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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of increasing lethargy and weakness. She reports experiencing recurrent muscle cramps in her legs, which have been affecting her sleep. Additionally, she has been urinating up to ten times a day and feels constantly dehydrated. She also mentions that her periods, which were previously irregular, have ceased for the past 4 months.

      During the examination, the patient is noted to be underweight, with a body mass index of 17kg/m². Her heart rate is 88 bpm, and her blood pressure is 108/86 mmHg.

      The following laboratory results are obtained:

      - C Reactive protein: 2 mg/l
      - Haemoglobin: 158 g/l
      - White cell count: 7.6 x 10^9/L
      - Na+: 136 mmol/l
      - K+: 2.9 mmol/l
      - Urea: 7.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 108 µmol/l
      - Corrected calcium: 2.42 mmol/l

      A venous blood gas test reveals:

      - pH: 7.532
      - Bicarbonate: 37 mmol/l

      What would be the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Early morning cortisol

      Correct Answer: Urine diuretic assay

      Explanation:

      When patients have hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and a normal to low blood pressure, several possible causes should be considered, including diuretic abuse, Bartter’s syndrome, and Gitelman’s syndrome. Diuretic abuse is the most common cause, particularly in young women, and can be ruled out with a urine diuretic assay.

      Bartter’s syndrome typically presents in early life and is characterized by triangular facies, polyuria, polydipsia, and renal failure. Despite a low or normal blood pressure, serum renin and aldosterone levels are high. Renal stones are a common feature, and urine calcium may be elevated. Gitelman’s syndrome, on the other hand, may present later in adulthood and is generally milder or asymptomatic compared to Bartter’s syndrome. Hypomagnesaemia and hypocalciuria are distinguishing features of Gitelman’s syndrome.

      While additional investigations such as a TVUS, early morning cortisol, and fasting blood glucose tests may be necessary to rule out other conditions, a urine diuretic assay would be the most useful next step in evaluating this patient’s biochemistry profile.

      Understanding Hypokalaemia and its Causes

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium and hydrogen ions are competitors, and as potassium levels decrease, more hydrogen ions enter the cells. Hypokalaemia can occur with either alkalosis or acidosis. In cases of alkalosis, hypokalaemia may be caused by vomiting, thiazide and loop diuretics, Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome. On the other hand, hypokalaemia with acidosis may be caused by diarrhoea, renal tubular acidosis, acetazolamide, or partially treated diabetic ketoacidosis.

      It is important to note that magnesium deficiency may also cause hypokalaemia. In such cases, normalizing potassium levels may be difficult until the magnesium deficiency has been corrected. Understanding the causes of hypokalaemia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with the most severe headache...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with the most severe headache she has ever experienced, accompanied by a high fever of 39.8 oC. She complains of excruciating muscle and joint pain, describing it as if her bones were being crushed. She has also vomited multiple times. She recently returned from a trip to the Amazon rainforest. Her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, and her pulse is 110 bpm. She has a widespread maculopapular rash.
      The following investigations were conducted:
      s
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 120 - 160 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.8 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 95 × 109/l 150 - 400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 136 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 380 iu/l 0 - 37 iu/l
      Which type of insect is most likely responsible for transmitting her infection?

      Your Answer: Aedes mosquito

      Explanation:

      Insect Vectors and Their Associated Diseases

      Various insects can transmit diseases to humans, and it is important to identify the specific vector to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment. The Aedes mosquito is responsible for transmitting Dengue fever, which presents with severe fever, a macular rash, and muscle and joint pains. Lyme disease, carried by the Ixodes tick, presents with erythema chronicum migrans. Malaria, transmitted by the Anopheles mosquito, is not present in Australia. The Tokunagayusurika midge is not associated with significant human disease, while the Xenopsylla flea can cause flea-borne typhus. Identifying the vector can aid in the prompt and accurate diagnosis of these diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      24.4
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  • Question 3 - You are evaluating a 60-year-old man who has just commenced treatment for urological...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 60-year-old man who has just commenced treatment for urological cancer with Nivolumab (Opdivo), a type of checkpoint inhibitor. He has been receiving treatment for a month and has not experienced any adverse effects thus far. He is curious about what he can anticipate from this therapy.

      What is the most prevalent side effect that this patient is likely to encounter?

      Your Answer: Dry itchy skin and rashes

      Explanation:

      Immune checkpoint inhibitors are a type of immunotherapy used to treat certain types of cancer. Their side effects are inflammatory and autoimmune in nature, with dry itchy skin and rashes being the most common. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, decreased appetite, diarrhea, tiredness, fatigue, shortness of breath, and dry cough.

      Understanding Immune Checkpoint Inhibitors

      Immune checkpoint inhibitors are a type of immunotherapy that is becoming increasingly popular in the treatment of certain types of cancer. Unlike traditional therapies such as chemotherapy, these targeted treatments work by harnessing the body’s natural anti-cancer immune response. They boost the immune system’s ability to attack and destroy cancer cells, rather than directly affecting their growth and proliferation.

      T-cells are an essential part of our immune system that helps destroy cancer cells. However, some cancer cells produce high levels of proteins that turn T-cells off. Checkpoint inhibitors block this process and reactivate and increase the body’s T-cell population, enhancing the immune system’s ability to recognize and fight cancer cells.

      There are different types of immune checkpoint inhibitors, including Ipilimumab, Nivolumab, Pembrolizumab, Atezolizumab, Avelumab, and Durvalumab. These drugs block specific proteins found on T-cells and cancer cells, such as CTLA-4, PD-1, and PD-L1. They are administered by injection or intravenous infusion and can be given as a single-agent treatment or combined with chemotherapy or each other.

