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Question 1
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A pre-med student is preparing for her oncology rotation and is studying the use of tumour markers in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer.
Which of the following tumour markers is accurately matched with the cancer it is linked to?Your Answer: Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Their Association with Specific Cancers
Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. These markers can be used to screen for and monitor certain types of cancer. Here are some examples of tumor markers and their association with specific cancers:
– Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma: AFP is raised in 80% of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. High-risk patients should be offered 6-monthly screening with a combination of hepatic ultrasound and AFP level.
– CA 15-3 and breast cancer: CA 15-3 is associated with breast cancer.
– CA 19-9 and pancreatic and biliary tract cancers: CA 19-9 is associated with pancreatic and biliary tract cancers.
– CA 125 and ovarian cancer: CA 125 is associated with ovarian cancer.
– Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and prostatic cancer: PSA is associated with prostatic cancer and benign prostatic hypertrophy.
– Testicular cancer: Testicular cancer can be associated with AFP, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), depending on the tumor type.It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and can also be elevated in non-cancerous conditions. Therefore, tumor markers should always be interpreted in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You encounter a 50-year-old man who confides in you about his personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, and it has been progressively worsening. This patient seldom visits healthcare providers and has no prior medical conditions.
What is the predominant organic etiology for this symptom?Your Answer: Hormonal causes
Correct Answer: Vascular causes
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a symptom characterized by the persistent inability to achieve and maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition. Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors, while psychogenic causes can be generalized or situational. Among the organic causes, vasculogenic factors are the most common, with cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery being the primary culprits. As such, the risk factors for ED are similar to those for CVD, including obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for CVD and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.
For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 21-year-old student has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.
What is the most frequent type of hallucination experienced in schizophrenia?Your Answer: Auditory
Explanation:Understanding the Characteristics of Psychosis: Types of Hallucinations
Psychosis is a mental health condition that can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations. Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without any corresponding sensory stimulation. While they can occur in any sensory modality, auditory hallucinations are particularly common in patients with schizophrenia. However, it is important to note that the presence or absence of one symptom or type of symptom does not determine the psychiatric diagnosis.
Visual hallucinations are more common in delirium or psychedelic drug intoxication than in schizophrenia. Olfactory and gustatory hallucinations are associated with partial complex seizures, while tactile hallucinations are characteristic of delirium tremens, a severe form of alcohol withdrawal.
To aid in the diagnosis of schizophrenia, clinicians often use mnemonics. Negative symptoms, also known as type II schizophrenic symptoms, can be remembered with the acronym LESS. Diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia, in the absence of cerebral damage, intoxication, epilepsy, or mania, can be remembered with the acronym DEAD. Positive symptoms, also known as type I schizophrenic symptoms, can be remembered with the acronym THREAD.
Overall, understanding the characteristics of different types of hallucinations can aid in the evaluation and diagnosis of psychotic patients. However, it is important to consider the overall spectrum of symptoms and the course of the disease when making a diagnosis.
Understanding the Characteristics of Psychosis: Types of Hallucinations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports no cough or sputum production. Upon auscultation, his chest is clear. His pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 110 bpm, while his oxygen saturation is 86% on room air. He is breathing at a rate of 26 breaths per minute. What diagnostic investigation is most likely to be effective in this scenario?
Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct Answer: Computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism in Cancer Patients
Pulmonary embolism (PE) and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are common in cancer patients due to their hypercoagulable state. When a cancer patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, chest pain, and desaturation, PE should be suspected. The gold standard investigation for PE is a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA), which has a high diagnostic yield.
An electrocardiogram (ECG) can also be helpful in diagnosing PE, as sinus tachycardia is the most common finding. However, in this case, the patient’s irregularly irregular pulse is likely due to atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate, which should be treated alongside investigation of the suspected PE.
A D-dimer test may not be helpful in diagnosing PE in cancer patients, as it has low specificity and may be raised due to the underlying cancer. An arterial blood gas (ABG) should be carried out to help treat the patient, but the cause of hypoxia will still need to be determined.
Bronchoscopy would not be useful in diagnosing PE and should not be performed in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
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A 56-year-old diabetic female comes in with cellulitis of the left foot, spreading from an ulcer on the plantar surface of the head of the left third metatarsal that had been present for 3 weeks before the onset of cellulitis. She was given oral flucloxacillin and the cellulitis improved, but after a week of treatment, the ulcer was still discharging and there was a tender area of swelling over the ulcer on examination. What is the most probable reason for this?
Your Answer: The patient has a collection of pus which requires surgical drainage
Explanation:Surgical drainage is necessary for the patient’s pus collection, indicating possible osteomyelitis of the metatarsal. The patient’s diabetes history and chronic ulcer elevate the risk.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A three-week-old preterm baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his mother due to concerns of increasing lethargy and refusal to feed over the past 3 days. On examination, the baby's respiratory rate is 66 breaths/min, oxygen saturations are 95% on air, heart rate is 178 bpm, blood pressure is 64/48 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5ºC. The only notable findings are lethargy and signs of dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Galactoseamia
Correct Answer: Neonatal sepsis
Explanation:Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presented with pruritus in the perineal area, associated with pain on micturition and dyspareunia. She had thin, hypopigmented skin, with white, polygonal patches which, in areas, formed patches.
