swab if the symptoms are highly indicative of the condition. According to NICE guidelines, if a patient presents with classic symptoms such as thick-white discharge, dysuria, itching, and dyspareunia, objective testing is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Therefore, the patient can be prescribed oral fluconazole without the need for a swab.

      It is incorrect to assume that a healthcare professional or self-collected high vaginal swab is necessary for diagnosis. As mentioned earlier, the patient’s symptoms are highly suggestive of candidiasis, making a swab unnecessary.

      Similarly, a mid-stream urine sample for sensitivities is not appropriate in this case. This type of test would be more suitable if the patient had symptoms indicative of a urinary tract infection. However, since the patient denies urinary urgency and frequency, a UTI is unlikely. The change in discharge consistency, which is characteristic of vaginal candidiasis, further supports this diagnosis. Therefore, a urine sample is not required.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      62.6
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  • Question 26 - A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his mother who has noticed his...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his mother who has noticed his legs 'look strange' since he started walking over the past 5 weeks. His mother says that when he stands straight, his knees are very close together and his feet have a wide gap between them. The boy has no pain in his knees and there is no limp when he walks. He runs around the house without any problems.

      On examination, there are no lumps along the bones of either leg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Genu valgus

      Explanation:

      This young woman has a noticeable inward curvature of her knees, also known as genu valgus or ‘knock knees’. Her symptoms are typical and there are no concerning signs in her medical history or physical examination. Genu varus, on the other hand, is characterized by outward curvature of the legs or ‘bow legs’, with a significant gap between the knees and ankles. Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common condition among athletes that causes knee pain. Rickets is a disorder that results in soft and weak bones, often leading to bone pain, delayed growth, muscle weakness, or skeletal issues. It is typically caused by a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium. Synovial sarcoma is a rare type of cancer that usually presents as a painless lump near a joint.

      Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, and can be caused by a variety of conditions. Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that affects teenage girls and is characterized by softening of the cartilage of the patella. This can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. However, it usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking. Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella, and the knee may give way. Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys and causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. It is tender below the patella on examination.

      It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      28.6
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain that has persisted for several months and was previously diagnosed as osteoarthritis by another GP. She also experiences fatigue, sleep disturbance, and constipation. Despite undergoing routine tests, thyroid function tests, and rheumatological investigations, all results have been normal. Her joint examination is also normal. What is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia: Choosing the Right Medication

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances. While there is no cure for fibromyalgia, there are several treatment options available to manage its symptoms.

      One medication commonly prescribed for fibromyalgia is amitriptyline, an antidepressant that can improve pain, mood, and sleep quality. Aerobic exercise and cognitive behavior therapy can also be effective in improving overall wellbeing.

      However, medications such as methotrexate and prednisolone are not recommended for fibromyalgia as they are used for inflammatory conditions and lack evidence of benefit for this condition. Strong opioids like slow-release morphine sulfate are also not recommended due to their potential for addiction and tolerance. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like naproxen may provide short-term relief for acute pain, but are not typically used for chronic pain management in fibromyalgia.

      It is important for patients with fibromyalgia to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      53.2
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  • Question 28 - You are a primary care physician seeing a 2-year-old girl with her mother....

    Correct

    • You are a primary care physician seeing a 2-year-old girl with her mother. The mother reports that over the past 48 hours, her daughter has had intermittent fevers (up to 37.5ºC) and has been fussy. However, she has been eating and drinking normally.

      The mother has also noticed that her daughter has been tugging at her right ear.

      Upon examination, the child appears comfortable, and the following vital signs are noted:
      Temperature 37.2ºC
      Heart rate 105 beats/min
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min

      Upon otoscopy, you observe a small perforation in the right tympanic membrane with a small amount of discharge present in the external ear canal. The left tympanic membrane appears normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action based on the information provided?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a 7 day course of amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      In cases of acute otitis media with perforation, oral antibiotics should be prescribed. The recommended course of treatment is a 7-day course of amoxicillin. While most cases of otitis media resolve on their own with simple analgesia, antibiotics may be necessary in certain situations, such as bilateral infection in children under 2, otorrhoea, perforated tympanic membrane, and symptoms that do not improve after 3 days. In this case, the patient has ongoing and bilateral infection with on and off fevers for 3 days, making a 7-day course of amoxicillin the most appropriate option. Tympanic membrane perforations usually heal within 4-8 weeks, and it is good practice to re-examine them after a few weeks to ensure healing. However, this should be done earlier than 12-16 weeks. Tympanic membrane perforation is a common complication of otitis media and can usually be managed in the community without the need for discussion with ENT. Otomize, which contains aminoglycosides that are ototoxic, should not be used in cases of otitis media with perforation.

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      86.9
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man presents with vertigo, reporting a recurrent feeling that the environment...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with vertigo, reporting a recurrent feeling that the environment is spinning. What is the leading cause of vertigo?

      Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

      Explanation:

      Vertigo is most commonly caused by BPPV.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      25.5
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  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't had a doctor's appointment in over four years. Her parents have become increasingly worried about her behavior in the past few weeks. They report her staying up late at night, talking rapidly, and being very irritable. Yesterday she told her parents she was planning to take over the school assembly and give constructive criticism to her teachers in front of the other students. She feels many of her teachers are underperforming and need to be re-taught their subjects by her. She admits to trying cannabis once around eight months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year, the last time being three weeks ago. Prior to her decline a few weeks ago, her parents describe her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable young woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mania

      Explanation:

      It is highly improbable for him to experience issues related to cannabis and alcohol as it has been a considerable amount of time since he last consumed these substances.

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they are not the same. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are significant differences between them. Mania is a severe form of mood disorder that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant functional impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to self or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a milder form of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It doesn’t impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. Hypomania doesn’t exhibit any psychotic symptoms. The length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

      Despite their differences, both hypomania and mania share some common symptoms. These include predominantly elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      37.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (3/4) 75%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/3) 33%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (3/3) 100%
Mental Health (2/2) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Passmed