      However, the mechanism of action of these drugs can result in side effects termed ‘Immune-related adverse events’ that are inflammatory and autoimmune in nature. This is because all immune cells are boosted by these drugs, not just the ones that target cancer. The overactive T-cells can produce side effects such as dry, itchy skin and rashes, nausea and vomiting, decreased appetite, diarrhea, tiredness and fatigue, shortness of breath, and a dry cough. Management of such side effects reflects the inflammatory nature, often involving corticosteroids. It is important to monitor liver, kidney, and thyroid function as these drugs can affect these organs.

      In conclusion, the early success of immune checkpoint inhibitors in solid tumors has generated tremendous interest in further developing and exploring these strategies across the oncology disease spectrum. Ongoing testing in clinical trials creates new hope for patients affected by other types of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29.3
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  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old Pakistani man with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old Pakistani man with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a 2-month history of weight loss, upper abdominal pain, and diarrhoea. He reports two episodes of dark red blood per rectum. He has a past history of anal cancer and received chemoradiation in Pakistan. His last hospital admission was for pneumonia. On examination, he looks unwell with a temperature of 37.8 °C. What is the most probable diagnosis? A colonoscopy is performed, and histological analysis of rectal biopsy shows round intranuclear inclusion bodies within some of the epithelial cells.

      Your Answer: Metastatic colonic malignancy

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus-associated colitis

      Explanation:

      Cytomegalovirus-associated colitis is a common presentation of gastrointestinal cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection. This infection is often linked to inflammatory bowel disease and is characterized by the presence of round intranuclear or intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the intestinal mucosa epithelial cells. While immunocompetent patients with gastrointestinal CMV infection usually have a good clinical outcome, immunosuppressed patients, such as those on methotrexate therapy, are more prone to opportunistic infections. Symptomatic CMV in immunocompromised patients is treated with intravenous ganciclovir, followed by oral maintenance therapy. Pseudomembranous colitis, a complication of C. difficile infection, is less likely in this case as the patient has not recently used antibiotics. Metastatic colonic malignancy is also unlikely, given the absence of evidence of generalised deterioration or focal signs. Lymphocytic colitis, diagnosed by an increased number of intra-epithelial lymphocytes with epithelial surface damage, is only partially treated with sulphasalazine or prednisolone. Cryptosporidium diarrhoea, caused by a protozoan and associated primarily with HIV infection, is not a likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man with a history of COPD is admitted with a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of COPD is admitted with a severe pneumonia and AKI. His central venous pressure is 4 and his arterial blood gas shows:
      pH 7.25 (7.35-7.45)
      Bicarbonate 11 mmol/L (22-28)
      BE -12 mmol/L (±2)
      pCO2 9.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      His venous bloods reveal:
      Sodium 132 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 5.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 21.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.0)
      Creatinine 410 μmol/L (60-110)
      What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous 1.26% sodium bicarbonate solution

      Correct Answer: Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride solution

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with COPD and Mixed Respiratory and Metabolic Acidosis

      This patient has a history of COPD and is presenting with a mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis. Due to her COPD, she may have pulmonary hypertension, which can cause her central venous pressure (CVP) to be high. However, her CVP is low, indicating that she is likely fluid depleted. Therefore, she needs fast intravenous fluid resuscitation using 0.9% saline to restore her circulating volume rapidly.

      It is not appropriate to use 1.26% sodium bicarbonate solution for fluid resuscitation or to correct the acidosis, as it may be detrimental. Oral bicarbonate would not correct the primary problem of volume depletion or the acidosis quickly. Haemodialysis is not necessary at this time, but it may become necessary if the patient becomes oligoanuric despite adequate fluid resuscitation.

      If the patient has respiratory acidosis, non-invasive ventilation may be indicated. However, BiPAP rather than CPAP would be beneficial in this setting. It is important to correct the metabolic acidosis before deciding on ventilatory support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      20.1
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  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man with a BMI of 37 presents to the respiratory clinic...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a BMI of 37 presents to the respiratory clinic with increasing shortness of breath. He has a 40 pack year history.

      Initial investigations reveal:

      pH 7.36 (7.36 - 7.44)

      pO2 10.6 kPa (11.3 - 12.6)

      pCO2 6.7 kPa (4.7 - 6.0)

      HCO3 37 mmol/L (20 - 28)

      Spirometry shows:

      Actual % predicted

      FVC (l) 3.63 59

      FEV1(l) 3.01 60

      FRC (l) 1.46 37

      RV (l) 1.08 48

      TLC (l) 4.99 61

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Obesity hypoventilation syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Restrictive Lung Disease

      Patients with spirometry readings and type II respiratory failure (compensated) on their blood gases may have evidence of a restrictive lung disease. This condition is often associated with obesity hypoventilation syndrome, especially if the patient has a raised BMI. While neuromuscular disease and interstitial lung disease can also cause restrictive lung defects, the inclusion of the patient’s BMI is a crucial factor in making a diagnosis.

      In summary, patients with a restrictive lung disease may exhibit spirometry readings and type II respiratory failure (compensated) on their blood gases. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome is a common cause of this condition, particularly in patients with a raised BMI. Other potential causes include neuromuscular disease and interstitial lung disease, but the patient’s BMI is an essential factor in making a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about bowel cancer screening after...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about bowel cancer screening after receiving an invitation by mail. What is the most accurate statement about the screening process according to the National Health Service guidelines?

      Your Answer: Screening is to be offered to all men and women aged 60-74

      Explanation:

      The Genetics of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a degenerative neurological disease that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that only one copy of the faulty gene is needed for an individual to develop the disease. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother with no copies of the gene, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the faulty gene and develop the disease.

      Symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically appear in early middle age and include unsteady gait, involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and progressive dementia. The defective gene responsible for the disease is located on chromosome 4, and there is a phenomenon known as genetic anticipation where the disease can manifest earlier in life in subsequent generations.