She returns for review after a 3-month trial of clobetasol proprionate, which has failed to improve symptoms. There is no evidence of infection, and her observations are stable.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?Your Answer: Ultraviolet (UV) phototherapy
Correct Answer: Topical tacrolimus
Explanation:Treatment Options for Lichen Sclerosus: Topical Tacrolimus as Second-Line Therapy
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genital area in men and women, presenting with pruritus and skin irritation. First-line treatment involves high-potency steroids, but if the patient fails to respond, the next step is topical calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus. This immunosuppressant reduces inflammation by inhibiting the secretion of interleukin-2, which promotes T-cell proliferation. However, chronic inflammatory conditions like lichen sclerosus increase the risk of vulval carcinoma, so a tissue biopsy should be obtained if the lesion is steroid-resistant. UV phototherapy and oral retinoids are not recommended as second-line therapy due to uncertain risks, while surgical excision is reserved for severe cases. The combination of potent steroids with antibacterial or antifungal properties is a first-line option in cases of superimposed infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. She has been diagnosed with inoperable cancer and is experiencing pain from infiltration of the posterior abdominal wall. Currently, her pain is being managed effectively with Kapake (codeine 30 mg and paracetamol 500 mg), taken two tablets four times per day.
What is the optimal approach for managing her pain?Your Answer: Morphine four hourly orally and as needed intramuscularly
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous diamorphine by continuous infusion
Explanation:Choosing the Best Analgesia for a Patient with Inoperable Carcinoma
When a patient has inoperable carcinoma and requires opiate analgesia, it is important to choose the most effective method of administration. In the case of a patient who is vomiting, parenteral analgesia is necessary. Subcutaneous diamorphine administered through continuous infusion is the best option for achieving adequate analgesia while also allowing for effective dose titration.
Other options, such as fentanyl patches, are not ideal for titration as they are used for 72 hours and are typically reserved for patients with stable opiate usage. Intramuscular pethidine has a delayed onset and prolonged effect, which is not ideal when the patient’s opiate requirements are unknown. Oral morphine is unlikely to be tolerated in a vomiting patient, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are unlikely to provide sufficient pain relief in this case.
In summary, subcutaneous diamorphine administered through continuous infusion is the most effective and appropriate method of analgesia for a patient with inoperable carcinoma who is vomiting and requires opiate pain relief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around the caecum and also involves the terminal ileum. There are no signs of weight loss or lymphadenopathy. The patient has a history of multiple oral ulcers and severe perianal disease, including fissures, fistulae, and previous abscesses that have required draining.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Whipple's disease
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a condition that affects different parts of the digestive tract. The location of the disease can be classified as ileal, colonic, ileo-colonic, or upper gastrointestinal tract. In some cases, the disease can cause a solid, thickened mass around the caecum, which also involves the terminal ileum. This is known as ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.
While weight loss is a common symptom of Crohn’s disease, it is not always present. It is important to note that the range of areas affected by the disease makes it unlikely for it to be classified as anything other than ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with a nine-week history of fever. She has been experiencing daily temperatures up to 40°C, malaise, and occasional aches in the hands and knees. She also noticed a transient pink rash on her abdomen. Her GP prescribed a one-week course of ampicillin, but it had little effect. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.9°C, a pulse of 110 per minute, and a faint systolic ejection murmur. Her spleen is palpable 3 cm below the left costal margin. Her haemoglobin level is 115 g/L, and her white cell count is 12.8 ×109/L. Her ASO titre is 250 units, and her rheumatoid factor and ANF are negative. Blood cultures have been requested but are not yet available. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bacterial endocarditis
Correct Answer: Adult onset Still's disease
Explanation:Adult Onset Still’s Disease
Adult onset Still’s disease is a type of inflammatory disorder that affects young adults. Its exact cause and development are still unknown, but it is characterized by various symptoms such as fever, rash, joint pain, and organ enlargement. The disease can have systemic exacerbations and chronic arthritis, with periods of remission in between. To diagnose adult onset Still’s disease, a person must have at least five criteria, including two major criteria such as high fever lasting for a week or longer, joint pain lasting for two weeks or longer, rash, and abnormal white blood cell count. Minor criteria include sore throat, lymph node or spleen swelling, liver problems, and the absence of rheumatoid arthritis.
It is important to note that mildly raised ASO titres may be present in inflammatory or infective conditions, but an ASO titre of at least 500-1000 is expected in active acute rheumatic fever. Additionally, an ejection systolic murmur may be caused by the hyperdynamic circulation in adult onset Still’s disease, unlike acute rheumatic fever or acute bacterial endocarditis, which cause acute valvular regurgitation and result in pan-systolic or early-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, bacterial endocarditis does not cause the pink rash associated with adult onset Still’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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