      Fortunately, genetic screening is now available to identify individuals who carry the faulty gene. This can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and allow for early intervention and treatment. The genetics of Huntington’s disease is crucial for individuals and families affected by the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old male presented with three episodes of transient loss of consciousness, but...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presented with three episodes of transient loss of consciousness, but no chest pain. He had recently been discharged from the hospital after experiencing an anterior myocardial infarction. Upon examination, his pulse was regular at 80 beats per minute and his blood pressure was 136/82 mmHg. His apex beat was diffuse and displaced to the anterior axillary line in the sixth intercostal space. Neurological examination was normal. The ECG showed occasional ventricular extrasystoles, deep anterior Q waves, and ST segment elevation throughout the anterior leads. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Administer tissue plasminogen activator

      Correct Answer: Observe in the coronary care unit

      Explanation:

      Possible LV Aneurysm and Arrhythmias in Patient

      There is a possibility that the patient has a left ventricular (LV) aneurysm that is linked to arrhythmias. To confirm this diagnosis, it would be best to observe the patient on the coronary care unit and proceed with an echocardiogram. This will allow for a more accurate assessment of the patient’s condition and help determine the appropriate course of treatment. It is important to closely monitor the patient’s symptoms and vital signs to ensure their safety and well-being. By taking these steps, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for the patient and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      26.4
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  • Question 9 - A 37-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of increasing swelling in her...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of increasing swelling in her abdomen and lower limbs. She has a medical history of myasthenia gravis, which was associated with a thymic mass. She underwent a thymectomy 5 years ago, and after positive margins were noted, she received radiotherapy. She has no other medical history. On examination, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear. Her JVP is located at 6 cm above the angle of Louis. Abdominal examination reveals a pulsatile liver and smooth hepatomegaly. A chest x-ray shows minimal pleural and pericardial calcification. What is the definitive treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pericardiectomy

      Explanation:

      The individual exhibits symptoms consistent with constrictive pericarditis, which may be attributed to their prior radiotherapy. Given the severity and persistence of their symptoms, pericardiectomy is the only viable treatment option. Although diuretics may provide temporary relief or be utilized in cases where surgery is not feasible, pericardiectomy remains the preferred course of action despite the associated surgical risks. It is worth noting that radiation-induced constrictive pericarditis typically has a poorer long-term prognosis compared to other causes.

      Understanding Constrictive Pericarditis

      Constrictive pericarditis is a condition that can be caused by any form of pericarditis, but is particularly associated with tuberculosis. It is characterized by dyspnea, right heart failure, and a prominent x and y descent in the jugular venous pulse. A pericardial knock, which is a loud S3 sound, is also often present. Kussmaul’s sign, which is a paradoxical rise in JVP during inspiration, is positive in this condition. Pericardial calcification can be seen on a chest X-ray.

      It is important to differentiate constrictive pericarditis from cardiac tamponade, which is another condition that can cause similar symptoms. In cardiac tamponade, the Y descent in the jugular venous pulse is absent, while in constrictive pericarditis, both the x and y descent are present. Pulsus paradoxus is present in cardiac tamponade, but absent in constrictive pericarditis. Kussmaul’s sign is rare in cardiac tamponade, but present in constrictive pericarditis. Pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray is a characteristic feature of constrictive pericarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old male with hepatitis C presents to the acute medical assessment unit...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old male with hepatitis C presents to the acute medical assessment unit with a recent decrease in urine output. Upon urinalysis, haematoproteinuria is detected, and the following blood results are obtained:

      - Hb: 9.8 g/dl
      - Platelets: 75 * 109/l
      - WBC: 12.1 * 109/l
      - Na+: 143 mmol/l
      - K+: 5.4 mmol/l
      - Urea: 18.9 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 205 µmol/l

      After a renal biopsy, the sample is examined under a microscope and reveals enlarged and hypercellular glomeruli with an increase in mesangial cellularity and matrix. The histological diagnosis is membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely underlying pathology for this finding?

      Your Answer: Cryoglobulinaemia

      Explanation:

      Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, which has led to acute kidney injury in this patient, can be caused by various factors. However, the significant factor in this case is the patient’s medical history of hepatitis C, which is strongly linked to mixed (type II) cryoglobulinaemia.

      Cryoglobulinemia: Types, Features, Investigations, and Management

      Cryoglobulinemia is a condition where immunoglobulins precipitate at 4 degrees Celsius and dissolve when warmed to 37 degrees Celsius. One-third of cases are idiopathic, and there are three types of cryoglobulinemia. Type I is monoclonal and is associated with multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia. Type II is mixed monoclonal and polyclonal and is usually associated with hepatitis C, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s, and lymphoma. Type III is polyclonal and is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and Sjogren’s.

      Possible features of cryoglobulinemia include Raynaud’s, cutaneous vascular purpura, distal ulceration, ulceration, arthralgia, renal involvement, and diffuse glomerulonephritis. Investigations may reveal low complement, especially C4, and high ESR.

      The management of cryoglobulinemia involves treating the underlying condition, such as hepatitis C, and immunosuppression. Plasmapheresis may also be used. Cryoglobulinemia can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, patients can experience relief from their symptoms.

      Overall, cryoglobulinemia is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring. By understanding the different types, features, investigations, and management options, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      50.9
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for a check-up. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for a check-up. He is currently taking the maximum doses of metformin and gliclazide, and has previously tried a DPP-4 inhibitor and pioglitazone. After discussion, it is decided to add insulin to his treatment plan. His latest Hba1c is 66 mmol/mol (48 mmol/mol), and he is capable of self-injecting after counseling.

      As per NICE guidelines, what would be an appropriate insulin regimen to initiate in this patient?

      Your Answer: Basal bolus regimen (intermediate-acting insulin once or twice daily with short-acting insulin around mealtimes three times a day)

      Correct Answer: Human isophane insulin once daily

      Explanation:

      First-line Insulin Therapy for Type 2 Diabetes

      In accordance with NICE guidelines, the recommended first-line insulin therapy for type 2 diabetes is a humane isophane insulin, also known as Neutral Protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin. These intermediate-acting insulins are typically administered once daily at night or twice a day. However, long-acting insulin analogues or biphasic mixed preparations may also be considered as alternative options.

      Long-acting insulin analogues may be more suitable for individuals who struggle with administering twice-daily NPH insulin injections, as they only require a once-daily injection. On the other hand, biphasic mixed preparations are recommended for individuals with poor diabetic control, indicated by an HbA1c level above 75 mmol/mol.

      For patients who are able to self-inject and have an HbA1c level significantly below 75 mmol/mol, NPH/human isophane insulin would be the most appropriate initial insulin choice. It is important to follow NICE guidelines when selecting insulin therapy for type 2 diabetes to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      32.8
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  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man with HIV has a CD4 count of 220 × 106/l....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with HIV has a CD4 count of 220 × 106/l. He is feeling generally well but has noticed some white patches in his mouth that are bothering him. Upon examination, you observe irregular white patches with a rough texture on the side of his tongue. They cannot be removed with a swab. What is the most effective treatment for these patches?

      Your Answer: Antiretroviral therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Oral Hairy Leukoplakia

      Oral hairy leukoplakia is a condition caused by Epstein-Barr virus and is often mistaken for oral candida. The plaques of leucoplakia cannot be dislodged and only need to be treated if they cause symptoms such as pain or dysphagia. The best treatment is to commence antiretroviral therapy, which will resolve the condition as the CD4 count rises. Other treatment options include high-dose aciclovir and surgery. Oral fluconazole and nystatin lozenges are not the most likely treatment options as they are used for oral candida. Aciclovir 200 mg 5× daily is the correct treatment for herpes simplex viral sores, which present as ulcers filled with yellow slough or cold sores. Improving oral hygiene is the correct treatment for gingivitis, which presents with gums that bleed easily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.3
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old man presented with a 6-day history of progressive weakness. Initially, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presented with a 6-day history of progressive weakness. Initially, he developed a foot drop on the left and some weakness of hand grip on the right, but over the next few days this progressed to weakness of all four limbs. He had just returned from a two-week holiday to Italy where he had spent the first few days in bed with a cough and feeling generally unwell.

      On examination, there was weakness, decreased tone and areflexia in all four limbs. Plantar responses were downgoing. Cranial nerves, coordination and sensation were normal.

      What is the most useful investigation to make a diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Serum immunoglobulins

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Investigation of Guillain-Barré Syndrome

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a condition characterized by rapidly progressive lower motor neurone pattern of weakness and a history of prodromal illness. Lumbar puncture is an important diagnostic tool to exclude other potential causes of similar presentations, such as infection or malignancy. A raised protein count and normal white cell count in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are characteristic findings in GBS. In some cases, anti-ganglioside antibodies are found. Treatment involves intravenous immunoglobulins and supportive interventions, including monitoring of respiratory function, prophylactic anticoagulation, and monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias. Early and regular measurement of forced vital capacity (FVC) is crucial.

      Atypical pneumonia serology, serum immunoglobulins, CT of the whole spine, and serum creatinine kinase are not specific to GBS and would not help confirm the diagnosis. CT of the spine is useful to identify bony abnormalities, while serum creatinine kinase is useful in the diagnosis of inflammatory myopathies. However, in GBS, the examination findings are in keeping with a lower motor neurone distribution. Therefore, lumbar puncture remains the most important investigation in the diagnosis of GBS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.5
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  • Question 14 - A 41-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of generalized...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of generalized aches and pains. He has a medical history of glaucoma and takes acetazolamide. He denies smoking or drinking alcohol and works as a marketing manager for an international fashion brand.

      During the examination, he displays mild proximal myopathy, but no synovitis is observed.

      The following blood tests are conducted:

      - Hemoglobin: 136 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 189 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells: 8.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium: 137 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - Potassium: 2.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 89 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Bicarbonate: 16 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29)
      - C-reactive protein: 4 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Bilirubin: 14 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17)
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 165 u/L (normal range: 30-100)
      - Alanine transaminase: 23 u/L (normal range: 3-40)
      - Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 44 u/L (normal range: 8-60)
      - Albumin: 36 g/L (normal range: 35-50)
      - Parathyroid hormone: 7.9 pmol/L (normal range: 1.6-6.9)
      - Calcium: 2.08 mmol/L (normal range: 2.20-2.60)
      - Vitamin D: 31 nmol/L (normal range: >50)

      What is the underlying diagnosis that could explain this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Type 2 renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is type 2 renal tubular acidosis, which is characterized by the failure of proximal tubular cells to reabsorb bicarbonate, resulting in acidemia. This condition is associated with hypokalemia and the development of osteomalacia. The reason for osteomalacia in this case is believed to be due to impaired proximal tubular conversion of 25 (OH)-cholecalciferol to the active 1,25 (OH)2-cholecalciferol. The patient’s symptoms of aches and pains, proximal myopathy, low vitamin D, low calcium, and raised PTH are typical of osteomalacia. The use of acetazolamide is a known cause of type 2 renal tubular acidosis. Therefore, the patient’s unifying diagnosis is type 2 renal tubular acidosis secondary to acetazolamide treatment.

      Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is a condition that results in hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which is characterized by a normal anion gap. There are three types of RTA, each with its own unique set of causes and complications. Type 1 RTA, also known as distal RTA, is caused by an inability to generate acid urine in the distal tubule, leading to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and amphotericin B toxicity. Complications may include nephrocalcinosis and renal stones.

      Type 2 RTA, or proximal RTA, is characterized by a decreased reabsorption of HCO3- in the proximal tubule, which also leads to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including Wilson’s disease and outdated tetracyclines. Complications may include osteomalacia.

      Type 3 RTA, or mixed RTA, is an extremely rare form of the condition that is caused by carbonic anhydrase II deficiency. This results in hypokalaemia.

      Type 4 RTA, or hyperkalaemic RTA, is caused by a reduction in aldosterone, which leads to a reduction in proximal tubular ammonium excretion. This type of RTA can be caused by hypoaldosteronism and diabetes, and it results in hyperkalaemia.

      Overall, RTA is a complex condition that can have a variety of causes and complications. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      152.8
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  • Question 15 - A 38-year-old woman with a known history of manic-depressive psychosis is admitted unconscious...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with a known history of manic-depressive psychosis is admitted unconscious after having been found fitting in the street. Her husband is contacted and reports that they had a serious argument some 7 h ago.

      On examination to the Emergency Department, she is hypertonic and has a GCS of 8. Her blood pressure is 95/55 mmHg and pulse is 105/min. Lithium level is measured at 3.2 mmol/l. She is intubated and ventilated.

      Investigations:

      Investigation Result Normal value

      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l

      White cell count (WCC) 6.7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l

      Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l

      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l

      Potassium (K+) 5.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l

      Creatinine 87 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l

      Lithium 3.2 mmol/l 0.4–1.2 mmol/l

      Which of the following initial interventions would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Activated charcoal should be given

      Correct Answer: IV Normal saline should be started

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Lithium Overdose

      Lithium overdose can lead to serious complications such as hypotension and tachycardia. When lithium levels are above 3 mmol/l, normal saline should be started to address these symptoms. Activated charcoal is not effective in treating lithium overdose, but gastric lavage can be considered within the first 1-2 hours after ingestion. However, given the time period elapsed in this scenario, gastric lavage is not likely to be useful. IV 5% dextrose is not recommended as IV fluid replacement in this situation, as normal saline is preferred. NSAIDs should not be used as they can actually increase lithium levels. In summary, the recommended treatment options for lithium overdose include normal saline, gastric lavage (if within the first 1-2 hours), and avoiding the use of NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      120.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man has been admitted to the urology department due to difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been admitted to the urology department due to difficulty passing urine and back pain. A bladder scan revealed 980 mls of urine in his bladder, and he was catheterized by the admitting doctor, which resulted in haematuria. The patient has a medical history of metastatic prostate cancer, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, hypothyroidism, atrial fibrillation, and a previous NSTEMI. He is currently taking warfarin and modified-release morphine 30 mg every 12 hours.

      The urology consultant has recommended inserting a 3-way catheter if the haematuria persists and referring the patient to the palliative care team for pain management. The palliative care specialist has suggested increasing the modified-release morphine to 45 mg every 12 hours.

      What is the appropriate dosage of immediate-release morphine for the patient's breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 5mg

      Correct Answer: 15mg

      Explanation:

      To determine the appropriate dose of immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain, you must first calculate the patient’s total daily dose of morphine. For this patient, who was previously taking 60mg of morphine per day, the breakthrough dose would be 1/6th of this, or 10mg of immediate-release morphine.

      However, the patient’s modified release morphine has since been increased to 90 mg per day. To ensure the patient receives the maximum benefit, it is important to recalculate the breakthrough pain dosage. One-sixth of 90 is 15mg, meaning the patient should now receive 5mg of immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
      348.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 39-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath and ankle swelling. He...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath and ankle swelling. He reports he is more short of breath, especially on exertion, which is not being relieved by the use of his salbutamol inhaler. He has also noticed his ankles are swollen by the end of the day.

      His past medical history includes asthma, which is usually well controlled, and lymphoma, which was treated with chemotherapy several years ago. His only medications are his beclometasone and salbutamol inhalers. The results of his blood tests are shown below:

      Hb 140 g/L (135-180)
      Platelets 359 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 7.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 5.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 119 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      His ECG showed sinus rhythm with left axis deviation. An echocardiogram was done which showed dilation of all four chambers of the heart and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%.

      Which medication can be attributed to causing this man's presentation?

      Your Answer: Doxorubicin

      Explanation:

      Doxorubicin, an anthracycline used to treat lymphoma, can lead to cardiomyopathy, which is evident in this man’s presentation of heart failure and echocardiogram results. Cyclophosphamide, another treatment option for lymphoma and leukemia, is known to cause haemorrhagic cystitis. Vincristine, often used in combination with doxorubicin for lymphoma treatment, is associated with peripheral neuropathy. Docetaxel, commonly used for breast and lung cancers, can result in neutropenia.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia after extensive investigation....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia after extensive investigation. Despite no source of blood loss or malabsorption being found, she has been taking ferrous sulfate twice daily for three months with no improvement in her iron indices or hemoglobin levels. Additionally, she reports experiencing bloating, loose bowel movements, and nausea when taking the iron tablets, which has significantly impacted her quality of life. What should be the next step in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Switch to intravenous iron supplementation

      Explanation:

      Proper Use of Iron Supplementation

      Iron supplementation is a common treatment for iron deficiency, but adverse events associated with oral iron administration can make compliance difficult. Therefore, persisting with oral iron supplementation despite adverse events is not recommended. Compliance can be verified by checking the color of the stool, which will be black in iron administration. In cases where oral iron is not tolerated or gastrointestinal disorders make it difficult to maintain acceptable iron levels, parenteral (IV) iron is the proper course of therapy. However, it is important to discuss the risks involved, including a small risk of hypersensitivity. IV iron is also indicated for patients who are unable to maintain acceptable iron levels during hemodialysis or who fail to comply with prescriptions for oral iron supplementation. By properly using iron supplementation, patients can effectively treat iron deficiency without experiencing unnecessary adverse events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      14.5
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  • Question 19 - A 55 year-old businessman presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year-old businessman presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of weakness and numbness affecting his left hand. He noticed a month ago that his little finger was often getting caught when he tried to put his hand in his pocket. Since then, he has experienced progressive difficulty using his left hand, accompanied by an unpleasant tingling sensation. In the last two weeks, he has also noticed difficulty walking and has tripped over on several occasions. When driving, he finds that his right foot often becomes stuck behind the accelerator pedal, and he struggles to lift it out.

      Upon examination, there is diminished sensation over the little finger and medial side of the ring finger, as well as the medial side of the palm. There is weakness of finger abduction and adduction, but thumb abduction is normal. On examination of the legs, there is diminished sensation over the lateral aspect of the right calf, as well as the dorsum of the right foot. When asked to walk on his heels, he finds it difficult to do so and trips over the right foot.

      The following investigations were conducted:

      - Haemoglobin 14.2 g/dl
      - WCC 7.1 x10^9/l
      - Platelets 420 x10^9/l
      - ESR 65 mm/hr
      - Na+ 139 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.3 mmol/l
      - Urea 13.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 171 µmol/l
      - Corrected calcium 2.26 mmol/l
      - ANCA Positive, with perinuclear staining pattern
      - PR3 antibodies Negative
      - MPO antibodies Positive
      - Urine dipstick +++ blood, +++ protein
      - Urine microscopy Red cell casts
      - Chest radiograph Clear

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wegener's granulomatosis

      Correct Answer: Microscopic polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with mononeuritis multiplex, which involves ulnar and common peroneal neuropathy. This condition can be caused by various factors, including vasculitis, diabetes, AIDS, amyloidosis, and rheumatoid arthritis.

      The patient’s elevated urea and creatinine levels, along with haematuria featuring red cell casts and proteinuria, suggest the presence of glomerulonephritis. The combination of mononeuritis multiplex and glomerulonephritis strongly indicates systemic vasculitis, which is further supported by the raised ESR.

      Microscopic polyangiitis is a type of small-vessel vasculitis that is typically positive for p-ANCA, with antibodies against MPO (myeloperoxidase). Other symptoms may include systemic issues like fever, weight loss, fatigue, and rash.

      Classic polyarteritis nodosa is negative for ANCA.

      Wegener’s granulomatosis often involves upper airway disease and is typically positive for c-ANCA, with antibodies against PR3.

      While diabetes mellitus is a common cause of peripheral neuropathies like mononeuritis multiplex, there is nothing in the patient’s history to suggest this. Additionally, haematuria and red cell casts are not typical of diabetic nephropathy, nor is ANCA positivity.

      While entrapment can cause both ulnar and common peroneal neuropathy, it would be unusual for both to occur simultaneously.

      Understanding Microscopic Polyangiitis

      Microscopic polyangiitis is a type of small-vessel ANCA vasculitis that affects the body’s blood vessels. It is characterized by various symptoms, including renal impairment, fever, lethargy, myalgia, weight loss, palpable purpura rash, cough, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and mononeuritis multiplex.

      One of the most common symptoms of microscopic polyangiitis is renal impairment, which is indicated by raised creatinine levels, haematuria, and proteinuria. Other systemic symptoms may also be present, such as fever, lethargy, and myalgia. Patients may also experience a palpable purpura rash, cough, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis.

      To diagnose microscopic polyangiitis, doctors may perform various tests, including pANCA (against MPO) and cANCA (against PR3) tests. These tests are positive in 50-75% and 40% of cases, respectively.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic tests for microscopic polyangiitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      43.5
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man has recently undergone successful mitral valve replacement for rheumatic valvular...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has recently undergone successful mitral valve replacement for rheumatic valvular heart disease. He has been started on warfarin and his INR has been stabilised with a plan to maintain it within the range of 2.5-3.5. However, he now presents to his general practitioner with complaints of recurrent episodes of dysuria and frequency, for which he has been prescribed co-trimoxazole. What steps should be taken to ensure that his INR remains within the target range?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce dose of warfarin

      Explanation:

      Interaction between Co-trimoxazole and Warfarin

      When Co-trimoxazole and Warfarin are taken together, it can lead to an increased anticoagulant effect. This means that the blood-thinning effect of Warfarin is enhanced, which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is important to reduce the dose of Warfarin when taking Co-trimoxazole to avoid any potential complications. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare provider before taking these medications together to ensure proper dosing and monitoring. Proper management of this drug interaction can help prevent adverse effects and ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department complaining of dizziness. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department complaining of dizziness. He reports no chest pain or difficulty breathing. The patient is currently taking 10 mg of felodipine for hypertension. After examination, his electrolyte levels are found to be normal. An ECG reveals complete heart block, and thyroid function tests come back normal. An Echo shows severe left ventricular impairment. What is the recommended course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac resynchronisation therapy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Choosing the Right Pacing System for Patients with Severe LV Impairment

      Patients with severe LV impairment who require a permanent pacing system should be carefully evaluated to determine the best option for their specific needs. While a dual chamber pacemaker may be a common choice, it can result in RV pacing which has been linked to negative effects on LV function and increased mortality rates. The BLOCK-HF trial and other studies have shown that patients with a high degree of RV pacing may benefit more from a CRT system instead of a conventional pacemaker.

      Therefore, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of each pacing system before making a decision. The ESC guidelines recommend a CRT system for patients with reduced EF who are likely to have a high percentage of RV pacing. By choosing the right pacing system, patients with severe LV impairment can receive the best possible care and improve their chances of a positive outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change that has been going on for a year. He has become loud, sexually flirtatious, and inappropriate in social situations. He has also been experiencing difficulties with memory and abstract thinking, but his arithmetic ability remains intact. There is no motor impairment, and his speech is relatively preserved. Which area of the brain is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Pick’s Disease: A Rare Form of Dementia

      Pick’s disease is a type of dementia that is not commonly seen. It is characterized by the degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. The symptoms of this disease depend on the location of the lobar atrophy, with patients experiencing either frontal or temporal lobe syndromes. Those with frontal atrophy may exhibit early personality changes, while those with temporal lobe atrophy may experience aphasia and semantic memory impairment.

      Pathologically, Pick’s disease is associated with Pick bodies, which are inclusion bodies found in the neuronal cytoplasm. These bodies are argyrophilic, meaning they have an affinity for silver staining. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, EEG readings for Pick’s disease are relatively normal.

      To learn more about Pick’s disease, the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke provides an information page on frontotemporal dementia. this rare form of dementia can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the medical admission unit with a heart rate...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the medical admission unit with a heart rate of 180 bpm. An ECG shows a regular narrow-complex tachycardia. She reports palpitations but no chest pain, and her blood pressure is 140/95. Despite initial vagal maneuvers, including carotid massage, there is no improvement. The patient is given intravenous adenosine 6mg, followed by two more doses of adenosine 12mg, but there is no cardioversion or interpretable underlying rhythm.

      What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      The Resuscitation Council recommends administering Adenosine 6mg for supraventricular tachycardias, followed by two additional doses of Adenosine 12 mg if the initial dose does not work. If Adenosine is not suitable or fails to terminate a regular narrow-complex tachycardia without demonstrating atrial flutter, consider administering an intravenous calcium-channel blocker such as Verapamil 2.5 – 5mg over 2 minutes.

      Most regular narrow-complex tachycardias can be terminated by combining vagal maneuvers with 6mg/12mg/12mg of Adenosine. Administering additional Adenosine is not believed to be beneficial. Digoxin and Amiodarone are not recommended for regular narrow-complex tachycardias, as they are used to treat atrial fibrillation. However, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses such as atrial flutter/fibrillation if the above rhythm fails to terminate after Adenosine.

      The patient is stable and does not exhibit any adverse features that suggest DC cardioversion is necessary.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by the sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, there are several options available. Vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is also an option.

      Prevention of episodes can be achieved through the use of beta-blockers or radio-frequency ablation. Beta-blockers are a common choice for long-term management, while radio-frequency ablation is a more permanent solution that involves destroying the abnormal tissue causing the SVT.

      In summary, SVT is a type of tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin and is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT. Acute management options include vagal maneuvers, intravenous adenosine, and electrical cardioversion. Prevention of episodes can be achieved through the use of beta-blockers or radio-frequency ablation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old man with no current medication use has been found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with no current medication use has been found to have three high blood pressure readings: 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Hypertension: Essential vs. Secondary

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common medical condition that affects a significant portion of the population. In fact, 95% of patients who present with hypertension have what is known as essential hypertension. This type of hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors that lead to high blood pressure. On the other hand, 5% of patients have secondary hypertension, which is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.

      Essential hypertension is a complex condition that can be influenced by a variety of factors, including age, race, family history, diet, and lifestyle. While the exact cause of essential hypertension is not fully understood, it is believed to be the result of a combination of genetic and environmental factors that lead to an increase in blood pressure. In contrast, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific underlying condition, such as kidney disease, hormonal imbalances, or obstructive sleep apnea.

      It is important to distinguish between essential and secondary hypertension, as the treatment and management of these conditions can vary significantly. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension often requires treatment of the underlying condition in order to effectively manage high blood pressure. By the differences between these two types of hypertension, patients and healthcare providers can work together to develop an appropriate treatment plan that addresses the unique needs of each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a complaint of a rash behind her knee that has been present for two days. She has a medical history of asthma and eczema and is currently taking Symbicort and using emollients. She does not smoke or drink and recently returned from a camping trip where she went hiking in a forested area.

      During the examination, a bull's eye lesion is observed just above her right popliteal fossa. She is otherwise in good health and has no fever.

      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for Lyme disease is oral doxycycline, which should be started as soon as possible if there is a clinical diagnosis based on the presence of erythema migrans. Serological testing for Borrelia antibodies is not necessary in this case. Oral flucloxacillin and skin biopsy are not appropriate for the diagnosis of Lyme disease.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with haemoptysis and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with haemoptysis and weight loss. Upon examination, he is found to have clubbing and clinical evidence of right pleural effusion. His serum calcium levels are elevated at 3.2 mM (2.2-2.6 mmol/L), and a bone scan shows no abnormalities. Based on these findings, what is the most likely histological type of lung cancer he is suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Non-metastatic Manifestations of Lung Cancer

      Hypercalcaemia, a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood, can occur in about 15% of squamous cell lung carcinoma cases due to the production of parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP). Interestingly, this can happen even in the absence of bony metastases, which are typically associated with cancer spreading to the bones. This is considered a non-metastatic manifestation of malignancy.

      On the other hand, small cell lung cancer can lead to the inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which can cause hyponatraemia or low sodium levels in the blood. Additionally, ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production can occur, leading to Cushing’s syndrome.

      Clubbing, a condition where the fingers and toes become swollen and the nails curve abnormally, is more commonly associated with squamous cell cancers and occasionally adenocarcinoma. These non-metastatic manifestations of lung cancer can provide important clues for diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old non-smoking woman presents with weakness in her left arm (power 3/5)...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old non-smoking woman presents with weakness in her left arm (power 3/5) and left-sided facial drooping. These symptoms resolve within an hour of being examined by the admitting doctor. She has normal heart sounds, peripheral pulses, and is in sinus rhythm. As part of her workup, she undergoes blood tests and other investigations. The results show thrombocytopenia, no schistocytes, and the following values: Hb 130 g/L (115-165), WBC 9.5 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 72% (40-75), Platelet 75 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 8 mm/hr (0-15), INR 1.0 (<1.4), aPTT 50 seconds (30-40 seconds), and aPTT did not normalize after addition of plasma. Urea, electrolytes, and creatinine are normal, and CT head and echocardiogram are also normal. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome and Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

      Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is a condition characterized by a prothrombotic state in the body, despite laboratory tests indicating an anticoagulant state. This is caused by the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies, such as anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant, which lead to coagulation defects in vitro. However, in vivo, these antibodies can cause arterial and venous thromboses, as well as thrombocytopenia.

      On the other hand, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a severe systemic illness that presents with a classic pentad of symptoms, including microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal dysfunction, neurologic abnormalities, and fever. While it is rare to find all five symptoms in a patient, the presence of any combination of these symptoms should raise suspicion for TTP.

      It is important to note that protein C/S deficiency and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura do not lead to the same symptoms as antiphospholipid antibody syndrome or TTP. Therefore, proper diagnosis and management are crucial in ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department following a seizure that occurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department following a seizure that occurred while she was a passenger in a car. There is no history of trauma. Upon admission, she is alert with a GCS of 15/15. Her partner reports a generalised seizure with a post-ictal phase lasting approximately 30 minutes. On examination, her heart rate is 90/min, blood pressure is 102/60 mmHg, and temperature is 37.1ºC. There are no focal neurological signs. A MRI scan is ordered:



      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Brain tumours can be classified into different types based on their location, histology, and clinical features. Metastatic brain cancer is the most common form of brain tumours, which often cannot be treated with surgical intervention. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis. Meningioma is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults, which is typically benign and arises from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges. Vestibular schwannoma is a benign tumour arising from the eighth cranial nerve, while pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common primary brain tumour in children. Medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment, while ependymoma is commonly seen in the 4th ventricle and may cause hydrocephalus. Oligodendroma is a benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes, while haemangioblastoma is a vascular tumour of the cerebellum. Pituitary adenoma is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that can be either secretory or non-secretory, while craniopharyngioma is a solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region that is derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 24-year-old teacher with ankylosing spondylitis comes to the clinic complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old teacher with ankylosing spondylitis comes to the clinic complaining of a headache. She mentions having a painful right eye and cloudy vision. During the examination, her eye appears red and photophobic, and her pupils are small with a sluggish pupillary reflex. Although her visual fields are normal, she still reports cloudy vision. Her recent FBC, UEC, and liver function tests all came back normal. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uveitis

      Explanation:

      Ocular Manifestations in Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Patients with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) are prone to developing uveitis, an inflammation of the uvea, which can lead to vision loss if left untreated. In addition, AS can also cause blepharitis and conjunctivitis, which typically present with mild symptoms. However, if left untreated, these conditions can progress to more serious complications such as corneal melts, which are perforating corneal ulcers that can cause corneal opacities and scotomata. It is important to note that corneal melts are more commonly seen in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

      Scleritis is another ocular manifestation that can occur in patients with AS. It presents as a dusky blue discoloration of the sclera, accompanied by pain and tenderness. Unlike other ocular complications, scleritis does not typically cause photophobia or sluggish pupillary reflex.

      In summary, patients with AS should be aware of the potential ocular complications associated with their condition. Regular eye exams and prompt treatment of any symptoms can help prevent vision loss and other serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 56-year-old-man with a history of granulomatosis with polyangiitis presents for his annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old-man with a history of granulomatosis with polyangiitis presents for his annual review in the rheumatology clinic. He was diagnosed at age 37 where he presented with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and pulmonary haemorrhage and was treated with cyclophosphamide and steroids. He required a period of haemofiltration on the intensive care unit but has remained well since.

      Today, he reports occasional blood in his urine but feels well after recently quitting smoking. On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, there is no pallor or oedema, and his chest is clear. His investigations are below, and his urine appears clear.

      Hb 105 g/l
      Platelets 300* 109/l
      WBC 5* 109/l
      Urinalysis blood 3+ protein -
      Na+ 139 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 5.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine 98 µmol/l

      What is the likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The administration of cyclophosphamide to patients with granulomatosis with polyangiitis has been found to increase the risk of bladder cancer. The patient’s normal U&Es make a relapse of glomerulonephritis unlikely. Loin to groin pain is typically associated with renal calculi, not present in this case. Hematuria may not be visible to the naked eye, despite being present. Although a positive dipstick may indicate rhabdomyolysis, there are no other indications of this condition.

      Understanding Cyclophosphamide and its Adverse Effects

      Cyclophosphamide is a medication used to treat cancer and autoimmune diseases. It is classified as an alkylating agent, which means it works by causing cross-linking of DNA. However, the use of this medication can lead to adverse effects such as haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma.

      Haemorrhagic cystitis is a condition where there is bleeding in the bladder, which can be caused by the toxic effects of a metabolite of cyclophosphamide called acrolein. To reduce the incidence of this condition, hydration and the use of mesna are recommended. Mesna is a medication that binds to and inactivates acrolein, helping to prevent haemorrhagic cystitis.

      It is important to understand the adverse effects of cyclophosphamide and the measures that can be taken to reduce their occurrence. Patients should be closely monitored for any signs of these adverse effects and appropriate interventions should be taken promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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